medical terminology final exam

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medical terminology final exam
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medical terminology final exam test questions to study for
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  1. which suffix means a surgical creation of an artificial opening?

    A. -ectomy
    B. -ostomy
    C. -plasty
    D. -otomy
    B. -ostomy

    -ectomy means surgical removal
    -otomy means surgical incision
    -plasty means surgical repair
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. based on its word parts, the term hepatorrhagia means ___.

    A. abnormal enlargement of the liver
    B. abnormal softening of the liver
    C. bleeding from the liver
    D. inflammation of the liver
    C. bleeding from the liver

    hepat/o means liver
    -rrhagia means bursting forth of blood

    -megaly means enlargement
    -malacia means abnormal softening
    -itis means inflammation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Which statement is true about inflammation?

    A. inflammation is the invasion of the body by a disease-producing organism
    B. inflammation is a pathologic change of the tissues due to disease
    C. a sign of inflammation is the presence of exudate (pus)
    D. inflammation is a localized response to an injury or destruction of tissues
    D. inflammation is localized response to an injury or destruction of tissues
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. which combining form means plaque or fatty substance?

    A. angi/o
    B. arteri/o
    C. arthr/o
    D. ather/o
    D. ather/o

    angi/o means blood vessel
    arteri/o means artery
    arthr/o means joint
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. which combining form means fungus?

    A. myel/o
    B. mucos/o
    C. myc/o
    D. my/o
    C. myc/o

    mucos/o means mucous
    myel/o means spinal cord or bone marrow
    my/o means muscle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. a surgical incision into the colon is a/an ___ (col/o means colon)
    colotomy
  7. the inflammation of a joint is known as ___ (arthr/o means joint)
    arthritis
  8. the process of a radiographic study of the blood vessels after the injection of a contrast medium is a/an ___ (angi/o means blood vessel)
    angiography
  9. the term ___ means a pounding or racing heart
    palpitation
  10. the term ___ means having the nature, properties, or qualities of an adult male
    virile
  11. true/false
    a syndrome can be observed only by the patient and not by others
    false

    a symptom can be observed only by the patient

    a syndrome is a set of the signs and symptoms that occur together as part of a specific disease process
  12. true/ false
    a prefix usually, but not always, indicates location, time, or number
    true
  13. true/false
    prostate means to collapse
    false

    prostate is a male gland that lies under the urinary bladder and surrounds the urethra

    prostrate means to collapse
  14. true/ false
    interstitial means between, but not within, the parts of a tissue
    true
  15. true/false
    the plural of appendix is appendices
    true
  16. matching:

    -necrosis

    A. abnormal hardening
    B. abnormal narrowing
    C. tissue death
    D. visual examination
    e. above
    C. tissue death
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. matching:

    -stenosis

    A. visual examination
    B. tissue death
    C. abnormal hardening
    D. abnormal narrowing
    e. above
    D. abnormal narrowing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. matching:

    supra-

    a. tissue death
    b. abnormal hardening
    c. visual examination
    d. abnormal narrowing
    e. above
    e. above
  19. matching:

    -sclerosis

    A. abnormal hardening
    B. tissue death
    C. abnormal narrowing
    D. visual examination
    e. above
    A. abnormal hardening
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. matching:

    -scopy

    A. tissue death
    B. visual examination
    C. abnormal hardening
    D. abnormal narrowing
    e. above
    B. visual examination
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. matching:

    retroperitoneal

    A. membrane that protects and supports organs in the abdominal cavity
    B. outer layer of membrane that lines the abdominal cavity
    C. located behind the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity
    D. inner layer of membrane that surrounds the organs of the abdominal cavity
    C. located behind the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity

    parietal peritoneum is the outer layer of the peritoneum that lines the abdominal wall

    visceral peritoneum is the inner layer of the peritoneum that surrounds the organs of the abdominal cavity

    peritoneum is the membrane that protects and supports organs in the abdominal cavity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. which term means the direction toward or nearer the midline?

    A. medial
    B. sagittal
    C. distal
    D. lateral
    A. medial

    sagittal is a vertical plane that divides the body into unequal left and right portions

    distal means situated farthest from the midline or beginning of a body structure

    lateral means the direction toward or nearer the side and away from the midline
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. which term means toward the side?

    A. lateral
    B. proximal
    C. medial
    D. distal
    A. lateral

    proximal means situated nearest the midline or beginning of a body structure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. true/ false
    stem cells can be harvested from the bone marrow of a newborn infant
    false

    umbilical cord
  25. true/ false
    a sagittal plane divides the body into unequal upper and lower portions
    false

    a sagittal plane is a vertical plane that divides the body into unequal LEFT and RIGHT portions

    a transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower portions (equal or unequal)
  26. which of the following is a characteristic of the anatomic position?

    A. bending the knees
    B. standing up straight so the body is erect
    C. extending the arms upward
    D. turning the palms of the hand toward the back
    B. standing up straight so the body is erect
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. which term describes a benign tumor formed from glandular tissue?

    A. adenosclerosis
    B. adenosis
    C. adenoma
    D. adenomalacia
    C. adenoma

    adenomalacia is the abnormal softening of a gland
    adenosis is any disease condition of a gland
    adenosclerosis is the abnormal hardening of a gland
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. match:

    aplasia

    A. abnormal increase in the number of normal cells in normal arrangement
    B. incomplete development of an organ or tissue
    C. abnormal tissue development
    D. a change in the structure of cells and in their orientation to each other
    E. the defective development or congenital absence of an organ or tissue
    E. the defective development or congenital absence of an organ or tissue

    hypoplasia is the incomplete dev. of an organ or tissue usually due to a deficiency in the number of cells

    dysplasia is abnormal tissue dev.

    hyperplasia is abnormal increase in the number of normal cells in normal arrangement

    anaplasia is a change in the structure of cells and in their orientation to each other
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. match:

    pelvic cavity

    A. protects the major organs of digestion
    B. protects reproductive and excretory system organs
    C. protects the heart and lungs
    D. protects the brain
    E. protects the spinal cord.
    B. protects reproductive and excretory sys. organs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. the ___ system filters blood to remove waste while maintaining electrolyte and fluid balance within the body.
    urinary
  31. match:

    adenosclerosis

    A. a benign tumor from recognizable glandular structures
    B. inflammation of a gland
    C. any disease condition of a gland
    D. abnormal hardening of a gland
    E. abnormal softening of a gland
    D. abnormal hardening of a gland

    adenitis is the inflammation of a gland
    adenomalacia is the abnormal softening of a gland
    adenoma is a benign tumor from recognizable glandular structures
    adenosis is any disease condition of a gland
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. the ___ system protects the body against invasion by bacteria. it also aids in regulating the body temperature and water content.
    integumentary
  33. true/false
    deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is found only in gametes
    false

    is located on the pairs of chromosomes in the nucleus of each cell
  34. ___ glands, such as sweat glands, secrete chemical substances into ducts that lead either to other organs or out of the body
    exocrine
  35. the ___ region is located below the stomach
    hypogastric
  36. the __ body regions are located on the left and right sides and are covered by the lower ribs

    A. left and right hypochondriac
    B. left and right iliac
    C. left and right epigastric
    D. left and right lumbar
    A. left and right hypochondriac
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. true/false
    adult stem cells are undifferentiated cells found among differentiated cells in a tissue or organ
    true
  38. matching:

    organic disorder

    A. an illness caused by a pathogenic organism
    B. an illness without known cause
    C. any disease transmitted from one person to another
    D. a disorder with pathologic physical changes that explain the symptoms
    E. a disorder with no detectable physical changes that explain the symptoms
    D. a disorder with pathologic physical changes that explain the symptoms
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. true/false
    freckles are a physical trait that is transmitted by a recessive gene
    false

    dominant
  40. protective padding, insulation, support, and a nutrient reserve are provided by ___ tissue
    adipose
  41. a postmortem (after death) examination is known as a/an
    autopsy
  42. true/false
    a colostomy is the surgical creation of an opening between the colon and the body surface
    true
  43. a/an ___ is a specialist in the study of tissue organization at all levels
    histologist
  44. in the term otorhinolaryngology, which word part means ear?

    A. ot/o
    B. -ology
    C. laryng/o
    D. rhin/o
    A. ot/o

    -ology is the study of
    rhin/o means nose
    laryng/o means throat
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. which term means the study of the structure, composition, and function of tissues?

    A. pathology
    B. physiology
    C. hisology
    D. anatomy
    C. histology

    pathology is the study of all aspects of diseases
    anatomy is the study of the structures of the body
    physiology is the study of the functions of the structures of the body
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. true/false
    quadrant means divided into six equal parts
    false

    four
  47. ___ is a genetic disorder in which an essential digestive enzyme is missing

    A. tay-sachs
    B. hemophilia
    C. phenylketonuria
    D. huntington disease
    C. phenylketonuria

    tay-sachs disease is a fatal genetic disorder in which harmful quantities of a fatty substance build up in tissues and nerve cells in the brain
    huntington's disease (HD) is a genetic disorder that is passed from parent to child that causes nerve degeneration with symptoms that most often appear in midlife
    hemophilia is a group of hereditary bleeding disorders in which a blood-clotting factor is missing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. a genome is ___

    A. made up of 46 chromosomes arrange in 23 pairs
    B. the genetic structures located within the nucleus of each cell
    C. also known as gamete
    D. the complete set of an individual's genetic information
    D. the complete set of an individual's info

    a double helix is made up of 46 chromosomes arranged in 23 pairs
    DNA is the genetic structures located within the nucleus of each cell
    sex cell is also known as a gamete
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. the study of the causes of diseases is known as ___

    A. etiology
    B. pathology
    C. neonatology
    D. dermatology
    A. etiology

    pathology is the study of the nature and cause of diseases
    neonatology is the study of disorders of the newborn
    dermatology is the study of the skin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. true/false
    a genetic mutation is a change of the sequence of a DNA molecule
    true
  51. match:

    visceral peritoneum

    A. suspends parts of the intestine within the abdominal cavity
    B. outer layer of membrane that lines the abdominal cavity
    C. located behind the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity
    D. inner layer of membrane that surrounds the organs of the abdominal cavity
    E. membrane that protects and supports organs in the abdominal cavity
    D. inner layer of membrane that surrounds the organs of the abdominal cavity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. match:

    parietal peritoneum

    A. membrane that protects and supports organs in the abdominal cavity
    B. located behind t
    C. suspends parts of the intestine within the abdominal cavity
    D. inner layer of membrane that surrounds the organs of the abdominal cavity
    E. outer layer of membrane that lines the abdominal cavity
    E. outer layer of membrane that lines the abdominal cavity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. which combining form means fever?

    A. pyelor/o
    B. pyr/o
    C. pyel/o
    D. py/o
    B. pyr/o

    pyel/o means renal pelvis
    py/o means pus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. true/false
    pyrosis is also known as heartburn
    true
  55. the term ___ means a pounding or racing heart
    palpitation
  56. match:

    infectious disorder

    a. any disease transmitted from one person to another
    b. a disorder with no detectable physical changes to explain the symptoms
    c. a disorder with pathologic physical changes that explain the symptoms
    d. an illness without known cause
    e. an illness caused by a pathogenic organism
  57. match:

    idiopathic disorder

    A. a disorder with pathologic physical changes that explain the symptoms
    B. an illness without known cause
    C. a disorder with no detectable physical changes to explain the symptoms
    D. any disease transmitted from one person to another
    B. an illness without known cause
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. match:

    organic disorder

    A. a disorder with no detectable physical changes to explain the symptoms
    B. an illness without known cause
    C. any disease transmitted from one person to another
    D. a disorder with pathologic physical changes that explain the symptoms
    D. a disorder with pathologic physical changes that explain the symptoms
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. a/an ___ is the loss of a large amount of blood in a short time
    hemorrhage
  60. true/false
    as a broken bone heals, a crepitus forms a bulging deposit around the area of the break
    false

    a callus form as a bulging deposit around the area of the break

    crepitation, aka crepitus, is the grating sound heard when the ends of a broken bone move together
  61. the surgical procedure for loosing an ankylosed joint is known as __.

    A. spondylosis
    B. ankylosis
    C. arthrodesis
    D. arthrolysis
    D. arthrolysis

    arthrodesis , aka surgical ankylosis, is the surgical fusion of two bones to stiffen a joint
    ankylosis is the loss, or absence, of mobility in a joint due to disease, injury, or a surgical procedure
    spondylosis, aka spinal osteoarthritis, is a degenerative disorder that can cause the loss of normal spinal structure and function
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. the shaft of a long bone is known as the ___
    diaphysis
  63. an inflammation of a bursa is known as ___
    bursitis
  64. a/an ___ is a physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders involving the bones, joints, and muscles

    A. podiatrist
    B. osteopath
    C. orthopedic surgeon
    D. chiropractor
    C. orthopedic surgeon

    An osteopath uses traditional forms of medical treatment in addition to specializing in treating health problems by spinal manipulation
    a podiatrist specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of the foot
    a chiropractor specializes in the manipulative treatment of disorders originating fro misalignment of the spine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. match:

    scapula

    A. aka the thighbone
    B. aka the collar bone
    C. aka the shoulder blade
    D. aka the heel bone
    E. aka the shinbone
    C. aka the shoulder blade
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. true/false
    a stress fracture is a small crack in the bone that often develops from chromic excessive impact
    true
  67. the tissue that makes up the flexible tip of the nose is known as ___
    cartilage
  68. match:

    orthopedic surgeon

    A. specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of the feet.
    B. specializes in disorders involving the bones, joints, and muscles
    C. specializes in diseases that are characterized by inflammation in the connective tissues.
    D. specializes in treating heath problems by manipulation and with traditional forms of medical treatment
    E. specializes in manipulative treatment of disorders originating from misalignment of the spine
    B. specializes in disorders involving the bones, joints, muscles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. the term ___ describes an abnormal increase in the outward curvature of the thoracic spine as viewed from the side.

    A. spondylosis
    B. scoliosis
    C. lordosis
    D. kyphosis
    D. kyphosis

    scoliosis is an abnormal lateral (sideways) curvature
    lordosis is an abnormal increase in the forward curvature of the lumbar spine
    spondylosis means abnormal condition of the spine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. match:

    spina bifida

    A. degenerative condition of the vertebrae
    B. inflammation of the vertebrae
    C. pain of the lumbar region
    D. rupture of the intervertebral disk that causes pressure on spinal nerve roots
    E. a congenital defect in which the spine fails to close around the spinal cord.
    E. a congenital defect in which the spine fails to close around the spinal cord.

    a herniated disk, aka slipped or ruptured disk, rupture of the intervertebral disk that causes pressure on spinal nerve roots
    spondylitis means inflammation of the vertebrae
    lumbago, aka low back pain, is pain of the lumbar region
    spondylosis is the degenerative condition of the vertebrae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. a/an __ is a slow-growing benign tumor derived from cartilage cells
    chondroma
  72. the condition now known as short stature was formerly known as ___

    A. cretinism
    B. hunchback
    C. talipes
    D. dwarfism
    D. dwarfism

    talipes, aka clubfoot, describes ay congenital deformity of the foot involving the talus
    cretinism a congenital form of hypothyroidism
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. when a bone is splintered or crushed, this is known as a/an ___

    A. closed fracture
    B. spiral fracture
    C. comminuted fracture
    D. compound fracture
    C. comminuted fracture

    spiral fracture is when the bone has been twisted apart
    closed fracture, aka simple fracture or complete fracture, is one in which the bone is broken but there is no open wound in the skin
    compound fracture, aka open fracture, when a bone is broken and there is an open wound in the skin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. match:

    stress

    A. a fracture that occurs when the bone is pressed together on itself
    B. a fracture that is at an angle across the bone
    C. a fracture in which the bone is twisted apart
    D. a fracture that is straight across the bone
    E. a small crack fracture that occurs after chronic, excessive impact
    E. a small crack fracture that occurs after chronic, excessive impact

    a compression fracture, aka vertebral crush fracture, occurs when the bone is pressed together on itself
    a transverse fracture is a fracture that is straight across the bone
    oblique fracture is a fracture that is at an angle across the bone
    spiral fracture is a fracture in which the bone is twisted apart
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. match:

    osteitis

    A. an inflammation of bone
    B. abnormal sideways curvature of the spine
    C. abnormal increase in the outward curvature of the thoracic spine as viewed from the side
    D. abnormal increase in the forward curvature of the lumbar spine
    E. a congenital deformity in which the foot may be turned outward or inward
    A. an inflammation of the bone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. the surgical removal of the synovial membrane from a join is a/an
    synovectomy
  77. true/false
    ostealgia, aka osteodynia, means pain within the bone
    true
  78. true/false
    a tendon attaches one bone to another
    false

    • a tendon attaches bone to muscle
    • a ligament attaches one bone to another
  79. true/false
    ankylosis spondylitis is a form of arthritis that affects children
    false

    juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is a form of arthritis that affects children

    ankylosis means progressive stiffening of a join or joints
  80. testing and recording neuromuscular activity by the electric stimulation of nerves is known as
    electroneuromyography
  81. achilles ___ is a painful inflammation of the achilles tendon caused by excessive stress being placed on that tendon
    tendinitis
  82. match:

    lateralis

    A. toward the side
    B. toward the midline
    C. largest muscle
    D. deeper location
    E. near the surface
    A. toward the side

    medialis means toward the midline
    internal means deeper location
    superficial means near the surface
    maximus means largest muscle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. a/an ___ is band of fibrous tissue that holds structures together abnormally
    adhesion
  84. true/false
    muscular dystrophy is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the neuromuscular junction and produces serious weakness of voluntary muscles
    false

    myasthenia gravis

    muscular dystrophy progressive weakness and degeneration of the skeletal muscles that doesn't affect the nervous system
  85. match:

    insertion

    A. formed from four muscle divisions
    B. formed from three muscle divisions
    C. where a muscle ends
    D. formed from two muscle divisions
    E. where a muscle begins
    C. where a muscle ends

    biceps means formed from two muscle divisions
    origin is where a muscle begins
    quadceps means formed from four muscle divisions
    triceps means formed from three muscle divisions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. true/false
    insertion is the place where the muscle ends
    true
  87. the point at which a muscle begins is known as

    A. origin
    B. insertion
    C. pronation
    D. rotation
    A. origin

    pronation is the act of rotating the arm or leg so that the palm of the hand or sole of the foot is turned downward or backward

    rotation is a circular movement around an axis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. match:

    lateralis

    A. ringlike muscle
    B. straight
    C. toward the side
    D. crosswise direction
    E. at an angle
    C. toward the side

    transverse means crosswise direction
    rectus means straight
    sphincter means ringlike muscle
    oblique means at an angle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. match:

    extension

    A. bends a joint
    B. straightens a joint
    C. moves towards the midline
    D. turns the palm downward
    E. moves away from the midline
    B. straightens a joint

    flexion bends a joint
    abduction moves away from the midline
    adduction moves towards the midline
    pronation turns the palm downward
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. the specialized soft-tissue manipulation technique used to ease the pain of conditions such as fibromyalgia is known as ____ release
    myfascial
  91. the term ___ describes a neuromuscular disorder characterized by the slow relaxation of the muscles after a voluntary contraction

    A. atonic
    B. myotonia
    C. dystaxia
    D. dystonia
    B. myotonia

    atonic means lacking normal muscle tone or strength
    dystonia is a condition of abnormal muscle tone that causes the impairment of voluntary muscle movement
    dystaxia, aka partial ataxia, is a mild form of ataxia (<< the inability to coordinate muscle activity during voluntary movement.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. match:

    depression

    A. turns a bone on its own axis
    B. lowers a body part
    C. turns at the far end
    D. raises a body part
    E. turns the palm upward
    B. lowers a body part

    supination turns the palm upward
    elevation raises a body part
    rotation turns a bone on its own axis
    circumduction turns at the far end
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. the condition of extreme slowness in movement is known as ___. This is one of the symptoms in Parkinson's disease.

    A. hypokinesia
    B. hyperkinesia
    C. dyskinesia
    D. bradykinesia
    D. bradykinesia

    dyskinesia is the distortion or impairment of voluntary movement such as in a tic or spasm
    hyperkinesia, aka hyperactivity, is abnormally increased muscle function or activity
    hypokinesia is opposite of hyperkinesia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. true/false
    paralysis is the loss of sensation and voluntary muscle movements thru disease or injury to its nerve supply
    true
  95. which type of muscle tissue forms the muscular wall of the heart?

    A. involuntary
    B. voluntary
    C. visceral
    D. myocardial
    D. myocardial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. true/false
    a physiatrist is a specialist who works under a physician's supervision to develop, implement, and coordinate exercise programs, and administer medical tests to promote physical fitness
    false

    exercise physiologist

    a physiatrist is a physician who specializes in physical medicine and rehabilitation with the focus on restoring function
  97. the term ___ means to bend the foot upward at the ankle

    A. plantar flexion
    B. dorsiflexion
    C. plantar extension
    D. dorsiextension
    B. dorsiflexion

    plantar flexion bends the foot downward at the ankle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. the term ___ means to move away from the midline

    A. flexion
    B. extension
    C. adduction
    D. abduction
    D. abduction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. true/false
    impingement syndrome occurs when inflamed and swollen tendons are caught in the narrow space between the bones within the shoulder joint
    true
  100. which condition is a congenital defect in which the spinal canal fails to close around the spinal cord?

    A. hallux valgus
    B. talipes
    C. spondylolisthesis
    D. spina bifida
    D. spina bifida

    hallux valgus, aka bunion, is an abnormal enlargement of the join at the base of the great toe
    talipes, aka clubfoot
    spondylolisthesis is the forward slipping movement of the body of one of the lower lumbar vertebrae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. based on its word parts, the term cardiorrhexis means

    A. abnormal softening of the heart
    B. rupture of the heart
    C. to suture the wall of the heart
    D. bleeding from the heart
    B. rupture of the heart
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. which form of arthritis is characterized by deposits of uric acid in the joints?

    A. gouty arthritis
    B. juvenile arthritis
    C. rheumatoid arthritis
    D. osteoarthritis
    A. gouty arthritis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. a/an __ divides the body into anterior and posterior portions

    A. transverse plane
    B. frontal plane
    C. sagittal plane
    D. horizontal plane
    B. frontal plane
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. which term means the tissue death of an artery or arteries

    A. arteriosclerosis
    B. arteriostenosis
    C. arteriomalacia
    D. arterionecrosis
    D. arterionectrosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. which term describes a torn, ragged wound?

    A. laceration
    B. infection
    C. inflammation
    D. fistula
    A. laceration

    infection is the invasion of the body by a pathogenic organism
    inflammation is a localized response to an injury or destruction of tissues
    fistula is an abnormal passage, usually between two internal organs, or leading from an organ to the surface of the body
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. a/an __ is a physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders involving the bones, joints, and muscles

    A. podiatrist
    B. orthopedic surgeon
    C. chiropractor
    D. osteopath
    B. orthopedic surgeon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. which term means pain in the stomach?

    A. gastralgia
    B. gastritis
    C. gastrosis
    D. gastrotomy
    A. gastralgia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. true/false
    a gamete is the only type of cell that does not contain 46 chromosomes
    true
  109. true/false
    swelling is one sign of inflammation
    true
  110. a/an __ is acquired in a hospital or clinic setting

    A. functional disorder
    B. idiopathic disorder
    C. nosocomial infection
    D. latrogenic illness
    C. nosocomial infection

    latrogenic illness is a pituitary illness
    idiopathic disorder is an illness without known cause
    functional disorder produces symptoms for which no physiological or anatomical cause can be identified. (panic attack)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. true/false
    spondylolisthesis is the forward movement of a lower lumbar vertebra's body on the vertebra below it
    true
  112. match:

    -sclerosis

    A. visual examination
    B. abnormal hardening
    C. abnormal narrowing
    d. above
    e. tissue death
    B. abnormal hardening
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. match:

    supra-

    a. visual examination
    b. abnormal hardening
    c. abnormal narrowing
    d. above
    e. tissue death
    d. above
  114. match:

    -necrosis

    a. visual examination
    b. abnormal hardening
    c. abnormal narrowing
    d. above
    e. tissue death
    e. tissue death
  115. match:

    arthroalgia

    A. joint pain
    B. surgical removal of the appendix
    C. mature red blood cells
    D. inflammation of the tonsils
    E. before birth
    A. joint pain
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. match:

    prenatal

    A. joint pain
    B. mature red blood cells
    C. surgical removal of the appendix
    D. inflammation of the tonsils
    E. before birth
    E. before birth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. match:

    erythrocyte

    A. surgical removal of the appendix
    B. joint pain
    C. mature red blood cells
    D. inflammation of the tonsils
    E. before birth
    C. mature red blood cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. match:

    appendectomy

    A. mature red blood cells
    B. joint pain
    C. before birth
    D. surgical removal of the appendix
    E. inflammation of the tonsils
    D. surgical removal of the appendix
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. match:

    tonsillitis

    A. inflammation of the tonsils
    B. mature red blood cells
    C. surgical removal of the appendix
    D. joint pain
    E. before birth
    A. inflammation of the tonsils
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. true/false
    tay-sachs disease is a fatal genetic disorder in which harmful quantities of a fatty substance build up in the lungs
    false

    the fatty substances build up in tissue and nerve cells in the brain. not lungs
  121. ___ has the specialized ability to contract and relax

    A. dense connective tissue
    B. nerve tissue
    C. muscle tissue
    D. adipose tissue
    C. muscle tissue
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. match:

    oblique
    transverse
    spiral
    stress

    a. a small crack fracture that occurs after chronic, excessive impact
    b. a fracture that occurs when the bone is pressed together on itself
    c. a fracture in which the bone is twisted apart
    d. a fracture that is at an angle across the bone
    e. a fracture that is straight across the bone
    • stress fracture
    • a. a small crack fracture that occurs after chronic, excessive impact
    • compression fracture
    • b. a fracture that occurs when the bone is pressed together on itself
    • spiral fracture
    • c. a fracture in which the bone is twisted apart
    • oblique fracture
    • d. a fracture that is at an angle across the bone
    • transverse fracture
    • e. a fracture that is straight across the bone
  123. true/false
    a genetic mutation is a change of the sequence of a DNA molecule
    true
  124. which term describes the time and events surrounding birth?

    A. neonatal
    B. postnatal
    C. prenatal
    D. perinatal
    D. perinatal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. which type of bone marrow transplant uses the patient's own bone marrow?

    A. donor
    B. autologous
    C. allogenic
    D. stem cell
    B. autologous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. ___ is a genetic disorder in which an essential digestive enzyme is missing

    A. hemophilia
    B. tay-sachs
    C. huntington's disease
    D. phenylketonuria
    D. phenylketonuria
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. a/an __ disorder, such as a panic attack, produces symptoms for which no physiological or anatomical cause can be identified.

    A. infectious
    B. organic
    C. functional
    D. idiopathic
    C. functional
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. when a bone is splintered or crushed, this is known as a/an

    A. spiral fracture
    B. compound fracture
    C. closed fracture
    D. comminuted fracture
    D. comminuted fracture
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. which term describes the surgical repair or replacement of a damaged joint?

    A. arthrolysis
    B. arthroplasty
    C. arthrodesis
    D. arthrotomy
    B. arthroplasty
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. match:

    mesentery
    visceral peritoneum
    retroperitoneal
    peritoneum

    a. outer layer of membrane that lines the abdominal cavity
    b. inner layer of membrane that surrounds the organs of the abdominal cavity
    c. suspends parts of the intestine within the abdominal cavity
    d. located behind the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity
    e. membrane that protects and supports organs in the abdominal cavity
    • parietal peritoneum
    • a. outer layer of membrane that lines the abdominal cavity
    • visceral peritoneum
    • b. inner layer of membrane that surrounds the organs of the abdominal cavity
    • mesentery
    • c. suspends parts of the intestine within the abdominal cavity
    • retroperitoneal
    • d. located behind the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity
    • peritoneum
    • e. membrane that protects and supports organs in the abdominal cavity
  131. the condition now known as short stature was formerly known as

    A. hunchback
    B. cretinism
    C. talipes
    D. dwarfism
    D. dwarfism
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. which bone is known as the kneecap?

    A. sternum
    B. patella
    C. acromion
    D. olecranon
    B. patella
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. true/false
    as a broken bone heals, a crepitus forms a bulging deposit around the area of the break.
    false
  134. the term __ is the opposite of anterior

    A. superior
    B. ventral
    C. posterior
    D. dorsal
    C. posterior
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. is a bone disorder of unknown cause that destroys normal bone structure and replaces it with scarlike tissue

    A. rickets
    B. paget's disease
    C. fibrous dysplasia
    D. ewing's sarcoma
    C. fibrous dysplasia

    rickets, aka infantil osteomalacia, is a deficiency disease occurring in children

    paget's disease, osteitis deformans, is a bone disease of unknown cause
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. which combining form means fungus?

    A. myc/o
    B. myel/o
    C. mucos/o
    D. my/o
    A. myc/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. which suffix means to suture or stitch?

    A. -rrhage
    B. -rrhaphy
    C. -rrhea
    D. -rrhexia
    B. -rrhaphy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. the examination technique in which the examiner's hands are used to feel the texture, size, consistency, and location of certain body parts is known as

    A. prostrate
    B. palpation
    C. prostate
    D. palpitation
    B. palpation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. true/false
    quadrant means divided into six equal parts
    false

    four
  140. which bone tissue functions as a fat-storage area and is located in the medullary cavity?

    A. endosteum
    B. yellow bone marrow
    C. compact
    D. red bone marrow
    B. yellow bone marrow
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. true/false
    a sign, such as a fever, is evidence of disease that can be observed by the patient and by others
    true
  142. true/false
    pain is said to be a symptom because it can be observed by the patient
    true
  143. true/false
    coumadin is a medication that is administered to reduce undesirable blood cholesterol levels
    false

    antihypertensive

    • coumadin, aka warfarin, is an anticoagulant administered to prevent blood clots
    • from forming or growing larger
  144. match:

    diuretics

    A. administered to reduce blood pressure
    B. increase urine secretion
    C. reduce the contraction of the muscles that squeeze blood vessels tight
    D. interfere with the action that causes the heart muscles to contract
    E. slow the heartbeat
    B. increase urine secretion

    beta blocker slows the heartbeat
    digitalis, aka digoxin interferes with the action that causes the heart muscles to contract
    ACE inhibitor reduces the contraction of the muscles that squeeze blood vessels tight
    antihypertensive is a medicine administered to reduce blood pressure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. the pulmonary arteries carry ___ blood

    A. carbon-dioxide-free
    B. carbon-dioxide-rich
    C. oxygen-poor
    D. oxygen-rich
    C. oxygen-poor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. match:

    angiitis

    A. inflammation of a vein
    B. thickening and the loss of elasticity of arterial walls
    C. narrowing of a blood vessel
    D. inflammation of a blood vessel
    E. spasmodic contraction of blood vessels
    D. inflammation of a blood vessel

    phlebitis is inflammation of a vein
    arteriosclerosis is thickening and the loss of elasticity of arterial walls
    angiostenosis is the narrowing of a blood vessel
    spasmodic contraction of blood vessels
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  147. which cancerous blood condition was previously known as preleukemia?

    A. myelodysplasia syndrome
    B. myelodysplastic syndrome
    C. myodysplasia syndrome
    D. myodysplastic syndrome
    B. myelodysplastic syndrome
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. true/false
    an embolism is the blockage of a vessel by an embolus
    true
  149. severe episodes of severe chest pain caused by inadequate blood flow to the myocardium are known as ___. These episodes are due to ischemia of the heart muscle
    angina
  150. the main trunk of the arterial system that begins from the left ventricle of the heart is the
    aorta
  151. true/false
    bradycardia is an abnormally rapid heartbeat
    false

    tachycardia

    bradycardia is the abnormally slow heartbeat
  152. the term ___ means to stop or control bleeding
    hemostasis
  153. a/an ___ is a foreign object, such as a blood clot, that is circulating in the blood

    A. embolus
    B. thrombus
    C. thrombosis
    D. embolism
    A. embolus

    thrombosis the abnormal condition of having a thrombus
    thrombus a blood clot attached to the interior wall of an artery or vein
    embolism is the sudden blockage of a blood vessel by an embolus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. true/false
    blood gases include oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen
    true
  155. the term ___ describes any situation in which the total number of leukocytes in the circulating blood is less then normal

    A. polycythemia
    B. leukopenia
    C. thrombocytopenia
    D. thrombocytosis
    B. leukopenia

    polycythemia an abnormal increase in the number of red cells in the blood due to excess production of these cells by the bone marrow
    thrombocytosis is an abnormal increase in the number of platelets in the circulating blood
    thrombocytopenia a condition in which there is an abnormally small number of platelets circulating the blood
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  156. an abnormal increase in the number of red cells in the blood due to excess production of these cells by the bone marrow is known as
    polycythemia
  157. match:

    pernicious anemia

    A. abnormal sickle-shaped red blood cells
    B. red blood cells that are destroyed too rapidly
    C. the absence of all formed blood elements
    D. larger-than-normal red blood cells
    E. inability to absorb vitamin B12 normally
    E. inability to absorb vit. B12 normally

    aplastic anemia is the absence of all formed blood elements
    sickle-cell anemia are abnormal sickle-shaped red blood cells
    megaloblastic anemia are larger-than-normal red blood cells
    hemolytic anemia is the condition when red blood cells that are destroyed too rapidly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  158. ___ is a systemic condition caused by the spread of microorganisms and their toxins via the circulating blood

    A. hemochromatosis
    B. hemolytic reaction
    C. dyscrasia
    D. septicemia
    D. septicemia

    hemochromatosis, aka iron overload disease, is a genetic disorder in which the intestines absorb too much iron
    hemolytic reaction is the breaking down of red blood cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  159. a/an __ is also known as a clot-busting drug
    thrombolytic
  160. match:

    carditis

    A. inflammation of the heart muscle
    B. inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart
    C. inflammation of the heart
    D. inflammation of the heart lining caused by bacteria
    E. inflammation of the lining of the heart
    C. inflammation of the heart

    bacterial endocarditis means inflammation of the heart lining caused by bacteria
    pericarditis means inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart
    myocarditis means inflammation of the heart muscle
    endocarditis means inflammation of the lining of the heart
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  161. true/false
    the mitral valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle
    true
  162. match:
    endarterectomy

    A. surgical removal of part of an artery
    B. surgical removal of the lining of an artery
    C. surgical removal of plaque from an artery
    D. surgical removal of the lining of the carotid artery
    E. surgical removal of an aneurysm
    B. surgical removal of the lining of an artery

    carotid endarterectomy is the surgical removal of the lining of the carotid artery
    arteriectomy is the surgical removal of part of an artery
    atherectomy is the surgical removal of plaque from an artery
    aneurysmectomy is the surgical removal of an aneurysm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  163. true/false
    antibiotics are used to combat viral infections
    false

    antiviral drug

    antibiotics are medications that are capable of inhibiting growth, or killing pathogenic bacterial microorganisms
  164. match:
    streptococci

    A. small bacteria that live in fleas and ticks
    B. spiral-shaped bacteria with flexible walls
    C. rod-shaped, spore-forming bacteria
    D. bacteria that form irregular clusters
    E. bacteria that forms a chain
    E. bacteria that form a chain

    bacilli are rod-shaped, spore-forming bacteria
    spirochetes are spiral-shaped bacteria with flexible walls
    rickettsia is a small bacteria that live in fleas and ticks
    staphylococci are bacteria that form irregular clusters
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  165. the yeast __, formerly known as moniliasis, is now also known as a yeast infection or thrush
    candidiasis
  166. true/false
    a mastectomy is the surgical removal of only the cancerous tissue and a margin of surrounding normal tissue of a breast
    false

    lumpectomy

    mastectomy is the surgical removal of the entire breast and nipple
  167. true/false
    intact skin wraps the body in a physical barrier that prevents invading organisms from entering the body
    true
  168. ___ is the use of natural or synthetic substances to reduce the risk of cancer occurring or recurring
    chemoprevention
  169. a lymph node ___ is a surgical procedure in which all the lymph nodes in a major group are removed to determine or slow the spread of cancer
    dissection
  170. match:
    rheumatoid arthritis

    A. affects the digestive system
    B. affects the nervous system
    C. affects the integumentary system
    D. affects the skeletal system
    E. affects the endocrine gland
    D. affects the skeletal system

    scleroderma affects the integumentary system
    graves disease affects the endocrine gland
    multiple sclerosis affects the nervous system
    crohns disease affects the digestive system
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  171. match:
    carcinoma in situ

    A. malignant tumor that occurs in epithelial tissue
    B. malignant tumor in its original position
    C. new cancer site caused by spreading process
    D. process by which cancer spreads
    E. malignant tumor that arises from connective tissue
    B. malignant tumor in its original position

    metastasize is the process by which cancer spreads
    sarcoma is a malignant tumor that arises from connective tissue
    carcinoma is a malignant tumor that occurs in epithelial tissue
    metastasis is a new cancer site caused by spreading process
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  172. acyclovir is an example of a/an __

    A. antifungal
    B. antibiotic
    C. vaccine
    D. antiviral
    D. antiviral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  173. true/false
    lymph nodes act as filters to remove substances as lymph flows thru the node
    true
  174. __ is the general term applied to malignancies affecting lymphoid tissues

    A. lymphoma
    B. adenocarcinoma
    C. lymphedema
    D. lymphadenitis
    A. lymphoma

    adenocarcinoma is any one of a large group of carcinomas derived from glandular tissue
    lymphedema is swelling due to an abnormal accumulation of lymph fluid within the tissues
    lymphadenitis, aka swollen glands, is an inflammation of the lymph nodes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  175. match:
    chickenpox

    A. may cause congenital abnormalities
    B. caused by herpes zoster
    C. transmitted by infected animals
    D. aka varicella
    E. caused by the Epstein-Barr virus
    D. aka. varicella

    caused by the Epstein-Barr virus - aka mono (infectious mononucleosis)
    caused by herpes zoster - aka shingles
    transmitted by infected animals - rabies
    may cause congenital abnormalities - rubella
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  176. rocky mountain spotted fever is caused by a __ and is transmitted to humans by the bite of an infected tick

    A. spirochete
    B. streptococci
    C. staphylococci
    D. rickettsia
    D. rickettsia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  177. match:
    allergen

    A. disease-fighting protein created in response to a specific antigen
    B. signal between the cells of the immune system
    C. antigen capable of inducing an allergic response
    D. overreaction by the body to an antigen
    E. any substance the body regards as foreign
    C. antigen capable of inducing an allergic response

    allergy is the overreaction by the body to an antigen
    antibody is disease-fighting protein created in response to a specific antigen
    lymphokines is a signal between the cells of the immune system
    antigen is any substance the body regards as foreign
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  178. infectious mononucleosis is a ___ infection

    A. viral
    B. bacterial
    C. fungal
    D. parasitic
    A. viral
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  179. the five primary types of ___, which are secreted by plasma cells, are aka antibodies.
    immunoglobulins
  180. which condition is a benign tumor made up of abnormal lymphatic vessels?

    A. adenocarcinoma
    B. adenoiditis
    C. lymphangioma
    D. lymphadenitis
    C. lymphangioma

    lymphadenitis
    adenoiditis
    adenocarcinom
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  181. a/an __ is a physician specializing in diagnosing and treating malignant disorders such as tumors and cancer
    onocologist
  182. a bluish discoloration of the skin caused by a lack of adequate oxygen is known as
    cyanosis
  183. true/false
    a pneumothorax is the accumulation of air in the pleural space that causes a pressure imbalance that prevents the lung from fully expanding or can cause it to collapse
    true
  184. polysomnography is

    A. often performed to detect nocturnal defects in breathing associated with sleep apnea
    B. a diagnostic test measuring volume and flow of air
    C. a handheld device often used to test a patient with asthma to measure how quickly the patient can expel air
    D. a valuable tool for diagnosing pneumonia, lung tumors, pneumothorax, pleural effusion, tuberculosis, and emphysema
    A. often performed to detect nocturnal defects in breathing associated with sleep apnea

    chest imaging, aka chest x-ray, is a valuable tool for diagnosing pneumonia, lung tumors, pneumothorax, pleural effusion, tuberculosis, and emphysema
    pulmonary function test (PFT) is a diagnostic test measuring volume and flow of air
    peak flow meter is a handheld device often used to test a patient with asthma to measure how quickly the patient can expel air
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  185. a __ is the mechanical device for artificial ventilation of the lungs that is used to replace or supplement the patient's natural breathing function

    A. ventilator
    B. supplemental oxygen
    C. respirator
    D. diaphragmatic breathing
    A. ventilator

    supplemental oxygen is administered when the patient is unable to maintain an adequate oxygen saturation level in the blood
    diaphragmatic breathing, aka abdominal breathing, is a relaxation technique used to relieve anxiety
    respirator is an apparatus for administering artificial respiration in cases of respiratory failure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  186. a specialist in disorders of the lungs and associated tissues is a/an
    pulmonologist
  187. which condition is the abnormal escape of fluid into the pleural cavity?

    A. pyothorax
    B. pneurmothorax
    C. hemothorax
    D. pleural effusion
    D. pleural effusion

    hemothorax is a collection of blood in the pleural cavity
    pyothorax is the presence of pus in the pleural cavity between the layers of the pleural membrane
    pneurmothorax is the accumulation of air in the pleural space causing a pressure imbalance that prevents the lung from fully expanding or can cause it to collapse
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  188. true/false
    the epiglottis swings downward and closes off the laryngopharynx so food does not enter the trachea and the lungs
    true
  189. a/an ___ is a collection of pus within a body cavity

    A. emphysema
    B. empyema
    C. hemoptysis
    D. pleural effusion
    B. empyema

    pleural effusion is the abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural space
    hemoptysis is coughing up of blood or bloodstained sputum derived from the lungs or bronchial tubes as the result of pulmonary or bronchial hemorrhage
    emphysema is the progressive loss of lung function that is characterized by 1-a decrease in total number of alveoli, 2- the enlargement of the remaining alveoli, 3- the progressive destruction of the walls of the remaining alveoli
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  190. a/an __ is an emergency procedure in which an incision is made into the trachea to gain access to the airway below a blockage
    tracheotomy
  191. a/an __ is a medication that expands the opening of the passages into the lungs
    brochodilator
  192. true/false
    a sinus is an air-filled cavity within a bone that is lined with mucous membrane
    true
  193. functional endoscopic sinus is performed to

    A. endoscopically examine the ethmoid sinuses
    B. examine the frontal sinuses
    C. enlarge the opening between the nose and sinus
    D. repair the nasal septum
    C. enlarge the opening between the nose and sinus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  194. true/false
    pneumoconiosis is fibrosis of the lung tissues caused by dust in the lungs, and it usually develops after prolonged environmental or occupational contact.
    true
  195. true/false
    hemoptysis is also known as a nosebleed
    false

    epistaxis

    hemoptysis is coughing up of blood or bloodstained sputum derived from the lungs or bronchial tubes as the result of a pulmonary or bronchial hemorrhage
  196. matching:

    pleurisy
    bronchorrhea
    bronchodilator
    bronchitis
    acute nasopharyngitis

    a. inflammation of the bronchial walls
    b. excessive flow of mucus from the bronchi
    c. inflammation of the pleura
    d. expands the opening of the passages into the lungs
    e. aka the common cold
    • a. inflammation of the bronchial walls
    • bronchitis

    • b. excessive flow of mucus from the bronchi
    • bronchorrhea

    • c. inflammation of the pleura
    • pleurisy

    • d. expands the opening of the passages into the lungs
    • bronchodilator

    • e. aka the common cold
    • acute nasopharyngitis
  197. __ is an abnormally rapid rate of deep respiration that is usually associated with anxiety
    hyperventilation
  198. which of these viral diseases is commonly known as chicken pox?

    A. cytomegalovirus
    B. varicella
    C. herpes zoster
    D. rubella
    B. varicella
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  199. true/false
    dystaxia is an inability to coordinate the muscles in the execution of voluntary movement
    true
  200. formed in the red bone marrow, __ are the most common type of WBC

    A. basophils
    B. eosinophils
    C. lymphocytes
    D. neutrophils
    D. neutrophils
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  201. __ is a muscle disease characterized by the simultaneous inflammation and weakening of voluntary muscles in many parts of the body

    A. fibromyalgia
    B. polymyalgia
    C. polymyositis
    D. myalgia
    C. polymyositis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  202. the loss of the ability of the larynx to produce normal speech sounds is known as

    A. dysphonia
    B. aphasia
    C. layngitis
    D. aphonia
    D. aphonia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  203. which specialist treats diseases and disorders of the blood and blood-forming tissues?

    A. cardiologist
    B. hematologist
    C. histologist
    D. pathologist
    B. hematologist
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  204. the point at which a muscle begins is known as the

    A. pronation
    B. insertion
    C. rotation
    D. origin
    D. origin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  205. movement toward the midline of the body is known as
    adduction
  206. the paralysis of both legs and lower part of the body is known as
    paraplegia
  207. a radiographic study of the blood vessel after the injection of a contrast medium is known as a/an
    angiography
  208. which condition is a benign tumor made up of abnormal lymphatic vessels?

    A. lymphangioma
    B. lymphadenitis
    C. adenocarcinoma
    D. adenoiditis
    A. lymphangioma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  209. a/an ___ is also known as a clot-busting drug
    thrombolytic
  210. matching:

    antibody
    allergen
    antigen
    allergy
    lymphokines

    a. signal between the cells of the immune system
    b. disease-fighting protein created in response to a specific antigen
    c. any substance the body regards as foreign
    d. overreaction by the body to an antigen
    e. antigen capable of inducing an allergic response
    • a. signal between the cells of the immune system
    • lymphokines

    • b. disease-fighting protein created in response to a specific antigen
    • antibody

    • c. any substance the body regards as foreign
    • antigen

    • d. overreaction by the body to an antigen
    • allergy

    • e. antigen capable of inducing an allergic response
    • allergen
  211. true/false
    adjuvant therapy is used as the primary treatment to cure cancer
    false

    adjuvant therapy is used after the primary treatments have been completed to decrease the chance that a cancer will recur
  212. to __ is the process by which cancer spreads from one place to another

    A. metastasis
    B. metastasize
    C. metastasies
    D. metabolize
    B. metastasize
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  213. true/false
    endotracheal intubation is the passage of a tube thru the nose or mouth into the trachea to establish an airway
    true
  214. the ___ are only one cell in thickness and are the smallest blood vessels in the body

    A. venules
    B. coronary arteries
    C. arterioles
    D. capillaries
    D. capillaries
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  215. the term __ means to bend a limb at the joint

    A. extension
    B. elevation
    C. flexion
    D. circumduction
    C. flexion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  216. a ___ is the surgical repair of a fascia

    A. fasciotomy
    B. fasciectomy
    C. fascioplasty
    D. fasciorrhaphy
    C. fascioplasty
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  217. which diagnostic test records the strength of muscle contractions?

    A. electrocardiography
    B. electroneuromyography
    C. electromyography
    D. tonometery
    C. electromyography
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  218. ___ is the absence of oxygen from the body's gases, blood or tissues.

    A. asphyxiation
    B. anoxia
    C. suffocation
    D. cyanosis
    B. anoxia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  219. true/false
    hypertension is the overextension of a limb or body part beyond its normal limit
    false

    hypertension, aka high blood pressure, is the elevation of arterial blood pressure to a level that is likely to cause damage to the cardiovascular system
  220. a __ pumps air or oxygen thru a liquid medicine to turn it into a vapor, which is then inhaled by the patient via a face mask or mouthpiece

    A. nasal cannula
    B. positive pressure ventilator
    C. respirator
    D. nebulizer
    D. nebulizer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  221. true/false
    a pharyngotomy is the surgical repair of the pharynx
    false

    a pharyngotomy is a surgical incision of the pharynx

    -plasty = surgical repair
  222. which of these medical conditions is commonly known as a heart attack?

    A. atherosclerosis
    B. angina pectoris
    C. ischemic heart disease
    D. myocardial infarction
    D. myocardial infarction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  223. which term describes an abnormal condition of muscle tone that causes the impairment of voluntary muscle movement?

    A. dystonia
    B. myotonia
    C. hypotonia
    D. hypertonia
    A. dystonia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  224. which term means not life threatening and does not recur?

    A. anomaly
    B. benign
    C. malignant
    D. metastasis
    B. benign
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  225. match:

    endarterectomy
    arteriectomy
    carotid endarterectomy
    aneurysmectomy
    atherectomy

    a. surgical removal of the lining of an artery
    b. surgical removal of plaque from an artery
    c. surgical removal of part of an artery
    d. surgical removal of the lining of the carotid artery
    e. surgical removal of an aneurysm
    • a. surgical removal of the lining of an artery
    • endarterectomy

    • b. surgical removal of plaque from an artery
    • atherectomy

    • c. surgical removal of part of an artery
    • arteriectomy

    • d. surgical removal of the lining of the carotid artery
    • carotid endarterectomy

    • e. surgical removal of an aneurysm
    • aneurysmectomy
  226. true/false
    an embolism is the blockage of a vessel by an embolus
    true
  227. the opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is controlled by the ___ valve
    tricuspid
  228. weakness and wasting away caused by disuse of the muscle over a long period of time is known as

    A. myotonia
    B. hypotonia
    C. dystonia
    D. atrophy
    D. atrophy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  229. a/an __ is a collection of pus within a body cavity

    A. empyema
    B. emphysema
    C. hemoptysis
    D. pleural effusion
    A. empyema
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  230. which medication controls irregularities of the heartbeat?

    A. thrombolytic
    B. vasoconstrictor
    C. vasodilator
    D. antiarrhythmic
    D. antiarrhythmic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  231. the ___ virus, which causes fluelike symptoms, can spread to the spinal cord and brain
    west nile
  232. which procedure is a surgical incision of the pharynx?

    A. pharyngoplasty
    B. tracheostomy
    C. pharyngotomy
    D. tracheotomy
    C. pharyngotomy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  233. which condition is a malignant tumor derived from muscle tissue?

    A. osteosarcoma
    B. myoma
    C. myeloma
    D. myosarcoma
    D. myosarcoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  234. which type of muscle tissue forms the muscular wall of the heart?

    A. visceral
    B. myocardial
    C. involuntary
    D. voluntary
    B. myocardial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  235. true/false
    a sinus is an air-filled cavity within a bone that is lined with mucous membrane
    true
  236. which tonsils are aka adenoids?

    A. nasopharyngeal
    B. oropharyngeal
    C. lingual
    D. palatine
    A. nasopharyngeal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  237. true/false
    smooth muscles are located in the walls of internal organs such as the digestive tract, blood vessels, and ducts leading from glands
    true
  238. true/false
    melena is a temporary stoppage of intestinal peristalsis
    false

    melena is the passage of black, tarry, and foul-smelling stools
  239. which diagnostic test measures the oxygen saturation level in the blood?

    A. pulmonary function test
    B. pulse oximeter
    C. peak flow meter
    D. spirometry
    B. pulse oximeter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  240. true/false
    the term inguinal, which means relating to the groin, refers to the entire lower portion of the abdomen
    true
  241. the __ plane, which is aka the midline, divides the body into equal left and right halves

    A. midsagittal
    B. coronal
    C. transverse
    D. frontal
    A. midsagittal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  242. match:
    organic disorder

    A. any disease transmitted from one person to another
    B. a disorder with pathologic physical changes that explain the symptoms
    C. an illness caused by a pathogenic organism
    D. an illness without known cause
    E. a disorder with no detectable physical changes to explain the symptoms
    B. a disorder with pathologic physical changes that explain the symptoms
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  243. true/false
    cytology is the study of the formation, structure and functions of cells
    true
  244. which condition is the total paralysis of one side of the body?

    A. paraplegia
    B. hemiphlegia
    C. quadriplegia
    D. hemiparesis
    B. hemiphegia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  245. which of these suffixes requires the use of the combining vowel?

    A. -algia
    B. -ologist
    C. -stenosis
    D. -osis
    C. -stenosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  246. the point at which the muscle begins
    orgin
  247. which combining form means white?

    A. erythr/o
    B. melan/o
    C. leuk/o
    D. cyan/o
    C. leuk/o
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  248. true/false
    ischemia is a condition in which restricted blood flow to a part of the body causes an insufficient oxygen supply
    true
  249. which term means difficulty in swallowing?

    A. dysphagia
    B. pyrosis
    C. dyspepsia
    D. anorexia
    A. dysphagia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  250. which term refers to an outbreak of disease occurring over a large geographic area, possibly worldwide?

    A. epidemic
    B. endemic
    C. geodemic
    D. pandemic
    D. pandemic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  251. true/false
    emphysema is the chronic enlargement of the bronchi or bronchioles
    false

    emphysema is the progressive loss of lung function
  252. match:
    aplasia

    A. abnormal tissue dev.
    B. abnormal increase in the number of normal cells in normal arrangement
    C. the defective dev. or congenital absence of an organ or tissue
    D. a change in the structure of cells and their orientation to each other
    E. incomplete dev. of an organ or tissue
    C. the defective dev. or congenital absence of an organ or tissue
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  253. match:
    diuretics

    A. administered to reduce blood pressure
    B. increase urine secretion
    C. slow the heartbeat
    D. interfere with the action that causes the heart muscles to contract
    E. reduce the contraction of the muscles that squeeze blood vessels tight
    B. increase urine secretion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  254. which term describes a localized balloonlike enlargement of an artery wall?

    A. plaque
    B. varicosity
    C. thrombosis
    D. aneurysm
    D. aneurysm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  255. which term means the study of the functions of body structures?

    A. physiology
    B. cytology
    C. histology
    D. anatomy
    A. physiology
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  256. which term means inflammation of a nerve?

    A. neurotomy
    B. neurectomy
    C. neuritis
    D. neuroplasty
    C. neuritis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  257. true/false
    feces are solid body wastes expelled thru the rectum and anus
    true
  258. ___ contribute to the immune defense by coordinating immune defenses and by killing infected cells in contact

    A. t cells
    B. b cells
    C. plasma cells
    D. dendritic cells
    A. t cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  259. match:
    depression

    A. turns the palm upward
    B. raises a body part
    C. turns a bone on its own axis
    D. lowers a body part
    E. turns at the far end
    D. lowers a body part
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  260. match:
    osteitis

    A. abnormal increase in the forward curvature of the lumbar spine
    B. abnormal sideways curvature of the spine
    C. an inflammation of bone
    D. a congenital deformity in which the foot my be turned outward or inward
    E. abnormal increase in the outward curvature of the thoracic spine as viewed from the side
    C. an inflammation of bone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  261. true/false
    methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus, commonly known as MRSA, causes infections that are serious, difficult to treat, and can be fatal
    true
  262. true/false
    fasciitis is inflammation of a fascia
    true
  263. ___ is an inflammation of the bone marrow and adjacent bone

    A. osteitis
    B. periostitis
    C. osteomyelitis
    D. osteochondritis
    C. osteomyelitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  264. true/false
    the phalanges are the bones of the fingers
    true
  265. true/false
    a combining vowel is not required when two word roots are joined together
    false
  266. matching:
    pernicious anemia

    A. the absence of all formed blood elements.
    B. inability to absorb vit. B 12 normally
    C. red blood cells that are destroyed too rapidly
    D. larger then normal RBC
    E. abnormal sickle-shaped red blood cells
    B. inability to absorb vit. B12 normally
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  267. matching:
    CRC

    A. colorectal carcinoma
    B. irritable bowel syndrome
    C. hepatitis A virus
    D. ulcerative colitis
    E. Crohn's disease
    A. colorectal carcinoma

    hepatitis A virus (HAV)
    Crohn's disease (CD)
    irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
    ulcerative colitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  268. true/false
    a colostomy is the surgical removal of a portion of the colon
    false

    colectomy

    colostomy is the surgical creation of an artificial excretory opening between the colon and the bod surface
  269. which term describes pain in the gallbladder

    A. cholecystalgia
    B. cholecystitis
    C. cholecystic
    D. cholelithiasis
    A. cholecystalgia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  270. match:
    hepatorrhaphy

    A. surgical suturing of the liver
    B. dry mouth
    C. aka piles
    D. progressive degenerative liver disease
    E. surgical removal of all or part of the liver
    A. surgical suturing of the liver

    cirrhosis is a progressive degenerative liver disease
    hemorrhoids aka piles
    hepatectomy is surgical removal of all or part of the liver
    xerostomia is dry mouth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  271. esophageal __ are enlarged and swollen veins at the lower end of the esophagus. if one of these veins ruptures, severe bleeding occurs
    varices
  272. true/false
    oral thrush is a bacterial infection that grows out of control in the mouth
    false

    not bacterial - fungus (Candida albicans)
  273. which term describes an eating disorder that is characterized by binge eating?

    A. cachexia
    B. pica
    C. bulima
    D. anorexia nervosa
    C. bulimia

    pica is an abnormal craving or appetite for non food substances
    anorexia nervosa an eating disorder characterized by false perception of body appearance
    cachexia a condition of physical wasting away
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  274. match:
    cholelithiasis

    A. pain in the gallbladder
    B. pertaining to the gallbladder
    C. presence of gallstones
    D. surgical removal of the gallbladder
    E. inflammation of the gallbladder
    C. presence of gallstones

    cholecystitis means inflammation of the gallbladder
    cholecystalgia means pain in the gallbladder
    cholecystectomy means surgical removal of the gallbladder
    cholecystic pertaining to the gallbladder
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  275. match:
    ileostomy

    A. surgical creation of an opening between the ileum and the abdominal wall
    B. surgical creation of a connection between the stomach and duodenum
    C. surgical reduction of size of the stomach
    D. surgical creation of an artificial opening into the stomach
    E. surgical creation of an opening between the colon and the body surface
    A. surgical creation of an opening between the ileum and the abdominal wall

    gastric bypass surgery is a surgical reduction of size of the stomach
    colostomy is a surgical creation of an opening between the colon and the body surface
    gastrostomy is a surgical creation of an artificial opening into the stomach
    gastroduodenostomy is the surgical creation of a connection between the stomach and duodenum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  276. __ is the twisting of the intestine on itself that causes an obstruction. This condition usually occurs in infancy

    A. inguinal hernia
    B. strangulated hernia
    C. intussusception
    D. volvulus
    D. volvulus

    intussusception is the telescoping of one part of the small intestine into the opening of an immediately adjacent part
    strangulated hernia occurs when a portion of the intestine is constricted inside the hernia and its blood supply cut off
    inguinal hernia is the protrusion of a small loop of bowel thru a weak place in the lower abdominal wall or groin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  277. which term describes the breaking down of body cells or substances?

    A. anabolism
    B. metabolism
    C. catabolism
    D. absorption
    C. catabolism

    metabolism includes all of the processes involved in the body's use of nutrients
    anabolism the building up of body cells
    absorption is the process by which completely digested nutrients are transported to the cells thruout the body
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  278. true/false
    a proctologist is a physician who specializes in disorders of the colon, rectum and anus
    true
  279. the temporary stoppage of intestinal peristalsis is known is
    ileus
  280. the term __ describes any restriction to the opening of the mouth caused by trauma, surgery, or radiation associated with the treatment of oral cancer
    trismus
  281. a dental ___ is the professional cleaning of the teeth to remove plaque and calculus
    prophylaxis
  282. match:
    emesis

    a. movement of gas in the intestine
    b. passing gas thru the rectum
    c. swallowing air
    b. belching
    e. vomiting
    e. vomiting
  283. movement of gas in the intestine - borborygmus
    passing gas thru the rectum - flatulence
  284. true/false
    feces are solid body wastes expelled thru the rectum and anus
    true
  285. an anal __ is a small cracklike sore in the skin of the anus that can cause severe pain during a bowel movement
    fissure
  286. the ___ is the ringlike muscle that controls the flow from the stomach to the duodenum of the small intestine

    A. ileocecal valve
    B. cardiac sphincter
    C. pyloric valve
    D. pyloric sphincter
    D. pyloric sphincter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  287. true/false
    a cleft lip is a congenital fissure involving the upper lip, the hard palate, or the soft palate
    false

    cleft palate

    cleft lip, aka harelip, where there is a deep groove of the lip running upward to the nose as a result of the failure of this portion of the lip to close
  288. true/false
    trigonitis is an inflammation of the urinary bladder that is localized in the region of the trigone
    true
  289. true/false
    enuresis is the involuntary discharge of urine
    true
  290. the ___ is the smooth triangular area on the inner surface of the bladder located between the openings of the ureters and urethra
    trigone
  291. matching:
    renal pelvis

    A. a cluster of capillaries surrounded by the Bowman's capsule
    B. outer layer of the kidney
    C. functional units of the kidneys
    D. organs that remove waste products from blood
    E. collects urine produced by the kidney
    E. collects urine produced by the kidney

    organs that remove waste products from blood - liver
    outer layer of the kidney - renal cortex
    a cluster of capillaries surrounded by the Bowman's capsule - glomerulus
    functional units of the kidneys - nephrons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  292. a/an __ is an abnormal opening between the bladder and vagina that allows the constant flow of urine from the bladder into the vagina

    A. vesicovaginal fistula
    B. paraspadias
    C. cystocele
    D. cystolith
    A. vesicovaginal fistula

    cystolith a stone located within the urinary bladder
    cystocele, aka fallen bladder, is a hernia of the bladder thru the vaginal wall
    paraspadias is a congenital abnormally in males in which the urethral opening is on the side of the penis (that sucks!)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  293. matching:
    pyelitis

    A. dilation of the renal pelvis
    B. suppuration of the kidney
    C. downward displacement of the kidney
    D. inflammation of the renal pelvis and kidney
    E. inflammation of the renal pelvis
    E. inflammation of the renal pelvis

    suppuration of the kidney - nephropyosis
    downward displacement of the kidney - nephroptosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  294. matching:
    urethrostenosis

    A. distention of a ureter
    B. bleeding from the ureter
    C. bleeding from the urethra
    D. narrowing of the ureter
    E. abnormal narrowing of the urethra
    E. abnormal narrowing of the urethra

    bleeding from the ureter - urterorrhagia
    narrowing of the ureter - ureterostenosis
    distention of a ureter - hyroureter
    bleeding from the urethra - urethrorrhagia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  295. which term describes the outer layer of the kidney?

    A. nephron
    B. medulla
    C. cortex
    D. Bowman's capsule
    C. cortex

    medulla is opposite
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  296. a/an __ is a physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the urinary system of females and the genitourinary system of males
    urologist
  297. which term describes a radiographic study of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder without the use of a contrast medium?

    A. IVP
    B. retrograde urography
    C. intravenous urography
    D. KUB
    D. KUB (Kidneys', Ureters, Bladder)

    IVP - intravenous pyelogram, aka excretory urography, is a radiographic study of the kidneys and ureters.

    retrograde urography - a radiograph of the urinary system taken after dye has been placed in the urethra thru a sterile catheter and caused to flow upward thru the urinary tract
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  298. true/false
    a cystocele is a hernia of the bladder thru the vaginal wall
    true
  299. true/false
    a kidney transplant requires two kidneys to replace the function of the recipient's kidney's
    false

    just one
  300. a ___ nephrolithotomy is performed by making a small incision in the back and inserting a nephroscope to crush and remove a kidney stone
    percutaneous
  301. a ___ is the surgical fixation of a floating kidney
    nephropexy
  302. the condition aka bedwetting is nocturnal ___
    enuresis
  303. true/false
    polycystic kidney disease is an inherited kidney disorder in which the kidneys become enlarged bc of multiple cysts
    true
  304. which term describes the surgical repair of the tube extending from the kidney to the bladder?

    A. urethroplasy
    B. meatoplasty
    C. pyeloplasty
    D. ureteroplasty
    D. ureteroplasty

    pyeloplasty - surgical repair of renal pelvis
    urethroplasy -surgical repair of urethra
    meatoplasty - surgical repair of the external opening of the urethra
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  305. neurogenic bladder

    A. is a symptom of diabetes mellitus
    B. causes a burning sensation in the bladder
    C. is caused by interference with the nerve pathways associated with urination
    D. aka as overactive bladder
    C. is caused by interference with the nerve pathways associated with urination
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  306. matching:
    nephrolithiasis

    A. condition of having a kidney stone
    B. presence of a stone in the kidney presence of a stone in the collecting tubule
    C. surgical incision to remove a stone
    D. presence of a stone in the urinary bladder
    E. presence of a stone in the ureter
    A. condition of having a kidney stone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  307. matching:
    enuresis

    A. inability to empty the bladder
    B. increased excretion of urine
    C. involuntary discharge of urine
    D. excessive urination during the night
    E. inability to control voiding of urine
    C. involuntary discharge of urine

    inability to control voiding of urine - urinary incontinence
    increased excretion of urine - diuresis
    excessive urination during the night - nocturna enuresis
    inability to empty the bladder - urinary retention
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  308. true/false
    a psychotic disorder is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized speech
    false

    schizophrenia

    a psychotic disorder is characterized by the loss of contact with reality and deterioration of normal social functioning
  309. true/false
    a reflex is an automatic, involuntary response to some change, either inside or outside the body
    true
  310. ___ legs syndrome is a neurological disorder characterized by uncomfortable feelings in the legs producing a strong urge to move them
    restless
  311. match:
    acrophobia

    A. failure to resist impulses to steal objects
    B. fear of leaving the familiar settings of home
    C. fear of being in narrow or enclosed spaces
    D. a disorder characterized by the repeated, deliberated setting of fires
    E. fear of being in high places
    E. fear of being in high places

    failure to resist impulses to steal objects - kleptomania
    fear of being in narrow or enclosed spaces - claustrophobia
    a disorder characterized by the repeated, deliberated setting of fires - pyromania
    fear of leaving the familiar settings of home - agoraphobia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  312. true/false
    hypochondriasis is motivated by external incentives such as avoiding work
    false

    malingering

    hypochondriasis is characterized by fearing that one has a serious illness despite appropriate medical evaluation and reassurance
  313. a patient

    A. in a coma responds only to painful stimuli
    B. in a persistent vegetative state exhibits alternating sleep and wake cycles
    C. in a stupor has impaired mental awareness of the mind, but responds normally to environmental stimuli
    D. who is lethargic sleeps for long periods of time
    B. in a persistent vegetative state exhibits alternating sleep and wake patterns

    in a stupor has impaired mental awareness of the mind, but responds normally to environmental stimuli is an unresponsive state from which a person can be aroused only briefly and with vigorous, repeated attemps
    in a coma responds only to painful stimuli is a profound state of unconsciousness marked by the absence of spontaneous eye movements, no response to painful stimuli, and the lack of speech
    who is lethargic sleeps for long periods of time is a lowered level of consciousness marked by listlessness, drowsiness, and apathy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  314. a/an __ is administered to temporarily relieve anxiety and to reduce tension

    A. anxiolytic drug
    B. psychotropic drug
    C. mood-stabilizing drug
    D. antipsychotic drug
    A. anxiolytic drug

    mood-stabilizing drug - such as lithium, are used to treat mood instability and bipolar disorders
    antipsychotic drug - is administered to treat symptoms of severe disorders of thinking and mood
    psychotropic drug - acts primarily on the central nervous system, where it produces temporary changes affecting the mind, emotions, and behavior
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  315. a generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by

    A. exaggerated worry and tension even when there is little or nothing to provoke these feelings
    B. a person acting sick when he or she is not really sick
    C. multiple cognitive defects, including memory impairment
    D. persistent, intrusive, excessive worry about multiple topics
    A. exaggerated worry and tension even when there is little or nothing to provoke these feelings
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  316. a collection of blood trapped in the tissues of the brain is known as a cranial
    hematoma
  317. true/false
    a transient ischemic attack is an episode of bleeding in the brain that causes numbness, blurred vision, dizziness, or loss of balance
    false

    Transient ischemic attack (TIA) is the temporary interruption in the blood supply to the brain
  318. an inflammation of the tissues surrounding the brain or spinal cord is known as
    meningitis
  319. true/false
    cluster headaches are characterized by concentrated pain at the base of the skull and affect primarily men
    false

    cluster headaches are intensely painful headaches that affect one side of the head and may be associated with tearing of the eyes and nasal congention
  320. the ___ lobe of the cerebrum controls motor functions

    A. temporal
    B. occipital
    C. frontal
    D. parietal
    C. frontal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  321. matching:
    neurons

    A. automatic, involuntary response to some change
    B. basic cells of the nervous system
    C. a space between neurons
    D. provide support and protection for neurons
    E. supply of nerves to a body part
    B. basic cells of the nervous system
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  322. a/an ___ is a congenital herniation of brain tissue thru a gap in the skull
    encephalocele
  323. an abnormal sensation, such as burning, tingling, or numbness, for no apparent reason is known as
    paresthesia
  324. matching:
    lockjaw

    A. radiculitis
    B. somnambulism
    C. guillain-barre syndrome
    D. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
    E. tentanus
    E. tentanus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  325. matching:
    anxiolytic

    A. prevents or relieves depression
    B. administered to treat symptoms of neurological and psychiatric illnesses
    C. depresses the central nervous system and usually produces sleep
    D. suppresses anxiety and relaxes muscles
    E. produces calm without producing sleep
    D. suppresses anxiety and relaxes muscles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  326. ___ is a disorder characterized by the repeated, deliberate setting of fires

    A. a personality disorder
    B. a bipolar disorder
    C. pyromania
    D. kleptomania
    C. pyromania
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  327. matching:
    receptors

    A. network of intersecting nerves and blood or lymphatic vessels
    B. sites that receive external stimulation
    C. bundle of nerve fibers located within the brain or spinal cord
    D. anything that excites or activates a nerve
    E. knotlike mass of nerve cell bodies located outside the CNS
    B. sites that receive external stimulation

    stimulus - anything that excites or activates a nerve
    ganglion - knotlike mass of nerve cell bodies located outside the CNS
    nerves - bundle of nerve fibers located within the brain or spinal cord
    plexus - network of intersecting nerves and blood or lymphatic vessels
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  328. which term describes the condition in which the eye does not focus properly because of uneven curvatures of the cornea?

    A. strabismus
    B. hemianopia
    C. astigmatism
    D. nystagmus
    C. astigmatism

    strabismus - a disorder in which the eyes point in different directions or are not aligned correctly because the eye muscles are unable to focus together
    nystagmus - an involuntary, constant, rhythmic movement of the eyball that can be congenital or caused by a neuroligcal injury or drug use
    hemianopia - blindness in one-half of the visual field
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  329. an ocular ___ may be fitted to replace a missing eyeball
    prosthesis aka artifical eye
  330. color vision is the best in the ___, which is a pit in the middle of the macula

    A. fovea centralis
    B. macula
    C. macular disk
    D. optic disk
    A. fovea centralis

    macula - aka macula tutea, is a clearly defined yellow area in the center of the retina. this is the area of sharpest central vision
    optic disk - aka blind spot, is a small region in the eye where the nerve endings of the retina enter the optic nerve. it does not contain any rods or cones to convert images into nerve impulses
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  331. true/false
    the organ of Corti contains sensitive hairlike cells
    false

    the organ of Corti recevies the vibrations from the cochlear duct and relays them to the auditiory nerve fibers.
  332. true/false
    the cochlear duct relays virbrations to the auditory nerve fibers
    false

    is a fluid filled cavity within the cochlea that vibrates when the sound waves strike it
  333. the perception of two images of a single object is known as ____ or double vision
    diplopia

    • dipl = double
    • -opia = vision condition
  334. ___ is the drooping of the upper eyelid that is usually due to paralysis
    blepharoptosis

    • blephar/o = eyelid
    • -ptosis = drooping or sagging
  335. true/false
    the semicircular canals provide drainage within the eye to control intraocular pressure
    false

    the three semicircular canals contain the liquid endolymph and sensitive hair-like cells in the ear. the blending of these hair-like cells in response to the movements of the head set up impulses in nerve fibers to help maintain equilibrium
  336. true/false
    the uveal tract transmits sound from the inner ear to the brain
    false

    the uveal tract is the pigmented layer of the eye.
  337. true/false
    mydriatic drops are a medication placed into the eyes in the form of eye drops that produce temporary paralysis
    true
  338. the __ are important in maintaing equal atmospheric pressure within the middle ear

    A. auditory ossicles
    B. eustachian tubes
    C. external auditory canal
    D. semicircular canals
    B. eustachian tubes

    external auditory canal - transmits sound waves from the pinna to the tympanic membrane (eardrum) of the middle ear
    semicircular canals - contain the liquid endolymph and sensitive hair-like cells; helps maintain equilibrium
    auditory ossicles -are three small bones found in the middle ear used to trainsmit the sound waves from the eardrum to the inner ear by vibration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  339. ___ is the condition of common changes in the eyes that occur with aging
    presbyopia

    • presby = old age
    • -opia = vision condition
  340. the abbreviation __ means left eye

    A. OS
    B. OU
    C. AU
    D. OD
    A. os

    AU - auris uterque each ear or both ears
    OU - oculus uterque each eye or both eyes
    OD - oculus dexter right eye
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  341. which laser treatment is used to reattach a detached retina?

    a. laser iridotomy
    b. laser retinopexy
    c. LASIK
    d. laser trabeculoplasty
    • b. laser retinopexy
    • retin/o = retina
    • -pexy = surgical fixation

    • laser iridotomy - uses a focused beam of light to create a hole in the iris of the eye
    • irid = iris
    • -otomy = surgical incision
    • LASIK -Laser-Assisted in Situ Keratomileusis
    • kerat/o = cornea
    • -mileusis = carving
    • laser trabeculoplasty - used to treat open-angle glaucoma by creating openings in the trabecular meshwork to allow fluid to drain properly
  342. Retinitis ___ is a progressive degeneration of the retina that affects night and peripheral vision
    pigmentosa
  343. matchng:
    iris
    cilia
    lens
    pupil
    canthus

    a. where the upper and lower eyelids meet
    b. the muscular layer surrounding the pupil
    c. eyelashes
    d. the opening permitting light to enter the eye
    e. the curved structure that focuses images
    • a. where the upper and lower eyelids meet
    • canthus

    • b. the muscular layer surrounding the pupil
    • iris

    • c. eyelashes
    • cilia
    • d. the opening permitting light to enter the eye
    • pupil
    • e. the curved structure that focuses images
    • lens
  344. in which condition does a portion of the stomach protrude upward into the chest thru an opening in the diaphragm?

    A. hiatal hernia
    B. esophageal reflux
    C. gastroesophageal reflux disease
    D. esophageal varices
    A. hiatal hernia

    esophageal varices - are enlarged and swollen veins at the lower end of the esophagus
    gastroesophageal reflux disease - GERD, the upward flow of acid from the stomach into the esophagus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  345. which term means difficulty in swallowing?

    A. pyrosis
    B. dysphagia
    C. dyspepsia
    D. anorexia
    B. dysphagia

    anorexia - the loss of appetite for food, esp when caused by disease
    dyspepsia - aka indigestion, pain or disconfort in digestion
    pyrosis - aka heartburn, the burning sensation caused by the return of acidic stomach contents into the esophagus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  346. whic condition is an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity?

    A. anorexia
    B. ascites
    C. aerophagia
    D. cachexia
    B. ascites

    aerophagia - the excessive swallowing of air while eating or drinking, and is a common cause of gas in the stomach
    anorexia - the loss of appetite for food, especially when caused by disease
    cachexia - a condition of phsyical wasting away due to the loss of weight and muscle mass that occurs in patients with diseases such as advanced cancer or AIDS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  347. which term describes pain in the gallbladder?

    A. cholelithiasis
    B. cholecystalgia
    C. cholecystic
    D. cholecystitis
    B. cholecystalgia

    cholecystic- pertaining to the gallbladder
    cholecystitis- inflammation of the gallbladder
    cholelithiasis- the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder or bile ducts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  348. the surgical removal of the gallbladder is known as a/an
    cholecystectomy

    • cholecyst = gallbladder
    • -ectomy = surgical removal
  349. a/an ___ is medication that is administered to produce vomiting
    emetic

    emit = vomiting
  350. true/false
    catabolism is the building up of body cells and substances from nutrients
    false

    anabolism

    catabolism = breakdown
  351. true/false
    flatulence is the rumbling noise caused by the movement of gas in the intestine
    false

    borborygmus

    flatulence is the passage of gas out of the body thru the rectum
  352. true/false
    the flow of waste thru the anus is controlled by the two anal sphincter muscles
    true
  353. true/false
    feces are solid body wastes expelled thru the rectum and anus
    true
  354. matching:
    emesis

    A. passing gas thru the rectum
    B. swallowing air
    C. movement of gas in the intestine
    D. belching
    E. vomiting
    E. vomiting
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  355. matching:
    xerostomia

    A. surgical removal of all or part of the liver
    B. dry mouth
    C. aka piles
    D. progressive degnerative liver disease
    E. surgical suturing the liver
    B. xerostomia

    hemorrhoids - aka piles
    hepatorrhaphy - surgical suturing the liver
    cirrhosis - progressive degnerative liver disease
    hepatectomy - surgical removal of all or part of the liver
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  356. which term describes the inability to control the voiding of urine under physical stress such as running, sneezing, laughing or coughing?

    A. urge incontinence
    B. overactive bladder
    C. stress incontinence
    D. micturition
    C. stress incontinence

    micturition-aka voiding aka urination, normal process of excreting urine
    overactive bladder- (OAB) aka urge incontinence, occurs when the detrusor muscle in the wall of the bladder is too active
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  357. which condition is the abnormal narrowing of the tube that carries urine out of the body?

    A. urethrostenosis
    B. urethrostomy
    C. ureterostenosis
    D. urinary retention
    A. urethrostenosis

    ureterostenosis - abnormal narrowing of the ureters
    urethrostomy- the surgical creating of a permanent opening between the urethra and the skin
    urinary retention- the inability to empty the bladder
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  358. which sudden onset condtion is characterized by uremia?

    A. end-stage renal disease
    B. chronic renal failure
    C. nephrotic syndrome
    D. acute renal failure
    D. acute renal failure

    chronic renal failure -the progressive loss of renal function, sometimes leading to uremia
    end-stage renal disease - ESRD refers to the late stages of chronic renal failure in which there is irreversible loss of the function of both kidneys
    nephrotic syndrome - a condition in which very high levels of protein are lost in the urine and abnormally low levels of protein are preesnt in the blood
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  359. which term describes the presence of abnormally high concentrations of protein in the urine?

    A. hyperproteinuria
    B. hypolipidemia
    C. hyperlipidemia
    D. hypoproteinemia
    A. hyperproteinuria
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  360. which procedure is the removal of a kidney stone thru a surgical incision into the kidney?

    a. lithotomy
    b. lithotripsy
    c. nephrolithiasis
    d. nephrolithotomy
    • d. nephrolithotomy
    • nephr/o = kidney

    • lithotomy- a surgical incision for the removal of a stone from the bladder
    • lith = stone
    • -otomy = surgical incision
    • lithotripsy- to crush a stone
    • -tripsy = to crush
    • nephrolithiasis-
  361. an intravenous ___ is a radiographic study of the kidneys and ureters used to diagnose changes in the urinary tract
    • pyelogram
    • pyel/o = renal pelvis
  362. medications administered to increase urine secretion are known as
    diuretics
  363. true/false
    the kidneys are located within the peritoneals membranes of the abdominal cavity
    false

    the two kidneys are located retroperitoneally with one on each side of the vertebral column below the diaphragm
  364. true/false
    the term nephropathy means any disease of the kidney
    true
  365. true/false
    renal colic is caused by inflammation of the kidney
    false

    renal colic is an acute pain in the kidney area that is caused by blockage during the passage of a kidney stone
  366. true/false
    pyeloplasty is the surgical repair of the renal pelvis
    true
  367. true/false
    a female urethra is 10 inches long
    false

    the female urethra is only 1.5 inches long. the male's is appx. 8 (penis)

    the female (and male) ureters are about 10-12
  368. pyelitis

    a. inflammation of the renal pelvis
    b. suppuration of the kidney
    c. inflammation of the renal pelvis and kidney
    d. downward displacement of the kidney
    e. dilation of the renal pelvis
    • a. inflammation of the renal pelvis
    • pyel = renal pelvis
    • -itis = inflammation

    • nephropyosis - suppuration (the formation or discharge of pus) of the kidney
    • pyelonephritis - inflammation of the renal pelvis and kidney
    • nephroptosis - downward displacement of the kidney
    • hydronephrosis -dilation of the renal pelvis
  369. ureterectasis

    a. distention of a ureter
    b. abnormal narrowing of the urethra
    c. bleeding from the ureter
    d. bleeding from the urethra
    e. narrowing of the ureter
    • a. distention of a ureter
    • -ectasis =enlargement

    • urethrostenosis - abnormal narrowing of the urethra
    • ureterorrhagia - bleeding from the ureter
    • urethrorrhagia - bleeding from the urethra
    • ureterostenosis - narrowing of the ureter
  370. ___ is an excessive fear of spiders

    A. arachnophobia
    B. agoraphobia
    C. acrophobia
    D. claustrophobia
    A. arachnophobia

    acrophobia- fear of heights
    agoraphobia- fear of situations in which having a panic attck seems likely and/or embarrassing EXAMPLE: a person who fears leaving the familiar settings of home and going out in public bc social situations may provoke anxiety
    claustrophobia- abnormal fear of being in narrow or enclosed spaces
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  371. a generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by ___

    A. multiple cognitive defects, including memory impairment
    B. persistent intrusive, excessive worry about multiple topics
    C. exaggerated worry and tension even when there is little or nothing to provoke these feelings
    D. a person acting sick when he or she is not really sick
    C. exaggerated worry and tension even when there is little or nothing to provoke these feelings

    factitious disorder - a person acting sick when he or she is not really sick
    learning disabilities - multiple cognitive defects, including memory impairment
    generalized anxiety disorder - persistent intrusive, excessive worry about multiple topics
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  372. which condition is an inflammation of the brain?

    a. encephalitis
    b. encephalomeningitis
    c. meningitis
    d. poliomyelitis
    • a. encephalitis
    • encephal/o = brain

    • meningitis- an inflammation of the meninges of the brain and spinal cords
    • poliomyelitis- aka polio, a highly contagious viral disease
  373. elecated __ pressure (ICP) can be due to a tumor, an injury, or improper drainage of cerebrospinal fluid
    intracranial
  374. the medical term for the prolonged or abnormal inability to sleep is
    insomnia
  375. true/false
    kelptomania is a disorder characterized by the repeated stealing of objects neither for personal use nor for their monetary value
    true
  376. true/false
    delirium tremens is a disorder involving sudden and severe mental changes or seizures caused by abruptly stopping the use of alcohol
    true
  377. true/false
    epilepsy is a chronic neurological condition characterized by recurrent episodes of seizures of varying severity
    true
  378. true/false
    echoencephalography is a diagnostic procedure to record the electrical activity of the brain
    false

    electroencephalography

    echoencephalography is the use of ultrasound imagining to diagnose a shift in the midline structures of the brain
  379. innervation

    A. automatic, involuntary response to some change
    B. supply of nerves to a body part
    C. a space between neurons
    D. provide support and protection for neurons
    E. basic cells of the nervous system
    B. supply of nerves to a body part

    reflex - automatic, involuntary response to some change
    neurons - basic cells of the nervous system
    synapse - a space between neurons
    glial cells - provide support and protection for neurons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  380. pinched nerve

    A. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
    B. Guillain-Barre syndrome
    C. radiculitis
    D. somnambulism
    E. tetanus
    C. radiculitis

    tetanus-aka lockjaw
    somnambulism-aka sleepwalking or noctambulism
    Guillain-Barre syndrome-aka infectious polyneuritis, an inflammation of the myelin sheath of peripheral nerves, characterized by rapidly worsening muscle weakness that can lead to temp. paralysis
    amyotrophic lateral sclerosis-aka Lou Gehrig's disease, a rapidly progressive neurological disease that attacks the nerve cells responsible for controlling voluntary muscles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  381. ___ is a disease in which the amount of fluid in the inner ear increases intermittently, producing attacks of vertigo, a flucuating hearing loss (usually in one ear, and ringing of the ears

    A. meniere's disease
    B. tinnitus
    C. eustachitis
    D. labyrinthitis
    B. meniere's disease

    eustachitis- aka salpingitis, inflammation of the eustachain tube
    labyrinthitis- an inflammation of the labyrinth that can result in vertigo and deafness
    tinnitus-a ringing, buzzing or roaring sound in one or both ears
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  382. which hearing loss is a gradual loss of sensorineural hearing that occurs as the body ages?

    a. conductive
    b. presbycusis
    c. presbyopia
    d. sensorineural
    • b. presbycusis
    • presby = old age
    • -cusis = hearing
  383. which term describes the state of balance?

    A. equilibrium
    B. vertigo
    C. tinnitus
    D. homeostasis
    A. equilibrium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  384. a ringing, buzzing, or roaring sound in one or both ears is known as
    tinnitus
  385. true/false
    the choroid is aka the white of the eye
    false

    sclera

    the choroid is aka choroid coat, the opaque middle layer of the eyeball that contains many blood vessels and provides the blood supply for the entire eye
  386. true/false
    the malleus is one of the auditory ossicles
    true
  387. true/false
    the anterior chamber of the eye is located behind the cornea and in front of the iris
    true
  388. true/false
    the semicircular canals provide drainage within the eye to control intraocular pressure
    false

    the semicircular canals are for the ears
  389. true/false
    the function of the lacrimal fluid is to maintain moisture on the anterior surface of the eyeball
    true
  390. pupil

    A. where the upper and lower eyelids meet
    B. eyelashes
    C. the muscular layer surrounding the pupil
    D. the opening permitting light to enter the eye
    E. the curved structure that focuses images
    D. the opening permitting light to enter the eye
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  391. epicanthus

    A. where the eyelids meet nearest the nose
    B. vertical skin folds on either side of the nose
    C. the vascular layer of the eye
    D. appendages or accessory structures of an organ
    E. where the eyelids meet on the outside of the eye
    B. vertical skin folds on either side of the nose

    inner canthus where the eyelids meet nearest the nose
    outer canthus where the eyelids meet on the outside of the eye
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  392. presby/o

    A. hearing
    B. old age
    C. hard, white of eye
    D. vision condition
    E. hard, cornea
    B. old age

    kerat/o hard, cornea
    scler hard, white of eye
    aur hearing
    -opia vision condition
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  393. true/false
    sclerotherapy is used to remove scaly patches
    false

    sclerotherapy is used in the treatment of spider veins
  394. which term means an infestation with head lice?

    a. pediculosis capitis
    b. pediculosis pubis
    c. pediculosis corporis
    d. pediculosis pedis
    • a. pediculosis capitis
    • pedicul/o = lice
    • -osis = abnormal condition

    • capitis = head
    • corporis = body
    • pubis = pubic hair and pubic region
    • pedis = feet
  395. the benign skin growth that has a waxy or "pasted on" looked and occurs more commonly among the elderly is known as seborrheic
    keratosis
  396. true/false
    blephaoplasty is commonly known as a facelift
    false

    • blepha/o = eyelids
    • rhytidectomy = facelift
    • rhytid = wrinkle
  397. true/false
    a port-wine stain is removed using short pulses of laser light
    true
  398. keloid

    A. abnormally raised scar
    B. skin growth that hangs by a fine stalk
    C. mushroom-like growth on mucous membrane
    D. wart
    E. benign fatty deposit under the skin
    A. abnormally raised scar

    lipoma benign fatty deposit under the skin
    skin tags skin growth that hangs by a fine stalk
    verrucae wart
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  399. the common skin condition in which there is an overproduction of sebum is known as
    seborrhea
  400. true/false
    liposuction is the surgical removal of fat beneath the skin with the aid of suction
    true
  401. true/false
    a pressure sore is an ulcerated area in which prolonged pressure has caused tissue death
    true
  402. the technique of scraping cells from the tissue to be examined under a microscope is known as ____ cytology
    exfolitive
  403. urticaria

    A. aka warts
    B. aka scab
    C. aka itching
    D. aka blister
    E. aka hives
    E. hives

    pruritus aka itching
    verrucae aka warts
    crust aka scab
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  404. which condition is a raised birthmark made up of newly formed blood vessels?

    A. strawberry hemagioma
    B. ecchymosis
    C. hematoma
    D. port-wine stain
    A. strawberry hemagioma

    hematoma- a swelling of clotted blood trapped in the tissue usually caused by an injury
    port-wine stain- a large, reddish-purple discoloration of the face or neck
    ecchymosis- aka bruise
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  405. which condition is a localized skin infection caused by staphylococcal infection around the hair follicles or sebaceous glands?

    A. abscess
    B. furuncle
    C. cellulitis
    D. ichthyosis
    B. furuncle

    cellulitis- an acute, rapidly spreading infection within the connective tissues that is characterized by malaise, swelling, warmth and read streaks
    abscess-a closed pocket containing pus that is caused by bacterial infection
    ichthyosis-a group of hereditary disorders characterized by dry, thickend and scaly skin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  406. ___ is the destruction or elimination of abnormal tissue cells, such as warts, or tumors, thru the application of extreme cold by using liquid nitrogen

    A. mohs' surgery
    B. chemabrasion
    C. cryosurgery
    D. cauterization
    C. cryosurgery
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  407. seborrheic dermatits

    A. lesion formed by the buildup of sebum
    B. overproduction of sebum
    C. cyst containing yellow, fatty material
    D. benign, flesh colored skin growth
    E. skin inflammation due to over production of sebum
    E. skin inflammation due to over production of sebum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  408. the medical term meaning excessively dry skin is
    xeroderma
  409. the modified sebaceous glands that produce milk are known as ___ glands
    mammory
  410. anhidrosis

    A. excessive sweating
    B. heat rash
    C. production and excretion of sweat
    D. profuse sweating
    E. lacking sweat
    E. lacking sweat
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  411. which condition is often an indication of iron-deficiency anemia?

    A. onychocryptosis
    B. clubbing
    C. onychomycosis
    D. koilonychia
    D. koilonychia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  412. melan/o

    A. white
    B. black
    C. nail
    D. sweat
    E. dry
    B. black
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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