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2010-12-19 00:34:16
CMA Exam Prep

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  1. A pregnant woman in the third trimester presents with swelling of the legs and headaches. Her blood pressure is elevated and urinalysis show 4+ protein. These findings are most consistent with:
  2. The pediatrician tells the parents that their child has a greenstick facture. In layman�s terms, what is a greenstick fracture?
    A partial break that results in one side of the broken bone bending
  3. Osteoporosis:
    Is a condition in which bone resorption exceeds bone deposition
  4. A y oung boy was bitten by a wild dog and contracted rabies. He subsequently suffered from fever, headache, photophobia, and seizures. An MRI showed inflammation of the brain. He is suffering from:
  5. What condition is characterized by shuffling gait, tremors, pill-rolling, and muscular rigidity?
    Parkinson�s disease
  6. A neural tube defect:
    Spina bifida (and anencephaly)
  7. Dermatologic condition caused by bacterial infection:
  8. Pelvic inflammatory disease is managed aggressively because long-term effects can include:
  9. A 21-year-old female is infected by HPV following unprotected sexual intercourse. She is now at higher risk of developing what type of cancer?
  10. A 54-year-old male was recently diagnosed with osteoarthritis. What type of symptoms is he most likely to experience?
    Joint pain
  11. Which disease is characterized by thick, silvery, scaly, erythematous plaques surrounded by normal skin?
  12. A 50-year-old male recently underwent a liver transplant and is taking immunosuppressive drugs. He now has pain and vesicular eruptions on the trunk that follow one nerve line. He reports that he had chickenpox as a child. What is his most likely diagnosis?
    Herpes zoster (shingles)
  13. An 11-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Before treatment he most like experienced:
    Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss
  14. Congenital hypothyroidism that is not managed is a serious concern because of the risk for:
    Mental retardation (and growth failure)
  15. Greaves� disease is an autoimmune disease in which there is excess ________ hormone secretion:
  16. An autoimmune disease that blocks the ACH receptors of the sarcolemma, causing extreme muscle weakness is:
    Myasthenia gravis
  17. What virus causes infectious mononucleosis?
    Epstein-Barr virus
  18. Which of the following STDs is viral?
    • Gonorrhea
    • Chlamydia
    • Syphilis
  19. Which of the following is associated with upper gastrointestinal bleeding?
    • Diverticulosis
    • Demorrhoids
    • Colon cancer
    • Crohn�s disease
  20. What type of disease could result in a mechanical bowel obstruction?
  21. The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis is:
    Projectile vomiting
  22. Infection with Helicobacter pylori is associated with which of the following:
    Peptic ulcer disease
  23. A patient presents with McBurney�s point tenderness, a high leukocyte count, fever, and vomiting. What does this patient most likely have?
  24. A 28-year-old female presents with severe chest pain and shortness of breath. She is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism, which most likely originated from the:
    Deep veins of the leg
  25. The most common cause of pulmonary edema is:
    Left heart failure (at the left ventricle)
  26. A 53-year-old male with a 20-year history of smoking is diagnosed with emphysema. He is having difficulty breathing because of:
    Destruction of alveolar septa
  27. A 30-year-old male prison inmate contracted tuberculosis during an outbreak. He may transmit the disease to others through:
    Respiratory droplets
  28. A 25-year-old female is diagnosed with urinary tract obstruction. She has not urinated for 36 hours. A renal ultrasound shows:
  29. A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Which lab values would be most consistent with this diagnosis?
    Elevated plasma creatinine level
  30. Hearing loss caused by stiffening of the bones of the middle ear is called:
  31. Elisabeth Kubler-Ross� 5 stages of greif:
    • Denial
    • Anger
    • Bargaining
    • Depression
    • Acceptance
  32. Which defense mechanism would a person be displaying by blaming her health problems on her troubled relationship rather than admitting to depression as the cause?
  33. In young adulthood (ages 19-40), when there is a reappraisal of one�s life, which one of Erikson�s theories applies?
    Intimacy vs. isolation
  34. A terminally ill patient states, �I am not really sick; I am just having a bad day.� This patient is most likely in which stage of dying, according to Elisabeth Kubler-Ross?
  35. Which of the following statements about the elderly is FALSE?
    • Alzheimer�s disease is more common in the elderly than in young people
    • The elderly experience thin and saggin skin
    • Presbyopia is common among the elderly
    • Elderly men have difficulty achieving and maintaining erections
  36. Which is the most common psychiatric disorder in the elderly?
    • Personality disorder
    • Alzheimer�s disease anxiety
    • Schizophrenia
  37. Which of the following does Maslow say is the most basic human need that needs to be met before any others?
    • Sex
    • Money
    • Respect
    • Love
  38. Who provided the foundation for the modern study of psychology?
  39. Which of the following is NOT a part of FREUD�S structure of personality?
    • Id
    • Ego
    • Superego
    • According to Freud, which of the following is a function of the ego?
    • Morality
    • Pleasure
    • Aggression
    • Sexuality
  40. A previously toilet-trained child is hospitalized and then begins wetting the bed again. This is an example of which defense mechanism?
  41. Maslow�s Hierarchy of Human Needs is based on the concept that:
    There is a progression of human needs
  42. People use unconscious behaviors to protect themselves from guilt or shame. These are called:
    Defense mechanisms
  43. A mother gives her child expensive gifts to make up for not spending enough time with him. Which defense mechanism does this example describe?
  44. When conducting a patient history, what type of listening behaviors will be most effective?
  45. A patient in the medical office suffers from loss of memory. A technique useful in communicating with this patient is to:
    Direct the patient to perform one task at a time
  46. A 4-year-old is in the office for allergy testing. The BEST way to prepare the child for this procedure is to:
    Use role-playing to demonstrate the procedure to the child.
  47. The MA may repeat back a patient�s statements as a way to encourage open communication. Which technique is this?
  48. The MA will restate, reflect, or seek clarification of the patient�s statements to encourage effective communication. This is referred to as:
  49. A nonverbal method of displaying openness to communication would be:
    Leaning forward, with eyes focused on the communicator
  50. Three of the elements required for communication to occur are:
    Message, sender, receiver
  51. Which of the following is the best way to teach a patient how to perform a procedure themselves, such as changing a dressing?
    • Intnernet website
    • Brochure
    • Verbal description
    • Video description
    • Video tape
  52. The relationship between an employee and employees, co-workers, and patients is influenced by a number of personal traits. Which of the following is most important?
    • Genuineness
    • Empathy with others� problems
    • Respect
  53. Questions that can be answered with yes or no are called:
    Closed-ended questions
  54. Law that is based on prior rulings from a court is:
    Common law
  55. HIPAA provides standards for the interchange of electronic data to protect the privacy and confidentiality of electronically stored and transmitted health information. One of the goals of HIPAA is NOT:
    • To increase the reliability of shared data
    • To reduce fraud
    • To accelerate processes and reduce paperwork
    • To improve tracking of health information
  56. Confidential medical records on the office computer. To maintain patient confidentiality, the MA should NEVER:
    • Share their personal computer password with co-workers
    • Leave the computer unsecured during lunch break or at the end of the day
    • Print out confidential information without monitoring the print function
  57. An effective tool to ensure patient confidentiality would be to:
    Provide independent verification of a fax number before faxing confidential data
  58. Which of the following actions may be performed using a patient�s implied consent?
    • Donation of organs after death
    • A blood transfusion
    • Release of medical records
    • Gallbladder surgery
  59. A patient has had open heart surgery and is in a coma. The patient�s spouse brings suit against the physician, alleging that the patient was not informed of the possible complications from use of general anesthesia. The suit will be filed on the following basis:
    • Malfeasance
    • Misfeasance
    • Nonfeasance
  60. Malfeasance is one form of:
  61. Which of the following is NOT a felony under the law?
    • Assault
    • Rape
    • Murder
    • Embezzlement
    • TORT
  62. An expressed contract is:
    In writing
  63. In what instance is consent NOT required?
    In an emergency situation
  64. What may be found in an advance directive?
    Medical power of attorney
  65. The testimony provided in a sworn, pretrial setting is:
    A deposition
  66. The doctrine respondeat superior applies to:
    The responsibility of the physician for his or her actions as well as staff members
  67. The MA sees an apparent conflict between ethics and patient confidentiality in a situation not covered under the law. The MA should:
    Refer the conflict to the physician for his or her decision
  68. The reasonable person rule compares an action with one that would be performed by a prudent and reasonable person under similar circumstances. Failure to act in this manner would constitute:
  69. By law, the physician MUST report:
    • Births
    • Deaths
    • Communicable diseases
    • Suspected abuse
  70. Which of the following is NOT a part of the Patient Bill of Rights?
    • The right to privacy notices
    • A reasonable response from the physician when medical services are requestesd
    • The right to refuse treatment under circumstances prescribed by law
  71. A minor child comes into the medical office for immunizations required by the school. The medical assistant notices bruising on the patient and suspects child abuse. The appropriate first step for the MA is to:
    Notify the physician privately of your concern
  72. The standard envelope size for general business correspondence is:
    No. 10
  73. The appointment book of a medical office is set up by crossing off all times that will not be used for patient visits. This is known as setting up a:
  74. The file that is inserted on the shelf when a medical record is in use is an:
    Out guide
  75. The use of electronic mail has one major disadvantage, which is that it:
    Is not secure
  76. The medical office has been cited for storing boxes of medical supplies in front of an emergency exit. The agency or person citing this infraction is:
    The local fire inspection agency
  77. The medical office will maintain referral information for the convenience of patients. This will include referral information for:
    • Drug and alcohol abuse counselors
    • Agencies providing financial aid to the needy
    • Legal services
  78. Certified mail is special handling for which classification of mail?
    First-class mail
  79. The most appropriate when processing the daily mail is to:
    Date stamp each item
  80. Which type of insurance pays benefits when an accident or serious illness results in loss of pay?
    Disability insurance
  81. Business correspondence and postcards are mailed by:
    First-class mail
  82. A multi-physician medical practice uses two boxes of syringes daily. With each box containing 25 syringes. How many boxes of syringes will need to be ordered each month?
  83. Express mail:
    Is eligible for mailing up to 70 pounds
  84. Water is accidentally left on the floor of the restroom. A patient is asked to provide a urine sample and slips and falls on the wet floor. If the patient brings a lawsuit against the medical office, the insurance policy that will provide protection is:
    General liability
  85. Items such as deeds and wills are valuable documents, but do not have a significant monetary value. The best way to mail this type of document would be using:
    Certified mail
  86. The trial balance of accounts receivable is prepared:
  87. Payments for professional services by cash, check, or credit card are called:
  88. The MA can find information regarding the filing of reports and taxes from the employee�s earnings and employer�s tax contributions in the:
    IRS Employer�s Tax Guide
  89. The MA applies a discount to an unpaid balance on a patient account. This action is referred to as an:
  90. The following ledger entry reduces the balance owed by a patient, but is NOT caused by either a charge for service or a payment:
    • Debit
    • Credit
    • Payable
    • Receivable
  91. A patient is charged $100 for treatment by the physician. The patient pays $60 and the medical office posts an adjustment to reduce the balance due by $15. What is the balance due on this account?
  92. Employers are obligated by law to match which of the following:
  93. The most appropriate statement for use in a collection letter is:
    We will be happy to assist you in making payment arrangements
  94. An emancipated minor sees the physician for a scheduled appointment. The charge for service should be:
    Billed to the patient
  95. A written authorization by the patient that allows direct reimbursement to the physician for billed charges is called:
    Assignment of benefits
  96. The person who is covered by a health plan is the:
  97. A bill is never sent to a patient with the following coverage:
    Worker�s compensation
  98. The insurance company pays a certain percentage of the approved amount, with the patient paying the balance due for medical services. The portion that each pays is called the:
  99. Part A of Medicare provides coverage for:
  100. The mandated claim form to be used for all health insurance claims is the:
  101. The term that describes a fixed payment per month to the physician, regardless of the services rendered, is called a:
    Capitation plan
  102. Before a health plan begins to pay benefits, the patient must pay a certain amount of eligible charges each calendar year. This is called:
  103. A person is diagnosed with a disease before the effective date of the insurance plan. The insurance plan may determine that under the terms of its contract with the patient, it is not required to pay for any changes associated with the disease. This is called a:
    Pre-existing condition
  104. Medicare is a federal health insurance program for:
    Anyone over 65 years of age
  105. Medicare Part B covers:
    Physician office visits
  106. The process of determining whether a service or procedure is covered by the insurance provider is called:
  107. The medical bills of spouses and children of veterans with total, permanent, service connected disabilities are covered under:
  108. To purchase health insurance, the policy holder pays a:
  109. A primary care physician, or PCP, is:
    A physician who agrees to oversee a patient�s care in a managed care plan
  110. When an insurance company will not cover a specific condition or circumstance, this is called an:
  111. Medicare Part C covers:
    Managed care plans in Medicare
  112. Prescription drug coverage is covered under Medicare:
    Part D
  113. Parents may purchase health insurance for their children under which federal plan administered by the individual states?
  114. The coding system used by hospitals to bill for services is known as:
    • DRG
    • HCPCS (durable medical equipment, home health supplies)
  115. The proper code for the term used to describe a cancer that has not invaded neighboring tissue is:
    In situ
  116. CPT stands for:
    Current Procedural Terminology
  117. The primary reason that AMA updates CPT codes annually is:
    Addition for new and revised codes for services rendered.
  118. When is the coding abbreviation NEC (not elsewhere classed) used?
    When information is not known for specific category coding
  119. The appropriate level of E&M coding is determined by all of the elements listed below EXCEPT:
    • Patient history
    • Level of examination
    • Level of presenting problem
    • Complexity of medical decision making
  120. All of the following are associated with procedural coding systems EXCEPT:
    • RBRVS
    • HCPCS
    • *ICD-9*
    • CPT
    • E&M
  121. The concept of RBRVS is used to determine:
    The values of services performed, practice expenses, and professional liability insurance
  122. Dr. Maple is a pediatrician. A patient comes to his office with an ear infection. The patient is also due for a childhood vaccination. The diagnostic codes to be used are:
    382.09 and V03.81
  123. The purpose of medical coding includes:
    • Tracking procedures
    • Track procedures
    • Identifying disease trends
    • Providing data to medical researchers
  124. The term for the cause of disease is:
  125. A patient has been diagnosed with acute appendicitis. The MA coded the insurance form with the number 540.9. The MA was using which of the systems of coding:
  126. Which organization is responsible for producing the CPT code book?
    American Medical Association
  127. A disease or procedure named for a person or place is an:
  128. The most appropriate reference source for locating a code for chronic arthritis:
  129. ICD-9 code books are revised annually to:
    Improve specificity of diagnoses
  130. Dr. Banyon requests the service of Dr. Oak to assist in the evaluation of a patient�s illness. When Dr. Oak bills for services, the code section to be used is:
  131. How many times must a patient visit the physician within a 3-year period for a patient evaluation and management examination to be coded as an established visit, according to CPT coding rules?
  132. During an office visit, the patient receives an immunization. Where is the appropriate code most likely to be found in the ICD-9 book?
  133. What series of CPT codes refers to Evaluation and Management?
  134. The coding system used to document the procedure for removing gallstone is:
  135. The largest of the six major sections of the CPT manual that contains codes from 10000 to 69999: