Gerry; Study guide; 12/14/10

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Gerry; Study guide; 12/14/10
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  1. These persons should be educated about the effects of the static magnetic field, especially in high field superconducting magnets.
    a. the nursing staff and the code team
    b. the house keeping staff and the fire department
    c. the anesthesiology and respiratory therapy department
    d. a,b, and c
    D The nursing staff and the code team,the house keeping staff and the fire department,the anesthesiology and respiratory therapy department
  2. Family members and ancillary personnel accompanying the patient into the scan room __________________
    a. need not be screened as they are not to undergo MR imaging
    b. can enter the scan room to check on the patient but cannot stay for the procedure
    c. should be screened as if they are having the procedure themselves
    d. must wear a lead apron during the procedure
    C Should be screened as if they are having the procedure themselves
  3. The following items are usually allowed to enter the scan room in high magnetic field systems.
    a. surgical stainless steel hemostats
    b. surgical stainless steel scissors
    c. Bronze tools
    d. all of the above
    C Bronze tools
  4. It is good practice for all patients that undergo MRI to be ___ monitored
    a. visually and/or verbally
    b. ECG
    c. Respiratory
    d. Not
    A visually and/or verbally
  5. Patients who may require additional monitoring during an MRI procedure include
    a. Unresponsive and uncommunicative patients
    b. Sedated, psychiatric and pediatric
    c. Patients who have weak voices and/or impaired hearing
    d. A and b
    e. A, b, and C
    E Unresponsive and uncommunicative patients,Sedated, psychiatric and pediatric and patients who have weak voices and/or impaired hearing
  6. Absolute contraindications for MRI include________________.
    a. Cardiac pacemaker
    b. Pregnancy
    c. Ferrous intravascular aneurysm clips
    d. A, & C
    D Cardiac pacemaker,Ferrous intravascular aneurysm clips
  7. Before a patient enters the MRI environment they should be screened for
    a. Prior injuries
    b. Prior surgical implants
    c. Pregnancy
    d. All of the above
    D Prior injuries, Prior surgical implants,pregnancy
  8. When used for MR imaging, cables from RF coils and ECG leads should be _________________.
    a. Thermally and electrically isolated
    b. laying along the patients right arm along the bore
    c. formed into loops within the imager
    d. neatly coiled and ready for use
    A Thermally and electrically isolated
  9. Passive magnetic shielding can be achieved by lining the MR room with _________________.
    a. Copper
    b. Steel
    c. Lead
    d. None of the above
    B Steel
  10. Contraindications for using gadolinium include
    a. Sickle cell crisis and hypertension
    b. Anorexia and pregnancy
    c. High BUN and low creatinine
    d. Hemalytic anomalies and lactating mothers
    e. None known
    E None known
  11. Precautions for the use of gadolinium include:
    a. Sickle cell crisis and hypertension
    b. Pregnancy
    c. Low GFR
    d. Hemalytic anomalies and lactating mothers
    e. Prior contrast reactions
    f. Patient’s with a history of asthma or allergies
    i. A, and B
    ii. C, and E
    iii. B, C, E, F
    iv. All of the above
    iii Pregnancy, Low GFR, Prior contrast reactions, Patient’s with a history of asthma or allergies
  12. During a quench, patients and operators should be evacuated from the room to avoid ________________.
    a. asphyxiation and frostbite
    b. sub-arachnoid hemorrhage
    c. ruptured tympanic membranes
    d. a and c
    e. e. all of the above
    D Asphyxiation and frostbite, ruptured tympanic membranes
  13. The predominant biological effect of radiofrequency fields is ______.
    a. induced voltages
    b. tissue heating
    c. hypothermia
    d. All of the above
    B Tissue heating
  14. In the United States the FDA limits the allowable amount of radiofrequency absorption to _________________.
    a. 0.4 w/kg
    b. 4 w/kg
    c. 2 w/kg
    d. there is no FDA limit
    B 4 w/kg
  15. RF heating is more of a concern in ____________ imaging sequences
    a. Gradient Echo
    b. Echo planar imaging
    c. Spin Echo
    d. Fast Spin Echo
    B Fast Spin Echo
  16. The unit of measure of radiofrequency absorption is known as the:
    a. Sensitive Acquisition Range (SAR)
    b. Specific Absorption Rate (SAR)
    c. Susceptibility Attack Region (SAR)
    d. none of the above
    B Specific Absorption Rate (SAR)
  17. The unit of measure of radiofrequency absorption is measured in _____________.
    a. watts per pound
    b. volts per pound
    c. watts per kilogram
    d. volts per kilogram
    C Watts per kilogram
  18. The FDA limits the effect of RF absorption as an increase in core body temperature to _________.
    a. 0.10C
    b. 10C
    c. 100F
    d. there is no limit
    B 10C
  19. Radio Frequency energy is
    a. High energy ionizing radiation
    b. High energy non-ionizing radiation
    c. Low energy non-ionizing radiation
    d. Low energy ionizing radiation
    C Low energy non-ionizing radiation
  20. As the flip angle is doubled RF deposition increases by a factor of
    a. One
    b. Two
    c. Three
    d. Four
    D 4
  21. The field strength at isocenter is measured in units of _________.
    a. Gauss
    b. Tesla
    c. Watts
    d. SAR
    B Tesla
  22. Magnetic field strength outside the imager is usually measured in
    a. Gauss
    b. Tesla
    c. Watts
    d. SAR
    A Gauss
  23. The force that a projectile will be attracted to the isocenter of the system is dependent upon
    a. The ferromagnetic properties of the object
    b. The mass of the object
    c. The field strength of the MRI unit
    d. All of the above
    D The ferromagnetic properties of the object,The mass of the object, The field strength of the MRI unit
  24. Imagers with less of a concern for fringe fields are
    a. Mid-field superconducting imagers
    b. Low field resistive imagers
    c. High field superconducting imagers that are shielded
    d. Low field permanent imagers
    D Low field permanent imagers
  25. A magnetic field strength of 1 Tesla is equal to
    a. 1000 G
    b. 10,000 G
    c. 100,000 G
    d. 1 G
    B 10,000 G
  26. A method that is acceptable for the detection of intra-ocular ferrous foreign bodies is:
    a. CT
    b. MRI
    c. Plain film
    d. Visual examination
    C Plain film
  27. A method that is more accurate in the detection of small intra-ocular ferrous foreign bodies is:
    a. CT
    b. MRI
    c. Plain film
    d. Visual examination
    A CT
  28. The following statements are all true concerning T1 recovery except
    a. T1 recovery may also be called spin lattice recovery
    b. T1 recovery happens from nuclei giving up its energy to the surrounding tissue.
    c. T1 recovery is the result of nuclei interacting with each other causing dephasing.
    d. Results from nuclei re-growing longitudinal magnetization.
    C T1 recovery is the result of nuclei interacting with each other causing dephasing.
  29. Intravenous injections of Gadolinium contrast agents are considered an indication in MRI for
    a. Pediatric imaging
    b. Abdominal imaging
    c. The Central Nervous System
    d. A, b, and C
    D Pediatric imaging, abdominal imaging, The Central Nervous System
  30. The percentage of patients reported to have reactions to gadolinium contrast agents are:
    a. Less than 1%
    b. 10%
    c. 5%
    d. 20 %
    A Less than 1%
  31. Patients who are at an increased risk of mild reactions to gadolinium are patients with
    a. A history of asthma and or allergies
    b. Prior contrast reactions
    c. No known medical history
    d. A and B
    e. A, B, and C
    • D History of asthma and or allergies
    • Prior contrast reactions
  32. For optimum operation of the MRI systems, the ambient temperature and relative humidity should remain between
    a. 300F and 500F/30% and 50%
    b. 650F and 750F/30% and 50%
    c. 700F and 500F/90% and 50%
    d. None specified
    B 650F and 750F/30% and 50%
  33. The FDA limit for the static field is____. (For clinical imaging for patients to include: babies over one month of age, children and adults.)
    a. 2.0 T
    b. 3.0 T
    c. 4.0 T
    d. 8.0 T
    D 8.0 T
  34. Patient screening in MRI should be performed____________________.
    a. Once (complete the form only)
    b. Once by anyone
    c. More than once, by anyone
    d. More than once, by trained professional
    D More than once, by trained professional
  35. It is _____ for all patients to be provided with hearing protection in the form of _______.
    a. Required / headphones or earplugs
    b. Recommended / headphones or earplugs
    c. Required / head coil
    d. Recommended / helmet
    B Recommended / headphones or earplugs
  36. The general public is limited to a magnetic field of
    a. 5 gauss
    b. 10 gauss
    c. 15 gauss
    d. There is not limit
    A 5 gauss
  37. The gradient magnetic fields
    a. produce heat in the gradient coils during the scan
    b. can produce noise to cause temporary hearing loss
    c. change rapidly during the scanning process
    d. all of the above
    D produce heat in the gradient coils during the scan,can produce noise to cause temporary hearing loss, change rapidly during the scanning process
  38. Increasing the number of signal average (NSA)
    a. Increases SNR by the square root of the increase
    b. Decreases the SNR by the square root of the decrease
    c. Not affect the SNR
    d. Increase the scan time
    A Increases SNR by the square root of the increase
  39. When a patient is placed within the bore of a magnetic resonance imager, there can be an effect noted on the ECG whereby there is an elevated “T” wave. This “effect” has several names and can be known as all EXCEPT
    a. Magnetohydrodynamic effect
    b. Magnet-hydrodynamic effect
    c. Magnet-hemodynamic effect
    d. Magnetophosphenes
    D Magnetophosphenes
  40. The “effect” whereby the patient experiences a visual stimulation, that gives the impression as if they are seeing “stars in their eyes”, is known as ____________.
    a. Magnetohydrodynamic effect
    b. Magnet-hydrodynamic effect
    c. Magnet-hemodynamic effect
    d. Magnetophosphenes
    D Magnetophosphenes
  41. The FDA limit on time varying magnetic fields is __________.
    a. 10 G/cm
    b. 6T / sec.
    c. 1G/cm
    d. Until the patient experiences peripheral nerve stimulation.
    D Until the patient experiences peripheral nerve stimulation.
  42. (TVMF) time varied magnetic field effects include all of the following EXCEPT
    A Heat & increased body temperature
  43. The following scan sequences are of greater concern for TVMF effects ___________________.
    a. FSE
    b. EPI
    c. GE
    d. SE
    B EPI
  44. RF shielding can be achieved by lining the scanner room walls with
    a. Copper
    b. Steal
    c. Lead
    d. None of the above
    A Copper
  45. The strength of the gradient magnetic fields are measured in
    a. Millitesla per metre
    b. Watts per kilogram
    c. Gauss per centimeter
    d. A and C
    • D Millitesla per metre
    • Gauss per centimeter
  46. The gradient rise time is defined as
    a. The time it takes for the gradient to reach it’s full amplitude
    b. The time to takes for one TR to occur
    c. The time the gradients are on during a TR period
    d. How much the gradient changes the magnetic field over a specific distance
    A The time it takes for the gradient to reach it’s full amplitude
  47. The duty cycle is
    a. The time it takes for the gradient to reach it’s full amplitude
    b. The time to takes for one TR to occur
    c. The time the gradients are on during a TR period
    d. How much the gradient changes the magnetic field over a specific distance
    C The time the gradients are on during a TR period
  48. Magnetic field inhomogenity is expressed in
    a. Parts per million
    b. Watts per kilogram
    c. Rise time
    d. Gauss per centimeter
    A Parts per million
  49. Areas of the body that do not dissipate heat from SAR efficiently are
    a. Face and neck
    b. Brain and abdomen
    c. Eyes and testicles
    d. None of the above
    C Eyes and testicles
  50. Of the following implants which would be considered acceptable to scan by MRI
    a. Ferrous aneurysms clips
    b. Neurostimulators
    c. Cardiac pacemakers
    d. Heart valves
    D Heart valves
  51. Which chamber of the heart does the pulmonary vein rise from?
    a. Left ventricle
    b. Right Atrium
    c. Left Atrium
    d. Right Ventricle
    C Left Atrium
  52. The most anterior chamber of the heart is the
    a. Left ventricle
    b. Right Atrium
    c. Left Atrium
    d. Right Ventricle
    D Right ventricle
  53. The most posterior chamber of the heart is the
    a. Left ventricle
    b. Right Atrium
    c. Left Atrium
    d. Right Ventricle
    C Left atrium
  54. The chamber of the heart with the thickest myocardium is the
    a. Left ventricle
    b. Right Atrium
    c. Left Atrium
    d. Right Ventricle
    A Left Ventricle
  55. The _____ is the valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the left atrium from the left ventricle
    a. Tricuspid valve
    b. Bicuspid valve
    c. Semilunar valves
    d. Your Momma
    B Bicuspid valve
  56. What vessels are demonstrated on a midline Sagittal view of the heart and chest?
    a. Ascending aorta and the pulmonary vein
    b. Ascending and descending aorta
    c. Descending aorta and the pulmonary vein
    d. Ascending aorta and the carotid artery
    B Ascending and descending aorta
  57. What is the best view to demonstrate the median nerve of the wrist?
    a. Axial
    b. Coronal Oblique
    c. Sagittal Oblique
    d. Oblique
    A Axial
  58. Which arteries join together to form the basilar artery?
    a. The internal carotid arteries
    b. The common carotid arteries
    c. The vertebral arteries
    d. Posterior cerebral arteries
    C The vertebral arteries
  59. The pituitary stalk may also be called
    a. Infidibulum
    b. Optic nerve
    c. Thalmus
    d. None of the above
    A Infidibulum
  60. In which vessel is the blood flow the fastest?
    a. Ascending aorta
    b. Descending aorta
    c. Common carotid
    d. IVC
    A Ascending aorta
  61. Compared to CT which is limited in MR imaging?
    a. Cortical bone
    b. Flowing blood
    c. Recurrent tumors
    d. Soft tissue structures
    A Cortical bone
  62. The prostate is located _____ and _____ to the bladder.
    a. Superior, anterior
    b. Inferior, anterior
    c. Superior, posterior
    d. Inferior, posterior
    D Inferior, posterior
  63. What is the best view to demonstrate the Achilles tendon?
    a. Coronal Oblique
    b. Sagittal
    c. Coronal
    d. Axial
    B Sagittal
  64. What is the best view to demonstrate the hippocampus region?
    a. Sagittal
    b. Axial
    c. Coronal
    d. Sagittal oblique
    C Coronal
  65. What is the best view to demonstrate the carotid bifurcation?
    a. Axial
    b. Sagittal
    c. Coronal
    d. Oblique
    D Oblique
  66. What muscle is mostly associated with rotator cuff injury?
    a. Supraspinatus
    b. Infraspinatus
    c. Supscapularis
    d. Teres minus
    A Supraspinatus
  67. Structures seen in Cholangiopancreatography include?
    a. Bile duct, pancreatic duct, gallbladder
    b. Kidney, adrenal gland. Gallbladder
    c. gallbladder, bile duct, liver
    d. Bile duct, kidney, pancreatic duct
    A Bile duct, pancreatic duct, gallbladder
  68. The portal vein is a combination of three vessels which are
    a. IVC
    b. Splenic vein
    c. Superior mesenteric vein
    d. Inferior mesenteric vein
    i. A only
    ii. B and C
    iii. A, B, and C
    iv. B, C, and D
    iv Splenic vein,Superior mesenteric vein, and the inferior mesenteric vein
  69. Where does avascular necrosis mostly occur?
    a. Femoral head
    b. Femoral neck
    c. Greater trochanter
    d. Lesser trochanter
    A Femoral head
  70. Where do the coronary arteries originated from?
    a. The aortic root
    b. Left ventricle
    c. Left atrium
    d. Aortic arch
    A The aortic root
  71. The pituitary gland lies in the
    a. Pituitary stalk
    b. Sella tursica
    c. Cavernous sinus
    d. Spenoid sinus
    B Sella tursica
  72. What dural sinus runs from occipital tubercle to mastoid air-cell?
    a. Inferior sagittal sinus
    b. Confluence of sinus
    c. Sigmoid sinus
    d. Transverse Sinus
    D Transverse Sinus
  73. What structure is adjacent to the head of the caudate nucleus
    a. Thalmus
    b. Anterior horn of the lateral ventricle
    c. Pons
    d. Posterior horn of the lateral ventricle
    B Anterior horn of the lateral ventricle
  74. What is the most inner lining of the uterus?
    a. Perimetrium
    b. Myometrium
    c. Endometrium
    d. cervix
    C Endometrium
  75. Which is the largest tendon in the body?
    a. Biceps Tendon
    b. Achilles tendon
    c. The extensor tendon of the third digit of the hand.
    d. The deltoid tendon.
    B Achilles tendon
  76. Where would center for an islet cell tumor?
    a. Kidney’s
    b. Liver
    c. Bladder
    d. Pancreas
    D Pancreas
  77. Where would you center for a Wilms Tumor?
    a. Kidney’s
    b. Liver
    c. Bladder
    d. Pancreas
    A Kidney’s
  78. In the Temporal Mandibular Joint, the articular disc is between which two structures?
    a. Glenoid fossa and the madibular condyle
    b. Mandibular condyle and the mandibular fossa.
    c. Coronoid process and the mandibular condyle.
    d. Corocoid process and the mandibular condyle.
    B Mandibular condyle and the mandibular fossa.
  79. Which nerve is responsible for carpal tunnel syndrome?
    a. Cranial nerve V.
    b. The median nerve.
    c. The ulnar nerve.
    d. The radial nerve.
    B The median nerve.
  80. The Insula is responsible for
    a. Personality
    b. Peripheral sensations
    c. Vision
    d. Motory and sensory functions
    D Motory and sensory functions
  81. What cranial nerve is responsible for Bells palsy (shaking)?
    a. CN VII (facial nerve)
    b. CN VIII (vistibulocochlear nerve)
    c. CN VI (Abducens nerve)
    d. None of the above
    A CN VII (facial nerve)
  82. To best visualize the internal auditory canal (IAC’s) high resolution images should be acquired in the
    a. Sagittal and coronal planes
    b. Axial and coronal planes
    c. Axial and sagittal planes
    d. Sagittal, axial, and coronal planes
    B Axial and coronal planes
  83. Where would you center to image the 7th and 8th cranial nerves
    a. Glabella
    b. Nasion
    c. External auditory meatus
    d. Acanthion
    C External auditory meatus
  84. The sinuses that drain into the internal jugular vein are the
    a. Superior sagittal sinus
    b. Inferior sagittal sinus
    c. Transverse sinuses
    d. Sigmoid sinus
    D Sigmoid sinus
  85. What structures make up the brain stem?
    1. Cerebellar tonsils
    2. Thalmus
    3. Midbrain
    4. Pons
    5. Medulla oblongata
    A. 1 and 4
    B. 1, 4, and 5
    C. 4 and 5
    D. 3, 4, and 5
    D Midbrain, Pons, and Medulla oblongata
  86. In the neck the carotid arteries bifurcate at what level
    a. C1 to C3
    b. C3 to C5
    c. T1 to T3
    d. T3 to T5
    B C3 to C5
  87. What are three vessels that arise from the aorta?
    1) Brachiocephalic artery
    2) Left common carotid artery
    3) Left Subclavian artery
    4) Right Vertebral artery
    a. 1 and 2
    b. 4 only
    c. 1, 2, and 4
    d. 1, 2, and 3
    D Brachiocephalic artery,Left common carotid artery, and Left Subclavian artery
  88. Abdominal organs that lie in the retroperitoneum include
    a. Kidneys and adrenals
    b. Liver and spleen
    c. Pancreas and gall bladder
    d. None of the above
    A Kidneys and adrenals
  89. Where would you center for a patient with incontinence?
    a. Cervical spine
    b. Thoracic spine
    c. Thoraco lumbar region
    d. External auditory meatus
    B Thoraco lumbar region
  90. Structures that will always appear black on an MR image include
    i. Air
    ii. Enhancing lesions
    iii. CSF
    iv. Cortical bone
    v. Tendons and ligaments
    vi. Metallic artifacts
    a. i only
    b. i and v only
    c. I, ii, iv, and vi
    d. i, iv, v, and vi
    D Air, Cortical bone, Tendons and ligaments, and Metallic artifacts
  91. In order to acquire a coronal oblique view of the shoulder, slices should be prescribed parallel to
    a. Glenal humeral joint
    b. Coracoid process
    c. Surpaspinatus Muscle
    d. Both a and c
    C Surpaspinatus Muscle
  92. To center for a shoulder MRI the patient should be land marked at
    a. Coronoid process
    b. The corocoid process
    c. The humeral head
    d. Glenoid labrum
    B The corocoid process
  93. In a routine brain MRI examination the technologist should center at the
    a. Glabella
    b. Nasion
    c. Midbrain
    d. VII cranial nerve
    B Nasion
  94. After the injection of gadolinium in the lumbar spine what will enhance with contrast first
    a. The lamina
    b. The thecal sac
    c. Recurrent disc
    d. Scar tissue
    D Scar tissue
  95. Arnold Chiari malformation is when
    a. The cerebellar tonsils protrude through the foramen magnum.
    b. The pons protrudes through the foramen magnum
    c. The cerebellar tonsils do not protrude through the foramen magnum.
    d. The conus does not detach from the sacrum.
    A The cerebellar tonsils protrude through the foramen magnum.
  96. When the third ventricle is dilated and the fourth ventricle is not, there is a pathology associated with
    a. Lateral ventricles
    b. Aqueduct of sylvius
    c. The foramen magnum
    d. The fourth ventricle
    B Aqueduct of sylvius
  97. The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
    a. Spleen
    b. Pancreas
    c. Liver
    d. Right Kidney
    B Pancreas

  98. The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
    a. ascending aorta
    b. inferior vena cava
    c. abdominal aorta
    d. thoracic aorta
    C Abdominal aorta

  99. The structure that the arrow labeled “B” is pointing to is the
    a. ascending aorta
    b. inferior vena cava
    c. abdominal aorta
    d. thoracic aorta
    B Inferior vena cava

  100. The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
    a. Pubic symphasis
    b. bladder
    c. prostate gland
    d. rectum
    C prostate gland

  101. The physical gradient used to acquire this slice was the
    a. X gradient
    b. Y gradient
    c. Z gradient
    d. A combination of the Y and Z gradient
    A X gradient

  102. Tthe structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
    a. Ischium
    b. Gluteus muscles
    c. Psosas muscles
    d. Sacrum
    B Gluteus muscles

  103. The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
    a. Greater trochanter
    b. Ischium
    c. Sacrum
    d. Lesser trochanter
    A Greater trochanter

  104. The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
    a. Tibia
    b. Fibula
    c. Distal Femur
    d. Lateral mallelous
    C Distal Femur

  105. The structure that the arrow labeled “B” is pointing to is the
    a. Medial collateral ligament
    b. Posterior horn of the lateral meniscus
    c. Anterior horn of the lateral meniscus
    d. Anterior horn of the medial meniscus
    B Posterior horn of the lateral meniscus

  106. The structure that the arrow labeled “C” is pointing to is the
    a. Medial collateral ligament
    b. Lateral collateral ligament
    c. Patellar tendon
    d. Quadreceps tendon
    D Quadreceps tendon

  107. The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
    a. Medial collateral ligament
    b. Lateral collateral ligament
    c. Anterior cruciate ligament
    d. Posterior cruciate ligament
    C Anterior cruciate ligament

  108. The structure that the arrow labeled “B” is pointing to is the
    a. Medial collateral ligament
    b. Lateral collateral ligament
    c. Anterior cruciate ligament
    d. Posterior cruciate ligament
    D Posterior cruciate ligament

  109. The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
    a. Talur tendon
    b. Subtalor joint
    c. Lateral collateral ligament
    d. Achilles tendon
    D Achilles tendon

  110. Tthe structure that the arrow labeled “B” is pointing to is the
    a. Talur tendon
    b. Subtalar joint
    c. Calcaneous
    d. Talus
    Subtalar joint

  111. The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
    a. Corocoid process
    b. Coronoid process
    c. Olecrenon process
    d. Radial head
    B Coronoid process


  112. The structure that the arrow labeled “B” is pointing to is the
    a. Corocoid process
    b. Coronoid process
    c. Olecrenon process
    d. Radial head
    C Olecrenon process

  113. The structure that the arrow labeled “C” is pointing to is the
    a. Corocoid process
    b. Coronoid process
    c. Olecrenon process
    d. Troclea
    D Troclea

  114. The structure that the arrow labeled “D” is pointing to is the
    a. Triceps muscle
    b. Triceps tendon
    c. Brachialis muscle
    d. Biceps muscle
    A Triceps muscle

  115. The structure that the arrow labeled “E” is pointing to is the
    a. Triceps muscle
    b. Triceps tendon
    c. Brachialis muscle
    d. Biceps muscle
    D Biceps muscle

  116. The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
    a. Sacrum
    b. Coccyx
    c. Prostate
    d. Bladder
    A Sacrum

  117. The structure that the arrow labeled “A” is pointing to is the
    a. Navicular
    b. Scaphoid
    c. Hammate
    d. Pisiform
    C Hammate

  118. The arrow labeled “B” is pointing to is the
    a. Navicular
    b. Scaphoid
    c. Carpal tunnel
    d. Pisiform
    C Carpal tunnel

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