Unit 1 test

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Unit 1 test
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Unit 1 test
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  1. What is the code of Hammurabi?
    Document written in 1700 B.C. that spelled out protocols and reimbursements for medical care, including punishment for malpractice.
  2. What is abmulances volantes?
    Also known as flying ambulances it was developed in 1790 by Jean Larrey and was the philosophy of bringing care to the patients in the field.
  3. When and where was the first documented ambulance service?
    In 1869 in New York City started by the Health Department.
  4. What wars helped develope EMS?
    • World War I and World War II developed ambulance corps to rapidly care and remove injured patients from the field to hospitals.
    • The Korean War instituted helicopters and also developed M.A.S.H. units to bring hospitals closer to the front line.
  5. What are the white paper?
    • Document released in 1966, also known as Accidental Death and Disability, that set out 10 critical points.
    • From these papers the National Highway Safety Act was developed and set up funding for Basic and Advanced life support.
    • Regulated by USDOT.
  6. Who is Dr. Eugene Nagel?
    • In 1969 He set up a training course for EMT in Miami Florida.
    • He also developed the first Telemetry system that enabled fire fighters to transmit a patients ECG to the hospital.
    • He is called the Father of Paramedicine.
  7. What are the 15 componets set by the Emergency Medical Services System Act in 1973?
    • Integration of health services
    • EMS research
    • Legislation and regulation
    • System finance
    • Human Resources
    • Medical direction
    • Education systems
    • Public education
    • Prevention
    • Public access
    • Communication system
    • Clinical care
    • Information systems
    • Evaluation
  8. What are the 10 system elements set by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration throughout the 1980's and 90's?
    • Regulation and Policy
    • Resource management
    • Human resources and training
    • Transportation
    • Facilities
    • Communication
    • Public information and education
    • Medical direction
    • Trauma systems
    • Evaluation
  9. What are the different roles in EMS and their functions?
    • Dispatcher- They receive and enter all information on the call. They interpret the information and in turn relay it to the appropriate resouces. They can relay simple medical direction like CPR, and bleeding control until EMS arrives.
    • First Respnders- Not recognized in all states. trained in CPR and First Aid.
    • EMT-Basic- Considered the backbone of EMS. They are trained in advanced airwaysand limited medication administration.
    • EMT-Intermediate- Skills include IV therapy, cardiac monitoring, and advanced airways procedure.
    • EMT-Paramedic- Highest skill level. Function under a medical director.
  10. What are the Roles and Responsibilites of the Paramedic?
    • Preparation
    • Response
    • Scene management
    • Patient assessment and care
    • Management and disposition
    • Patient transfer
    • Documentation
    • Return to service
  11. What are the roles of the medical director?
    • Educating and training personnel.
    • Participating in the selection of new personnel
    • Participating in equiptment selection
    • Developing clinical protocols in cooperation with other EMS personnel who are considered experts in the field.
    • Developing and assisting in a quality improvement program.
    • Providing input into patient care.
    • Interfacing between EMS systems and other health care agencies.
    • Serving as an EMS advocate to the community.
    • Serving as the cdeical conscience of the EMS system.
  12. What is a Protocol?
    Treatment plan for a specific illness or injury.
  13. What is a Standing Order?
    Type of protocol that is a written document signed by the EMS systems medical director that outlines specific directions, permissions and sometimes prohibitions regarding patient care that is rendered prior to contacting medical control.
  14. What is the Fight or Flight syndrome?
    • Physiologic response to a progound stressor. Featuring increased sympathetic tone and resulting in dilation of the pupils, increased heart rate, dilation of the cronchi, movilization of glucose, shunting blood away from the gastrointestinal tract and increasing it the the cerembrum and skeletal muscles.
    • It helps you deal with stress.
  15. What is Stress?
    • Reaction of the body to any agent or situation that requires the individual to adapt.
    • Has two forms
    • Eustress- positive stress
    • Distress- negative stress
  16. What are the stages of the defense mechanisms?
    • Denial
    • Regression
    • Projection
    • Displacement
  17. What is Burnout?
    • Exhaustion of physical or emotional strength.
    • Result of unrelieved stress.
  18. What are the stages of the grieving process?
    • Denial
    • Anger
    • Bargaining
    • Depression
    • Acceptance
  19. What is mobidity?
    Number of nonfatally injured or disabled people. Usually expressed as a rate, meaning the number of nonfatal injuries in a certain population in a given time period divided by the size of the population.
  20. What is mortality?
    Death caused by injuries or diseases.
  21. What is passive Transport diffusion?
    Movement of a substance from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
  22. What is Faclitated diffusion?
    Transport molecule within the membrane helps the movement of a substance from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration.
  23. What is Osmosis?
    Movement of a solvent from an area of low solute concentration to one of high concentration through a selectively permeable membrane to equalize concentrations of a solute on both sides of the membrane.
  24. What is Filtration?
    Movement of water and a dissolved substance from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure.
  25. What is Active Transport?
    Movement via pumps or transport molecules that require energy and move substances from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
  26. What are the 6 R's?
    • Right Patient
    • Right Medication
    • Right Dose
    • Right route
    • Right time
    • Right documentation and reporting.
  27. What is an Agonist?
    Medication that stimulates a response in a receptor site.
  28. List of absorption route from slowest to fastest.
    • Topical- hours to days
    • Oral- 30-90 minutes
    • Rectal- 5-30 minutes
    • SC Injection- 15-30 minutes
    • IM Injuection- 10-20 minutes
    • Sublingual tablet- 3-5 minutes
    • Sublingual injection- 3 minutes
    • Inhalation- 3 minutes
    • Endotracheal- Unknown
    • IO- 60 seconds
    • IV- 30-60 seconds
    • Intracardiac- 15 seconds
  29. What is an Antagonist?
    Block the receptor site from being stimulated by other chemical mediators and inhibit the normal response.
  30. What is a half life?
    Time it takes the body to eliminate half of the drug.
  31. What are the Alpha and Beta receptors?
    • Alpha 1- Produce peripheral vasoconstriction are associated with mild bronchoconstriction and speed metabolism.
    • Alpha 2- Control the release of norepinepherine.
    • Beta 1- Increase the heart rate, cause cardiac muscle to contract, strengthen cardiac contraction. Produce automaticity and trigger cardiac electrical conduction.
    • Beta 2- Stimulate vasodilation and bronchodilation.
  32. What percentage of an average male body weight is water?
    60%
  33. What is a Bolus?
    Medication given all at once.
  34. What is the most common inhailed medication?
    Oxygen
  35. What are ptentila complications of IV's?
    • Infiltration
    • Thrombophlebitis
    • Occlusion
    • Vein irritation
    • Hematoma
    • Nerve, tendon or ligament damage
    • Arterial punture
    • Allergic reactions
    • Pyrogenic reactions
    • Circulatory overload
    • Air embolus
    • Vasovagal reactions
    • Catherter shear
  36. What is Vasovagal reaction?
    • Anxiety from fear of the IV.
    • Patients can present anxiety, diaphoresis, nausea, and syncopal episodes.
    • Treatments inculdes placing patient in shock position, applying high flow oxygen, monitor vital signs, and establish an IV for fluids.
  37. The net effect of osmosis is to?
    A) Equalize the amount of water on both sides of the cell membranes.
    B) Passively transport a solution to an area of lower solute concentration.
    C) Equalize the concentrations of a solute on both sides of the cell membrane.
    D) Shift extracellular fluid to the intracellular and intravasular fluids.
    C) Equalize the concentrations of a solute on both sides of the cell membrane.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. All of the following diseases are autoimmune diseases, Except?
    A) Rheumatoid arthritis
    B) Type 1 diabetes
    C) HIV infection
    D) myasthenia gravis
    C) HIV infection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Ascites is defines as?
    A) Fluid backup in the periphery due to right atrial dysfunction.
    B) Fluid buildup in the lungs due to decreased cardiac function.
    C) An abnormal accdumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity.
    D) Lower extremity edema caused by lymphatic obstruction.
    C) An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Enlargement of the heart due to chronically elevated blood pressure is called?
    A) Atrophy
    B) Dysplasia
    C) Hyperplasia
    D) Hypertrophy
    D) Hypertrophy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Severe prolonged stess?
    A) causes the body to lose its ability to fight disease.
    B) is frequently a direct cause of death.
    C) results in the destruction of cholesterol and fat.
    D) results in shronically low levels of cortisol.
    A) causes the body to lose its ability to fight disease.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. The Cardinal sign of overhydration is:
    A) dyspnea
    B) tachycardia
    C) edema
    D) hypertension
    C) edema
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. What type of shock occurs when blood flow becomes blocked in the heart or great vessels?
    A) Distibutive
    B) Cardiogenic
    C) Peripheral
    D) Obstructive
    D) Obstructive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. The movement of water and a dissolved substance from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure is called?
    A) Passive transport diffusion
    B) Facilitated diffusion
    C) Filtration
    D) Active transport
    C) Filtration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Groups of cells form?
    A) organs
    B) tissues
    C) organ systems
    D) an organism
    B) Tissues
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Plasma comprises approximately _% of the blood?
    A) 25
    B) 45
    C) 35
    D) 55
    D) 55
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Strength of a person's peripheral pulses is related to?
    A) cardiac output and heart rate
    B) Stroke volume and pulse pressure
    C) Heart rate and preload
    D) Physical size and blood pressure
    B) Stroke volume and pulse pressure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Homeostasis is most accurately defined as?
    A) Cellular oxygen delivery and carbon dioxide removal from the body.
    B) A constant effort to preserve a degree of stability or equilibrium.
    C) The balance of water or hydration in the cells and body of an organism.
    D) The inability of the body to maintain a constant internal environment.
    B) A constant effort to preserve a degree of stability or equilibrium.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. An inflammatory condition of the respiratory system that results in intermittent wheezing and excess mucus production is called?
    A) sinusitis
    B) bronchitis
    C) asthma
    D) emphysema
    C) asthma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. If a patient is taking Enfuviritide, a protease inhibitor, you should be most suspicious that he or she has?
    A) A bacterial infection
    B) Tuberculosis
    C) Cancer
    D) HIV infection
    D) HIV infection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. The process of chemical signaling between cells is called?
    A) nerve innervation
    B) neurotransmission
    C) chemotransmission
    D) antagonism
    B) neurotransmission
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Medications that are manufactured synthetically?
    A) include calcium, iron, magnesium, and other minerals.
    B) include insulin, digitalis, and thyroid medications.
    C) are derived from certain plants and animal organs.
    D) do not use animal, mineral, or vegetable sources.
    D) do not use animal, mineral, or vegetable sources.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Minimum storage requirements for a controlled substance include a:
    A) properly locked cabinet or container that bears a "controlled substance" sticker and is made of material that allowsvisualization of the substance.
    B) portable carrying case that is sealed with a disposable numbered lock and can only be accessed by the paramedic after he or she signs a disposition record.
    C) securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet with no sign or any other indication that the cabinet contains a controlled substance.
    D) Heavy duty storage container to which only the paramedic supervisor or EMS medical director has the key or combination to the lock.
    C) securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet with no sign or any other indication that the cabinet contains a controlled substance.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. A medication that stimulates a response in a receptor site is said to be:
    A) an antagonist
    B) a competitive binder.
    C) an agonist
    D) synergistic
    C) an agonsit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. When selecting the most appropriate IV catherter, you should routinely consider all of the following except:
    A) the pupose of the IV.
    B) the patient's medical history.
    C) the age of the patient.
    D) the location of the IV.
    B) the patient's medical history.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. The primary buffer used in all circulating body fluids is:
    A) potassium
    B) bicarbonate
    C) magnesium
    D) phosphorus
    B) bicarbonate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. The most common cause of circulatory overload in the prehospital setting is:
    A) not using a Volutrol administration set when administering IV fluids to the elderly.
    B) failure to readjust the drip rate after flushing the IV line immediately after insertion.
    C) administerng excessive crystalloid solutions to patients with hypovolemic shock.
    D) overestimating the patients baseline hydration level and giving too much IV fluid.
    B) failure to readjust the drip rate after flushing the IV line immediately after insertion.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. The chemical sign for sodium bicarbonate is:
    A)NaCL
    B) KCL
    C)NaHCO3
    D)H2CO3
    C)NaHCO3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. All of the following physical changes occur in school-age children except:
    A) weight gain of 2 kilograms per year.
    B) the development of permanent teeth.
    C) vital signs similar to those of adults.
    D) average growth of 2 1/2" per year.
    C) vital signs similar to those of adults.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Medication routes, from slowest to fastest rates of absorption are:
    A) intravenous, inhalation, sublingual, subcutaneous, intramuscular.
    B) intromuscular, sublingual, subcutaneous, intravenous, inhalation.
    C) subcutaneous, intramuscular, sublingual, inhalation, intravenous.
    D) subcutaneous, sublingual, inhalation, intramuscular, intravenous.
    C) subcutaneous, intramuscular, sublingual, inhalation, intravenous.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. The circadian rhythm refers to a persons:
    A) breathing pattern.
    B) feeding habits.
    C) bowel habits.
    D) sleep pattern.
    D) sleep pattern.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. The pulse rate of a 16 year old adolescent typically ranges between:
    A) 90 and 120 beats/min.
    B) 60 and 100 beats/min.
    C) 80 and 110 beats/min.
    D) 60 and 80 beats/min.
    B) 60 and 100 beats/min.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. Which of the following factors typicall does not affect the vital signs a 65 year old patient:
    A) Overall health
    B) Living conditions.
    C) Medications taken.
    D) Past medical history.
    B) Living conditions.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Relative to younger adults, older adults generally have a harder time breathing because the:
    A) natural elasticity of the lungs decreases.
    B) diaphragm ascends much higher into the thorax.
    C) ribcage becomes flexible due to hypocalcemia.
    D) phrenic nerves send fewer signals to the diaphragm.
  65. A) natural elasticity of the lungs decreases.
  66. In conventional reasoning, school-age children:
    A) Make decisions guided by their consciences.
    B) act out so that they can get what they want.
    C) act almost purely to avoid punishment.
    D) seek approval from their peers and society.
    D) seek approval from their perrs and society.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. The decline in cardiac function associated with aging is largely related to:
    A) hypotension.
    B) bradycardia.
    C) atherosclerosis.
    D) rheumatic heart disease.
    C) atherosclerosis.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Which of the following vital signs is not consistent with that of a child between 1 and 3 years of age:
    A) systolic BP of 94mm Hg.
    B) body temperature of 99.2 F.
    C) respiratory rate of 25 breath/min.
    D) heart rate of 80 beats/min.
    D) heart rate of 80 beats/min.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. Infants are referred to as belly breathers because:
    A) they rely mostly on their diaphragm to breathe.
    B) their ribs are not fully attached to the sternum.
    C) their intercostal muscles are not innervated.
    D) their rib cages are more rigid than an adults.
    A) they rely mostly on their diaphragm to breathe.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. Which of the following psychosocial changes is common during adolescence:
    A) Fixation on public image and fear of embarrassment.
    B) code of ethics development based solely on parental values.
    C) openness in speaking about personal issues.
    D) a decreased rish for depression or suicidal behavior.
    A) Fixation on public image and fear of embarrassment.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. For the first year of life, an infant has naturally acquired passive immunities because:
    A) he or she maintains some of the mothers immunities.
    B) he or she receives antibodies through breastfeeding.
    C) vaccinations are given within the first year of life.
    D) he or she is producing antibodies exponentially.
    A) he or she maintains some of the mothers immunities.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Teething is commonly sccompanied by:
    A) diarrhea
    B) a rash
    C) fever
    D) ear infections
    C) fever
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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