Unit Review

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  1. Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?
    A.Antibody
    B.Pathogen
    C.Antigen
    D.Micro-organism
    B. Pathogen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Which classification of organisms is responsible for the disease malaria?
    A.Rickettsiae
    B.Mycoplasma
    C.Chlamydia
    D.Sporozoa
    D.Sporozoa
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?
    A.Virulence
    B.Illness
    C.Convalescence
    D.Incubation
    D.Incubation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. The mucous membranes filters and traps foreign bodies through
    A.cilia
    B.the lymphatic system
    C.sneezing
    D.handwashing
    A.cilia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Which of the following is not a type of transmission-based precaution
    A.Contact
    B.Droplet
    C.Enteric
    D.Airborne
    C.Enteric
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored, negative air pressure?
    A.Respiratory
    B.Contact
    C.Airborne
    D.Droplet
    C.Airborne
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. What is the most serious type of meningitis?
    A.Pnemococcal
    B.Bacterial
    C.Viral
    D.Serum
    B.Bacterial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. One of the most common and serious complications a female may dvelop form gonorrhea is
    A.Pelvic inflammatory disease
    B.vaginal discharge
    C.irregular menstrual cycles
    D.Chlamydia
    A.Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all micro-organisms?
    A.surgical asepsis
    B.surgical sepsis
    C.medical asepsis
    D.Medical sepsis
    A.Surgical asepsis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue?
    A.disinfectant
    B.antitoxin
    C.antiseptic
    D.detergent
    C.Antiseptic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. What type of isolation are patients highly susceptible to infection placed in?
    A.airborne
    B.reverse
    C.contact
    D.droplet
    B.Reverse
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department?
    A. Hospital policy does not permit transport of infectious patients.
    B.You must don a gown, mask, and gloves prior to transporting the patient.
    C.Give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport.
    D. Notify all hospital personnel so they can take necessary precautions.
    C.Give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is
    A. a storage cart
    B.an isolation cart
    C.the supply room
    D.the nurse's station
    B.an isolation cart
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on
    A.after entering the unit, and take it off after leaving.
    B.before entering, and take it off before leaving.
    C. after entering the unit, and take it off before leaving.
    D.before entering, and take it off after leaving.
    B.before entering, and take it off before leaving.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. What is the first step in preparing objects for sterilization
    A.cleaning
    B.disinfection
    C.decontamination
    D.pasteurization
    A.cleaning
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. How long is an item immersed in the sterilant during the sterilization cycle of a peracetic acid sterilizer?
    A.10 minutes
    B.three minutes
    C.five minutes
    D.12 minutes
    D.12 minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?
    A.Phenolics
    B.Formaldehydes
    C.Hydrochloric acid
    D.Alcohol
    C.Hydrochloric acid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. How often do you clean and inspect steam sterilizers?
    A.weekly and monthly
    B.dialy and monthly
    C.Daily
    D.daily and weekly
    D.daily and weekly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every
    A.24 hours
    B.12 hours
    C.load
    D.other load
    A.24 hours
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. How often should biological testing be conducted and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers
    A. at least once a week.
    B.every 30 loads
    C. at least once per day
    D.every load
    C. at least once per day
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Which basic human need category is rest included in?
    A.Safety
    B.Physiological
    C.Security
    D.Self-esteem
    B.Physiological
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Which vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells?
    A.B-complex vitamins
    B.Vitamins A
    C.Ascorbic acid
    D.Vitamins K
    A.B-complex vitamins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. What substance is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis?
    A.Soy
    B.Niacin
    C.Iron
    D.Calcium
    C.Iron
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Plasma lipids include what three substances?
    A. Nitrogen, carbon dioxide, and glucosaccaride
    B.Vitamins, minerals, and herbs
    C. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol
    D.Water, sucrose, and polyunsaturated fats
    C. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. What two actions are included in the physiological need of rest?
    A.Pain free and rest
    B.Rest and activity
    C.Pain free and exercise
    D.Activity and pain free
    A.Pain free and rest
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. What reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to a sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs?
    A.Grasping
    B.Moro
    C.Rooting
    D.Babinski
    B.Moro
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at age:
    A.12 months
    B.18 months
    C.24 months
    D.30 months
    C.24 months
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?
    A.Assessing current fitness status
    B.Providing services designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle
    C.Blood pressure screenings
    D.Establishing guidlines for disposal of contaminents
    C.Blood pressure screenings
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. What substance does the body need in order to absorb vitamin B12?
    A.Gastric acid
    B.Red Blood Cells
    C.Intrinsic Factor
    D.Hydrogen Ions
    C.Intrinsic factor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. B12 deficiency are first noted by :
    A.Aplastic anemia
    B.hemolytic anemia
    C.pernicious anemia
    D.sickle cell anemia
    C.Pernicious anemia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources is lost through:
    A.freezing
    B.cooking
    C.dehydration
    D.packaging
    A.Freezing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Large doses of Vitamin C cause all of the following except:
    A.heartburn
    B.Kidney stones
    C.constipation
    D.abdominal cramps
    C.Constipation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Vitamin D interacts with all of the following except:
    A.thiazide diuretics
    B.digitalis
    C.mineral oil
    D.calcium
    D.Calcium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. A primary sign of a vitamin E overdose is readily seen through the disease process of:
    A.pernicious anemia
    B.rickets
    C.prolonged clotting times
    D.night blindness
    C.Prolonged clotting times
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Vitamin K is not used to treat which of the following ailments?
    A.Heparin Overdose
    B.Malabsorption syndromes
    C.prolonged use of salicylates
    D.Ulcerative colitis
    A.Heparin Overdose
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Which of the following vitamins is not fat soluble?
    A. Vitamin K
    B. Vitamin C
    C. Vitamin E
    D. Vitamin A
    B. Vitamin C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen:
    A.during a blood transfusion
    B.when an individual is unable to sink in water
    C.as a result of not using table salt
    D.through an excessive amount of fluid loss
    D.Through an excessive amount of fluid loss
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Half-normal saline solution is represented by:
    A.0.2%
    B.0.45%
    C.0.40%
    D.0.50%
    B.0.45%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Potassium helps to maintain:
    A.alertness in the cerebellum
    B.clarity of eye sight
    C.heartbeat regulation
    D.facial muscle tone
    C.Heartbeat Regulation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Caution must be taken when administering potassium to individuals with all of the following except:
    A.gastric ulcers
    B.renal impairment
    C.cardiac disease
    D.diabetes
    D.Diabetes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Oral Iron supplements should not be taken with:
    A.orange or grapefruit juice
    B.soda, water, or milk
    C.tea, milk, or coffee
    D.coffee, cranberry juice, or water
    C.Tea, Milk, or Coffee
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Which route is injectable iron administered?
    A.Intra Venous
    B.Z-Track
    C.Intra Muscular
    D.Transdermal
    C.Intra Muscular
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. When larger molecules are constructed from smaller molecules, this is known as:
    A.anabolism
    B.catabolism
    C.cataclysm
    D.attraction
    A.anabolism
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Cellular Metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of:
    A.protein
    B.muscle
    C.enzyme
    D.glucose
    C.Enzyme
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Electrolytes that release ions in water are called:
    A.synthesized
    B.salts
    C.catalyzed
    D.acids
    D.acids
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. When excessive amount of fats are metabolized, it can be noted by:
    A.constant hunger despite calorie intake
    B.severe vomiting resulting in weight loss
    C.acetone in the breath and urine
    D.excessive thirst and nocturia
    C.acetone in the breath and urine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes:
    A.Protect against disease at the cellular level
    B.The body's only defense against infection
    C.Carry amino acids to the kidneys for deamination and excretion
    D.Proliferate hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the body
    A.Protect against disease at the cellular level.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. The two main categories of leukocytes are:
    A.monophils and lymphocytes
    B.neurtophils and granulocytes
    C.granulocytes and agranulocytes
    D.agranulocytes and basophils
    C.granulocytes and agranulocytes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Neutrophils are also known as:
    A.polymorphonuclear lymphocytes
    B.multigranulocytes
    C.polysaccharides
    D.polypeptides
    A.Polymorphonuclear lymphocytes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. The life span of lymphocytes is
    A.years
    B.days
    C.12 hours
    D.2 weeks
    A.years
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms?
    A.Polyleukocytes and monocytes
    B.Neutrophils and leukocytes
    C.Monocytes and Phagocytes
    D.lymphocytes and macrophages
    D.lymphocytes and macrophages
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. When a child scrapes his or her hands and infection results, which lymph nodes will become enlarged?
    A.Thoracic
    B.Supratrochlear
    C.Cervical
    D.Auxillary
    B.Supratrochlear
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Children who recieve routine childhood immunizations are protected by
    A.naturally acquired active immunity
    B.artificially acquired passive immunity
    C.artificially acquired active immunity
    D.naturally acquired passive immunity
    C.artificially acquired active immunity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. The body's first step in the healing process is:
    A.infection
    B.bruising
    C.inflammation
    D.collecting
    C.inflammation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed?
    A.maturation
    B.inflammation
    C.reconstruction
    D.Bruising
    B.Inflammation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. The fibrous structural protein collagen is found in all connective tissue during which stage of healing?
    A.reconstruction
    B.inflammation
    C.maturation
    D.Bruising
    A.Reconstruction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. Full maturation of a wound is evident when
    A.a scab completely covers the wound
    B.the scaring is white and glossy
    C.the scar is deep red in color
    D.new capillaries form
    B.the scaring is white and glossy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. For many patients who suffer form severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is?
    A.fear and anxiety
    B.acceptance
    C.shock and disorientation
    D.guilt
    C.shock and disorientation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?
    A.hyperkalemia
    B.hypercalcemia
    C.hypernatremia
    D.hypocalcemia
    A.Hyperkalemia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. What acid-base imbalance is likely to occur when a patient has excessive vomiting, excessive suctioning, or ingested too many antacids?
    A.respiratory alkalosis
    B.metabolic acidosis
    C.respiratory acidosis
    D.metabolic alkalosis
    D.Metabolic alkalosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Which acid-base imbalance is caused by hyperventilating?
    A.respiratory acidosis
    B.metabolic acidosis
    C.metabolic alkalosis
    D.respiratory alkalosis
    D.Respiratory alkalosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Deficiency in respirations such as slow or irregualr shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called:
    A.respiratory alkalosis
    B.respiratory acidosis
    C.metabolic alkalosis
    D.metabolic acidosis
    B.Respiratory acidosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. To avoid infections, you should change a patient's hyperlimentation solution bag and tubing daily and not allow the container to hang longer than:
    A.4 hours
    B.24 hours
    C.16 hours
    D.8 hours
    D.8 hours
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. When selecting an intravenous(IV) solution, what size IV bags in cubic cnetimeters(cc) would you possibly be able to select from?
    A.100 to 200 cc
    B.500 to 2000 cc
    C.500 to 750 cc
    D.100 to 2000 cc
    D.100 to 2000 cc
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Normally, how high above patients should you hang an intravenous(IV) solution bag?
    A.6 to 12 inches
    B.18 to 24 inches
    C.24 to 36 inches
    D.36 to 48 inches
    C.24 to 36 inches
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. If a patient exhibits a mild allergic response to an intravenous(IV) solution, what should you do?
    A.discontinue the IV immediately
    B.slow the infusion
    C.send the solution to the laboratory for analysis
    D.replace the tubing and the container
    B.slow the infusion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. How much fecal material should you collect to send to the laboratory for a stool specimen?
    A.2 tablespoons
    B.1 tablespoons
    C.all of the defecated stool
    D.3 tablespoons
    A.2 tablespoons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for:
    A.1 to 2 minutes
    B.2 to 3 minutes
    C.3 to 4 minutes
    D.4 to 5 minutes
    B.2 to 3 minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. During a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away?
    A.It contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test results
    B.to prevent spillage of blood
    C.to allow the blood to clot
    D.It contains phagocytes, which may interfere with test results
    A.It contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test results
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. What step should you take before operating a glucose meter?
    A.choose a site to obtain a blood sample
    B.ask all family members to leave the room.
    C.read the operating instructions
    D.confirm the order with a co-worker
    C.Read the operating instructions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. The normal fasting blood glucose level in milligrams/deciliter (mg/dl) is?
    A.40 to 100 mg/dl
    B.120 to 200 mg/dl
    C.90 to 150 mg/dl
    D.70 to 115 mg/dl
    D.70 to 115 mg/dl
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. In the subjective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's:
    A.temperature
    B.complaint of a headache
    C.physical deformity of the left leg
    D.history of cardiac arrythmias
    B.complaint of a headache
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. A proctoscopy is an inspection of the:
    A.rectum
    B.sigmoid colon
    C.transverse colon
    D.ascending colon
    A.rectum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. What position would you normally place a patient in for a sigmoidoscopy?
    A.Supine
    B.Fowler's
    C.Sims
    D.Prone
    C.Sims
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. When educating the patient with psuedofolliculitis barbae(PFB) on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving:
    A.in the direction of hair growth
    B.with slow strokes
    C.in the opposite direction of hair growth
    D.with facial skin stretched
    A.in the direction of hair growth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. How do you measure the visual field?
    A.identify slopes in peripheral margins
    B.identify loss of vision
    C.Determine the area that is 30 degrees from the visual axis
    D.Determine degrees away from fixation
    D.Determine degrees away from fixation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. When asking the patient if he or she wears glasses, contact lenses or if he or she has ever had eye problems prior to conducting an Optec 2300 Vision Tester exam, the patients response will determine:
    A.the patient's eligibility for care
    B.sequence of test performance
    C.if glasses are provided free of charge
    D.how soon an appointment should be made
    B.sequence of test performance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. How many test slides are included in the standard test category of the Optec 2300 Vision Tester(OVT)?
    A.three
    B.four
    C.five
    D.seven
    D.seven
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. How many inches from the test plate must the examinee be sitting for the psuedoisochromatic plate set(PIP) test?
    A.15
    B.30
    C.24
    D.13
    B.30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forced expiratory volume at 1 second(FEV1)or forced vital capacity(FVC) percentage is less than:
    A.75
    B.90
    C.65
    D.80
    D.80
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are:
    A.1:1
    B.2:2
    C.2:3
    D.1:2
    C.2:3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. Where does the electrical stimulation of the heart muscle initiate?
    A.frontal lobe of the brain
    B.atrioventricular node
    C.Sinoatrial node
    D.spinal cord
    C.Sinoatrial node
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. Where is the Purkinje fiber network the most elaborate?
    A.right ventricle
    B.right atrium
    C.left atrium
    D.left ventricle
    D.left ventricle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called:
    A.random waves
    B.disturbances
    C.deflection waves
    D.artifacts
    D.artifacts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the:
    A.major command(MAJCOM)
    B.US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library
    C.command level electrocardiographic library
    D.local medical examination board(MEB)
    B.US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. For orthostatic vital sign measurments, what is the correct sequence to take the blood pressure and pulse;and what is the correct time interval between readings?
    A.Lying, sitting, standing;5 minutes
    B.Lying, sitting, standing;3 minutes
    C.standing, sitting, lying;5 minutes
    D.standing, sitting, lying;3 minutes
    B.Lying, sitting, standing;3 minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation falls below:
    A.90%
    B.88%
    C.100%
    D.97%
    D.97%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. When checking the eyes during a nuerological exam, the pupils should:
    A.constrict quickly and seperately
    B.dilate quickly and simultaneously
    C.dilate quickly and seperately
    D.constrict quickly and simultaneously
    D.constrict quickly and simultaneously
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. When can the minor surgery procedure begin?
    A.only after housekeeping has cleaned the room
    B.once a set of vital signs are repeated
    C.after the consent form is signed
    D.when the provider says its time.
    C.after the consent form is signed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?
    A.soak the wound in an antibiotic solution
    B.dig out the debris with an allis clamp
    C.begin suturing
    D.flush the wound
    D.flush the wound
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next?
    A.apply a sterile dressing
    B.soak the wound in cold water
    C.begin suturing the wound
    D.assess sensory awareness
    D.assess sensory awareness
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. In the Air Force, how often should you check emergency equipment and supplies in the crash ambulance?
    A.monthly
    B.daily
    C.bimonthly
    D.weekly
    B.daily
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped?
    A.100 mmHg
    B.300 mmHg
    C.200 mmHg
    D.150 mmHg
    B.300 mmHg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. Which emergency response refers to and emergency, responding with lights and sirens on?
    A.code 2;cold
    B.code 3;hot
    C.code 4;hot
    D.code 1;cold
    B.code 3;hot
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast?
    A.name
    B.medications and allergies
    C.chief complaint
    D.age
    A.name
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only:
    A.during the response phase
    B.during the transport phase
    C.when the senior medical technician on board approves it
    D.when local protocol authorizes it
    D.when local protocol authorizes it
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the EMT is called:
    A.trauma history
    B.secondary survey
    C.expanded primary survey
    D.scene sizeup
    D.scene sizeup
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than 8 breaths per minute, provide:
    A.low concentration oxygen with a nasal cannula
    B.high concentration oxygen with a positive pressure aviators mask
    C.high concentration oxygen with a nonrebreather mask
    D.ventilations with a BVM and high flow oxygen
    D.ventilations with a BVM and high flow oxygen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with:
    A.a insignificant MOI, and focuses on the area where the greatest threats to the patient are
    B.a significant MOI, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to.
    C.an insignificant MOI, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to.
    D.a significant MOI, and focuses on the are of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are
    D.a significant MOI, and focuses on the are of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about:
    A.onset
    B.quality
    C.radiation
    D.provocation
    A.onset
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine?
    A.Time
    B.quality
    C.radiation
    D.severity
    A.time
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. When preparing to unload a patient from an ambulance, what should you do first?
    A.place an EMT on either side of the stretcher as it is rolled out
    B.ensure all straps are secured on the patient
    C.turn the oxygen off in the ambulance
    D.make a list of supplies that need to be restocked
    B.ensure all straps are secured on the patient
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. If you see clear fluid running out of the ears, you should:
    A.collect a sample for testing at the hospital
    B.not block the fluid from draining
    C.immediately place the patient in an upright position
    D.pack the ears and nose with sterile gauze
    B.not block the fluid from draining
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. While examining a patient that fell from a ladder, you notice a bruise behind the ear, what injury should you suspect?
    A.cushing reflex
    B.hematoma
    C.parietal skull fracture
    D.basal skull fracture
    D.basal skull fracture
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. Which acronym is used by EMT's in the field to describe a possible fracture?
    A.Range of motion(ROM)
    B.Purified protein derivative(PPD)
    C.alert verbal painful unresponsive(AVPU)
    D.Painful, swollen deformity(PSD)
    D.Painful, swollen deformity(PSD)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he has splashed a chemical in his eye, what should you determine first?
    A.whether the patient is authorized care in the facility
    B.If the patient is experiencing any pain
    C.If the patient is wearing contacts and which type
    D.The patient's visual acuity
    C.If the patient is wearing contacts and which type
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system?
    A.right atrium
    B.left atrium
    C.left ventricle
    D.right ventricle
    A.right atrium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. When setting up a cardiac monitor, the legal document you should pay particular attention to and fix if it is not correct is?
    A.electrocardiogram date and time
    B.doctor's note
    C.ambulance run sheet
    D.code blue record of events
    A.electrocardiogram date and time
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
Author:
yamadog327
ID:
54736
Card Set:
Unit Review
Updated:
2010-12-30 06:03:56
Tags:
unit review
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Description:
Verbatum
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