VMN

Card Set Information

Author:
kpessin07
ID:
54649
Filename:
VMN
Updated:
2010-12-11 00:11:33
Tags:
VMN
Folders:

Description:
Veterinary Medical Nursing
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview

The flashcards below were created by user kpessin07 on FreezingBlue Flashcards. What would you like to do?


  1. Haul in care is provided at the farm with a well stocked vet truck
    False
  2. There is a connection between the economic value of a patient and its likelihood of receiving care.
    True
  3. Many horses are insured and the insurance company is involved with medical decisions
    True
  4. It is the job of the CVT to stock the vet truck with appropriate equipment and supplies
    True
  5. Many practices send home any shipping boots, leg wraps, etc when admitting an equine patient.
    True
  6. MEDICAL RECORD:
    It should be started as soon as the patient arrives
    True
  7. MEDICAL RECORD:
    It should be complete and legible since it is a legal document
    True
  8. MEDICAL RECORD:
    At the very least it consists of a PE form and some type of daily note sheet
    True
  9. MEDICAL RECORD:
    The SOAP format is commonly taught and used in veterinary schools and should be followed in practice
    True
  10. What information can you get from palpating a pulse of a normal horse?
    Rate, Rhythm, and quality
  11. HOSPITALIZED HORSE:
    It is often helpful to count the respiratory rate before entering the stall
    True
  12. HOSPITALIZED HORSE:
    It is important to monitor the manure type and production in the stall
    True
  13. HOSPITALIZED HORSE:
    Taking a rectal temperature can be dangerous for the patient and you if done incorrectly
    True
  14. HOSPITALIZED HORSE:
    Since horses are prey animals, it can be helpful to observe them without their knowledge to see what/how they are doing
    True
  15. HOSPITALIZED HORSE:
    When examining a patient we are legally responsible for the safety of BOTH the patient and the client
    True
  16. When taking a medical history of a patient that is sick, list four questions to ask the owner
    • When did this start?
    • Has it gotten better, worse, or stayed the same?
    • Have you treated ? What and when and did it help?
    • Any previous illness like this happen before?
  17. List three anatomical locations that you should use to palpate the pulse f a conscious, alert patient
    • Facial artery- medial aspect of the mandible
    • transverse Facial artery- behind the eye
    • Dorsal metatarsal artery- Back leg along the cannon bone
  18. Why is it important to evaluate the hoof wall heat in a patient?
    Possible laminitis
  19. List the equipment needed and describe how you would safely take a temperature
    Lead, halter, restrainer, lubrication, thermometer.

    Lubricate the thermometer, stand next to the horse and not behind and pull the tail to the opposite side. Place the thermometer into anus tilting slightly. either hold the string or clip it to the tail. Wait 60 seconds and remove to read.
  20. RHINO IN HORSES:
    EHV-1 causes respiratory, neurologic and abortive conditions
    True
  21. RHINO IN HORSES:
    Most horses are infected as youngsters and carry the virus for life
    True
  22. RHINO IN HORSES:
    Vaccination and quarantine procedures are common preventative measures
    True
  23. RHINO IN HORSES:
    The kllled vaccine protects against the paralytic form
    False
  24. RHINO IN HORSES:
    EHV-4 causes respiratory disease
    True
  25. What does EIPH stand for?
    Exercised Induced Pulmonary Henorrhage
  26. EIPH IN HORSES:
    Your DVM will probably need and endoscope to DX most cases
    True
  27. EIPH IN HORSES:
    Usually a problem in brood mares
    False
  28. EIPH IN HORSES:
    Furosemide helps control the roaring sound
    False
  29. EIPH IN HORSES:
    Often controlled by wetting down the hay
    False
  30. STREP EQUI:
    There is an effective intranasal vaccine
    True
  31. STREP EQUI:
    Often treated with penicillin
    True
  32. STREP EQUI:
    Horses should be quarantined for ~1 month after treatment because they can be contagious after resolution of clinical signs
    True
  33. STREP EQUI:
    Easy to spread with fomites
    True
  34. Which symptoms is characteristic of Equine Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease?
    Expiratory dyspnea
  35. For which diseases should pregnant broodmares be vaccinated during the 5th and 7th month of gestation?
    Rhinopneumoitis
  36. What are the normal breathing sound during a respiratory exam?
    Bronchiolar and Vesicular
  37. RESPIRATORY DISEASE:
    Many cases begin with bacterial pathogens that lead to viral disease
    False
  38. RESPIRATORY DISEASE:
    Stress is a major contributing factor
    True
  39. RESPIRATORY DISEASE:
    Feedlot cattle have a high incidence of respiratory disease
    True
  40. RESPIRATORY DISEASE:
    Coughs and sneezes are great ways to spread respiratory pathogens
    True
  41. Which equine respiratory disease is/are not commonly included in a vaccine?
    EIPH
  42. BOVINE RESPIRATORY DISEASE:
    Stress plays a big role in predisposing cattle to respiratory disease
    True
  43. BOVINE RESPIRATORY DISEASE:
    The viruses involved are usually the primary bug and include: BRSV, PI-3, IBR, BVD
    True
  44. BOVINE RESPIRATORY DISEASE:
    There are several broad-spectrum antibiotics used and we must be aware of the withdrawl time for them
    True
  45. BOVINE RESPIRATORY DISEASE:
    Common secondary bacteria include Pasteurella and E.coli
    False
  46. Wat is the recommended concentration of bleach for disinfection of a stall after dismissal of a contagious LA disease?
    1 cup bleach to 5 gallons of water
  47. List and describe the two most common sites for IM injection in the horse
    Neck muscles: Little triangle between the spine,esophagus, and shoulder

    Semitendenosous/semimebremosous
  48. What is the maximum volume to be injected IM in any 1 site in a 950# black, white faced, steer?
    10 mL
  49. Describe the appropriate location, signage and contents for an effective isolation stall.
    Very last stall close to the door for easy in and out access. "Hot Zone" sing in the area in front and around stall. Hay, buckets, grain, grooming tools, thermometers, cleaning supplies, boots, gowns, and a stethoscope.
  50. What are four things a CVT can do to avoid equine patients getting nosebleeds when the vet passes a stomach tube?
    Lubricate the tube, good restraint, pick a smooth tube, and warm the tube up
  51. What type of respiratory disease causes stertorous breathing?
    Roarers
  52. What are the reasons why a DVM might pass a stomach tube in a horse?
    Feed/water, deliver medication, release gases/choke
  53. What is equine thrush and how can it be prevented?
    bacteria infection in the hoof of horses because of wetness: black, smells bad.

    Clean hoof daily, copper tonic
  54. List and describe two ways to get medication into a horse
    Nasalgastric tube: Lubed and down left nostral carefully to stomach. Allow horse to swallow tube and administer medication

    Mix it into his food
  55. How can you tell if your needle is in the jugular and not the carotid artery?
    The blood dribbles out when in the jugular vein while it spurts when in the artery
  56. How should we evaluate GI motility? Include some comments about how it is done, how it is recorded and what is normal.
    Listen to the abdomen for at least one minute counting the rumbling sounds. Grade it on a scale of 0-3

    • UL UR
    • LL LR
  57. How should phone calls made to or from clients be recorded in the record?
    Callers name, owners name, date and time, animal calling for, message or summary of talk, your initals
  58. Define lymphadenopathy and tell me what it has to do with respiratory diseases
    The lymph node grows so large it begins to cut off the trachea and it is caused by Equine Strangles
  59. List three complications occasionally seen after resolution of clinical signs in a strangles case
    • Bastard strangles
    • Guttural pouch infections
    • Purpura hemorrhagica
  60. LAMINITIS:
    It can be helped with corrective shoing
    True
  61. LAMINITIS:
    It is often idiopathic
    True
  62. LAMINITIS:
    it presents as ataxia, weakness, and paralysis
    False
  63. LAMINITIS:
    The underlying disease should be recognized and treated
    True
  64. LAMINITIS:
    Usually affects the front feet and can result in the rotation of P3 through the sole of the hoof
    True
  65. NAVICULAR DISEASE:
    Caused by a combination of genetics, trauma, and vascular disease
    True
  66. NAVICULAR DISEASE:
    Common in the rear feet
    False
  67. NAVICULAR DISEASE:
    DX using radiology and nerve blocks
    True
  68. NAVICULAR DISEASE:
    Treated with isoxsuprine and corrective shoeing
    True
  69. LOCKING PATELLA'S:
    It can get better as the horse matures, especially if she helps him/her develop the rear leg musculature
    True
  70. LOCKING PATELLA'S:
    It can present as a cracking/popping of a rear leg or one that is stuck in flexion
    True
  71. LOCKING PATELLA'S:
    Is more common in individuals that are straight through the stifles
    False
  72. LOCKING PATELLA'S:
    Is caused by the medial patellar ligament hooking over the medial femoral trochlea
    True
  73. LOCKING PATELLA'S:
    One treatment involves the injection of iodinated products to sclerose and tighten up the patellar ligaments
    True
  74. List the causes, signs, DX, TX of sole abscesses
    • CAUSE: Bacterial infection introduced by a stone bruise
    • SIGNS: Lameness, pain during foot test
    • DX: Foot test
    • TX: Lance and clean abscess, rest and NSAIDS
  75. FOOT ROT:
    It can lead to septic arthritis of the coffin joint
    True
  76. FOOT ROT:
    A disease of cattle sheep and goats
    True
  77. FOOT ROT:
    In cattle is the result of a skin wound that gets infects with the anaerobic bacteria Fusobacterium necrophorum
    True
  78. FOOT ROT:
    In sheep there is a vaccine and we use foot baths and proper foot care for TX
    True
  79. FOOT ROT:
    It often starts with an acute lameness with interdigital swelling
    True
  80. NAVICULAR BONE:
    It acts as a pulley for the deep digital flexor tendon
    True
  81. NAVICULAR BONE:
    It is a sesamoid bone
    True
  82. NAVICULAR BONE:
    It is only present in the front feet
    False
  83. NAVICULAR BONE:
    it is painful in horses with navicular disease
    True
  84. NAVICULAR BONE:
    it requires careful positioning to radiograph crrectly
    True
  85. BOWED TENDONS:
    Affects the flexor tendons
    True
  86. BOWED TENDONS:
    Called a "bow" because of the shape of the affected tissues
    True
  87. BOWED TENDONS:
    DX and PX with ultrasonic Exam
    True
  88. VALGAL ANGULAR LIMB DEFORMITIES:
    Most often affects the carpus
    True
  89. VALGAL ANGULAR LIMB DEFORMITIES:
    Caused by high phosphorus, low calcium, high energy ration
    False
  90. VALGAL ANGULAR LIMB DEFORMITIES:
    Sometimes treated with periosteal stripping surgery
    True
  91. VALGAL ANGULAR LIMB DEFORMITIES:
    The distal limb deviates laterally
    True
  92. VALGAL ANGULAR LIMB DEFORMITIES:
    Sometimes treated with stall rest
    True
  93. Much lameness in horses is due to
    Conformation
  94. BONE SPAVIN:
    It is a type of DJD
    True
  95. BONE SPAVIN:
    The anatomical location involved is the distal joints of the hock joint
    True
  96. BONE SPAVIN:
    Once the joints fuse the pain goes away
    True
  97. BONE SPAVIN:
    It is the same thing as windpuffs
    False
  98. BONE SPAVIN:
    Horses with it will be positive to the hock flexion test
    True
  99. SPLINTS:
    It can be caused by poor conformation
    True
  100. SPLINTS:
    It is periosteal or bone pain originating from the 2nd or 4th MC or MT bones
    Truen
  101. SPLINTS:
    Many horses will heal up and have an old and cold non painful splint
    True
  102. SPLINTS:
    Oblique films are often needed to see the injury well
    True
  103. T/F:
    Septic arthritis is an emergency because the inflammation quickly destroys the joint cartilage
    True
  104. T/F:
    untreated horses with navicular disease often have long heels and short toes
    False
  105. T/F:
    Cortisone drugs can cause laminits in horses
    True
  106. T/F:
    Tendon Bows often recur in spite of appropriate treatment
    True
  107. describe the clinical condition of a horse with severe acute laminitis (3)
    • Stretched out
    • putting back feet under belly
    • Hot hoof walls
  108. Define "downer cow". List five causes
    A cow that is lying down and can't get up

    • Low calcium
    • low glucose
    • mounting
    • oberatum nerve problem
    • Broken Pelvis
  109. Why do we need to take a well positioned DP carpal film to help with the treatment of carpus valgus
    The lines intersect at the site of the problem
  110. What is granulating tissue?
    • Tissue that is healing on the inside out.
    • Pus/dead tissue
  111. Tell me the scientific name of ringbone
    osteoarthritis
  112. What is the anatomy involved with ringbone?
    High pastern and Low coffin
  113. What is the treatment for ring bone?
    Rest and NSAIDS
  114. Why do wobbler horses wobble?
    They have a narrow cervical vertebrae canal C3-C6
  115. What is the anatomy involved with tendon bows?
    Flexor tendons
  116. What are the clinical signs of tendon bows?
    Swelling, painful
  117. How do you DX tendon bows?
    Ultrasound and plapation
  118. What is the treatment for Tendon bows?
    Rest and NSAIDS
  119. How do foals typically get septic arthritis?
    • Clostridium issues
    • septic showering from umbilicus
  120. How do retained fetal membranes lead to the development of laminitis
    bacteria
  121. List 2 treatments recommended for septic arthritis
    surgical drainage and antibiotics
  122. VIRAL ENCEPHALITIS OF HORSES:
    EEE, WEE, and WNV are disease examples for which horses are commonly vaccinated against
    True
  123. VIRAL ENCEPHALITIS OF HORSES:
    Horses and humans are dead end hosts
    True
  124. VIRAL ENCEPHALITIS OF HORSES:
    The vector is a mospuito
    True
  125. VIRAL ENCEPHALITIS OF HORSES:
    Treatment is simple and effective
    False
  126. VIRAL ENCEPHALITIS OF HORSES:
    The lay term for these conditions is sleeping sickness
    True
  127. MAD COW DISEASE:
    It is caused by a virus
    False
  128. MAD COW DISEASE:
    There is no effective treatment
    True
  129. MAD COW DISEASE:
    Results in a microscopic "swiss cheese" appearance to the brain and death
    True
  130. MAD COW DISEASE:
    Very similar to Chronic Wasting Disease of deer and elk and CJD of people
    True
  131. TETANUS:
    It can be successfully prevented with appropriate use of a toxoid
    True
  132. TETANUS:
    Horses and humans are very sensitive to the effects of the toxin
    True
  133. TETANUS:
    Often presents as a flaccid paralysis due to blockage of the acetycholine at the neuromuscular junction
    False
  134. TETANUS:
    Results from soil contamination of a surgical site and puncture wounds
    True
  135. TETANUS:
    Requires an anaerobic environment in the tissue
    True
  136. EPM:
    Causes ataxia and paralysis
    True
  137. EPM:
    Is caused by a protozoan parasite that is ingest in contaminated feed or water
    True
  138. EPM:
    Mimics other neurologic diseases
    True
  139. EPM:
    It is included in the 4-way vaccine
    False
  140. EPM:
    Opossums and cats can transmit the parasite
    True
  141. The underlying cause of ketosis in dairy cows is
    energy demands of lactation
  142. Metallic objects usually end up in which digestive compartment of the ruminant
    Reticulum
  143. What is a common clinical sign attributed to the disease caused by Clostridium botulinum?
    Flaccid paralysis
  144. Excessive lactic acid in the rumen is caused by what?
    Grain overload
  145. AGING HORSES:
    It is an estimate and subject to some level of inaccuracy
    True
  146. AGING HORSES:
    You will be looking at the eruption and wear of the incisors
    True
  147. AGING HORSES:
    Galvaynes groove is an unreliable indicator of age
    True
  148. AGING HORSES:
    As horses age their incisors lose the cup and become a smooth chewing surface
    True
  149. AGING HORSES:
    As horses age their teeth become triangular on cross section
    True
  150. T/F:
    wolf teeth and canine teeth are the same thing
    False
  151. T/F:
    EEE, WEE, VEE, and WNV are spread by mospuitoes
    True
  152. T/F:
    it is crucial that horses be vaccinated against tetanus
    True
  153. T/F:
    It is illegal for trained equine dentist to sedate patients for treatment
    True
  154. T/F:
    The natural reservoir for arboviruses is wild birds
    True
  155. Finish Sentence:
    All bloat results from
    Failure to erructate
  156. Why do beef cows rarely develop ketosis?
    • Not fed grain till sent to feedlot
    • Not asked to produce a lot of milk
  157. What does the term "caps" describe in horses and why do we care?
    Baby teeth on top of adults and they can cause pain
  158. What is the cause of CAE?
    Retrovirus
  159. List 2 ways we can prevent tetanus in horses
    • Vaccinate
    • clean pasture
    • good drainage/oxygen
    • good clean surgery
  160. The horse has adult central and intermediate incisors and deciduous lateral incisors. The adult teeth are in wear. How old is the horse?
    4 years
  161. What type of diet predisposes cattle to LDA?
    • Too much grain,
    • low fiber
  162. How does polaxalene work to treat bloat?
    Converts the foam into a bubble they can burp
  163. List 3 common signs of dental disease in horses
    quidding, loss of weight, and drooling
  164. which dental surfaces need to be floated to ensure comfortable occlusion?
    • buccal side on the upper cheek teeth
    • lingual side n the lower cheek teeth
  165. Describe how a stomach tube can be both DXc and TX in a colic case
    Siphon the stomach to see the contents and to release pressure
  166. List 5 common causes of equine colic
    impaction, too much grain, lipomas, twisting bowel, stones
  167. List 5 supplies needed for a belly tap procedure
    18g needle, edta tube, chlorhex, local anesthesia, restrainer
  168. List 3 medical treatments commonly used for colic in horses
    mineral oil, Ive fluids, analgesics
  169. List 3 things to do to prevent colic
    exercise, correct food, water
  170. What causes frothy bloat in cattle?
    Eating Legumes (alfalfa, clovers, vetch)
  171. By what age are all the adult teeth in a horse?
    5 years
  172. If you have to stick a bloated cow which side you do it on?
    Left
  173. Define abomasopexy
    tacking the abomasum to the wall of the abdomen
  174. How is the estrus cycle defined?
    As standing, hot, or in heat
  175. What is the time between mature follicles?
    ~21 days
  176. For how many days are mare receptive?
    ~1-2 days
  177. What are the signs that a mare is in heat?
    Squatting, Squeal, winking vulva, flagging, and urinating
  178. After ovulation what happens to the follicle?
    It ruptures and turns into a corpus luteum which produces progesterone
  179. What happens to the follicle if the mare is not pregnant?
    The corpus luteum regresses and she cycles back into estrous
  180. how can you trick a mare into cycling?
    increasing the daytime with lights in her stall
  181. Define theriogenology
    Study of reproduction
  182. define colpotomy
    'spaying" through the vaginal wall
  183. Define retained fetal membranes
    failure to pass the placenta by three hours post foaling
  184. What can RFM cause?
    • Straining causes uterine prolapse
    • endometeritis and laminities due to endotoxic shock
  185. How do you treat RFM?
    • Uterine infusion with antibiotics
    • prostaglandins
    • banamine
  186. What is wind sucking?
    Where the vulva has poor conformation (weight loss with older mares) and the seal is not closing properly.
  187. How do you treat wind sucking?
    A caslicks or vulvoplasty: Suturing the top part of the vulva close, leaving an opening for urine to come out.
  188. What causes Mastitis?
    Strep. zooepidemicus
  189. How do you treat mares that have twin foals?
    if you catch it early enough you can "pop" one of the vesicles with an ultrasound guide
  190. Define cryptorchidism
    When a testicle fails to descend into the scrotum
  191. How do you treat crptorchidism
    Turn the horse into a gelding
  192. True or false: Blood is spermicidal
    True
  193. True or false: urethral process tears are caused by the mares tail hairs causing lacerations
    True
  194. "Beans" are an accumulation of what?
    Smegma and debris
  195. Define necropsy
    postmortem examination of a dead animal
  196. Define autopsy
    postmortem exam of a human
  197. NECROPSY:
    Define pathology
    causes and development of disease
  198. NECROPSY:
    Define gross pathology
    any pathlogy that is visible to the naked eye
  199. NECROPSY:
    define histopathology
    microscopic tissue pathology
  200. NECROPSY:
    define lesion
    a pathologic change
  201. NECROPSY:
    define pathogenesis
    the sequence of evens in a disease
  202. What are four important things to remember when it comes to necropsy's?
    • GET PERMISSION
    • Identify the correct animal
    • Do the exam in a timely fashion
    • DO NOT FREEZE anything you want to send off to the lab
  203. What is the fixative solution?
    10% neutral buffered formalin
  204. How long does it take for the fixative to "fix"?
    12-24 hours
  205. What are four important things to remember when it comes to tissue management?
    • Keep track of them
    • label them well
    • package correctly
    • submit the right samples
  206. TRUE OR FALSE:
    Dull knives are more dangerous than sharp knives?

    Why?
    TRUE

    Dull knives you have to put more effort into and can cause more damage while a sharp knife will use less effort
  207. Why don't we freeze the patient before a necropsy?
    Water crystals will destroy the cell structure
  208. What side should you position ruminants?
    The left side down for the Rumen
  209. Why are necropsy's done?
    Insurance purposes
  210. What does mean to In situ exam the abdominal contents
    look at where its sitting without touching it.
  211. Why should we examine the aorta, and the cranial celiac artery?
    for signs of verminous arteritis
  212. TRUE OR FALSE:
    We do not examine the guttural pouches on a horse necropsy
    False
  213. What should we do before removing the hear from the thorax?
    Taking a sample from the pericardial fluid
  214. What are we looking for in the stomach?
    Bot larvae and stomach worm abscesses
  215. TRUE OR FALSE:
    LA Babies are immunologically incompetent, dependent on frequent feedings, and unable to maintain control over body temperature
    True
  216. Define patent urachus
    urine dripping from the umbilicus
  217. How do you clean the umbilical area?
    Spray it wil tincture of iodine, tamed iodine, or chlorhexidine
  218. After a certain time why can't newborns receive passive transfer of antibodies?
    The bowl wall closes up and will not absorb the large antibodies molecules such as IgG and IgM
  219. How can you improve the quality of colostrum before birth?
    Late pregnancy vaccines and moving the mom to the birthing pasture 1 month before for the local bug antibodies
  220. What can cause a failure of passive transfer?
    • Ineffective nursing
    • poor quality colostrum
    • nursing too late
    • dead/ill mom
    • offspring deformity
  221. How do you diagnose if the newborn has FPT or not?
    using a refractometer and serum/plasma or a snap test
  222. How much colostrum should the newborn receive?
    ~10-15% of its body weight
  223. In how many hours does the newborn need to receive the colostrum?
    12 hours of birth
  224. Why do we dehorn calves?
    • Reduce injury to people and other livestock
    • less space at the feed bunk
    • reduce carcass bruising
  225. What are the five techniques for dehorning?
    • caustic paste
    • hot iron dehorners
    • spoon/tube dehorners
    • barnes dehorners
    • dehorning saw
  226. What are the four techniques for castration?
    • Elastor bands
    • emasculator
    • emasculatome
    • pocket knife
  227. What is the other name for the emasculatome?
    Burdizzo
  228. When are beef calves weaned?
    14 months of age
  229. when are dairy calves weaned?
    0-3 days of age
  230. Why are needle teeth removed from pigs?
    They cause trauma to the piglets, the mother, and you
  231. What injection do piglets need?
    iron
  232. Hypoxic Ischemic syndrome can lead to what?
    neonatal maladjustment syndrome or dummy foals
  233. Why should you leave the foal and the mare alone after birth?
    If the foal is still attached to the umbilicus it will receive another 1.5L of blood.
  234. what is Dr. Jeffs 1,2,3 for foals?
    foal should stand by 1 hour, nurse by 2 hours, and pass meconiom by 3 hours
  235. What three things might be vaccinated into the newborn foal?
    • tetanus vaccine
    • vitamin A,D,E(fat-solubles)
    • penicillins
  236. TRUE OR FALSE:
    Weak foals or males have difficulty passing the meconium
    True
  237. When are foals weaned?
    2-6 months or 3-8 months
  238. When are males castrated?
    12-24 months
  239. What can prevent scours?
    colostrum
  240. What is scours?
    neonatal diarrhea
  241. if a drug has K 99 on it what does that mean?
    Means it will work against strains with pili
  242. What are the three things that commonly cause scours?
    • E. coli
    • rotavirus
    • coronavirus
  243. Why do we not pursue laboratory diagnosis of scours?
    The treatment is still the same

What would you like to do?

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview