SGU Histology

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SGU Histology
2010-02-06 18:54:43
SGU Histology Cells tissue nerves Craig

SGU Histology Quiz 1
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  1. What are the two proteins associated with the lipid bilayer?
    • Integral transmembrane protein
    • Peripheral membrane protein

  2. What is present in the external leaflet of the cell membrane, which protects the cell from mechanical and chemical damage?
    Glycocalyx coat (glycolipid and glycoprotein)
  3. Which cells have multiple nuclei?
    Skeletal muscle cells and osteoclasts
  4. Which cells lack nuclei?
    Mammalian erythrocytes
  5. What is the width of the nuclear envelope?
    25 nm
  6. Describe the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope.
    It is studded with ribosomes and continuous with rough endoplasmic reticulum.
  7. Describe the inner membrane of the nuclear envelope.
    It is bound to the membrane proteins and specific sites of chromatin (hetero) are attached to it.
  8. What is the composition of chromatin?
    • Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
    • Basic proteins
    • Histones
    • Nonhistone chromosomal proteins
  9. What type of chromatin is predominant in relatively inactive cells, darker in stains and usually closer to inner nuclear envelope?
  10. What type of chromatin is particularly abundant in active cells, lightly stained and uniformly dispersed?
  11. What is the sex chromosome prominent in neutrophils (WBC) in females?
    Barr Body
  12. What type of cells have a multilobulated nucleus?
  13. What is the function of the nucleolus?
    Synthesis of rRNA and its packaging into precursor of ribosomes.
  14. What cellular structure is prominent in cells that are actively synthesizing protein?
  15. What is the function of ribosomes?
    Protein synthesis.
  16. What are small electron-dense cytoplasmic particles that are 15-25 nm in diameter?
  17. What solution is used for staining cells?
    Hematoxylin (basic) (Nucleus - purplish) and Eosin (acidic) (cytoplasm - red)
  18. What is the function of rough ER?
    Protein synthesis
  19. What is the function of smooth ER?
    Lipid metabolism (synthesis of steroid hormones)
  20. What organelle is involved in drug detoxification and release and recapture of calcium ion during contraction and relaxation of muscles?
    Smooth ER
  21. What can be stained with silver salt or osmium and appears as a black network of cisternae?
    Golgi complex
  22. What are the functions of the golgi complex?
    • Provides site for the accumulation, concentration and packaging of secretory proteins into membrane bound vesicles.
    • Biosynthesis of glycoproteins, glycolipids, phospholipids, and neutral lipids.
  23. How are lysosomes made?
    Lysosomal enzymes are synthesized in the rER and transferred to the golgi complex where the enzymes are modified and packaged as primary lysosomes.
  24. What are lysosomes?
    Membrane-bound vesicles that contain various hydrolytic enzymes e.g. nucleases, proteases, lipases, etc.
  25. What is a secondary lysosome?
    When a primary lysosome fuses with the phagocytosed material or obsolete cellular organelles.
  26. After digestion, the contents of the secondary lysosomes are retained as ______.
    Residual bodies or lipofuscin (age pigment).
  27. What is used to show the relative age of cells?
    The amount of lipofuscin in the cell.
  28. Describe and list functions of peroxisomes.
    • Small membrane-bound organelles, containing oxidase and catalase enzymes
    • Synthesize and destroy hydrogen peroxide; Detoxify certain substances and play a role in gluconeogenesis.
  29. What is the significance of peroxisomes?
    The energy dervied from oxidation is used for metabolic processes.
  30. Where are peroxisomes found abundantly?
    • Hepatocytes
    • Cells of the proximal convoluted tubules of the kidney.
  31. What is Janus Green B stain used for?
  32. What is the function of mitochondria?
    The chief source of energy for the cell.
  33. What does the inner membrane of the mitochondria contain?
    Enzymes that function in oxidative phosphorylation.
  34. What is the cytoskeleton composed of?
    • Microfilaments
    • Intermediate filaments
    • Microtubules
  35. What is the composition of microfilaments?
    Actin and myosin filaments, which cause cellular contraction in muscle cells.
  36. In which type of cellular activities are microfilaments involved?
    • Endocytosis
    • Exocytosis
    • Cell migratory activity
  37. In which types of cells are intermediate filaments abundant?
    Cells subject to mechanical stress.
  38. What is the function of keratin filaments?
    • Mechanical stability by formation of desmosomes
    • Protection in keratinized epithelium
  39. Which filaments support muscle cells?
    Desmin filaments
  40. Which filaments support nerve cells?
  41. Which filaments support astrocytes and neurolemmocytes (Schwann cells)?
    Glial filaments
  42. What are the functions of microtubules?
    • Maintenance of cell form
    • Transport of organelles and vesicles, such as secretory granules
  43. What is the makeup of the centriole.
    Nine groups of three microtubules (triplets) in longitudinal and parallel arrangement.
  44. What are the cytoplasmic inclusions?
    • Glycogen
    • Lipid
    • Melanin
    • Hemosiderin
    • Lipofuscin
  45. Which inclusion is in liver cells and muscle and how can it be demonstrated?
    • Glycogen
    • Demonstrated by PAS reaction.
  46. Where is lipid and how can it be demonstrated?
    In adipose cells, can be demonstrated with osmic acid fixation.
  47. What inclusion is in skin and pigment epithelium of retina?
  48. What is hemosiderin?
    Result of hemoglobin degradation
  49. What is indigestible residue of phagocytosis, which increases with age?
  50. In which cells are lipofuscin commonly found?
    Cardiac muscle, liver and nerve cells.
  51. Where are tight junctions found and what do they consist of?
    • Epithelial cells
    • Consist of irregularly anastamosing ridges (transmembrane protein) that seal neighboring cells together in a beltlike fashion.
  52. What are the three types of adhering junctions?
    • Zonula adherens
    • Macula adherens or desmosomes
    • Hemidesmosomes
  53. What cell junction holds cells together by transmembrane protein linker and a bundle of actin filaments run parallel to the junctional cell membrane? In what cells are they prominent?
    • Zonula adherens
    • Lining cells of the intestine
  54. What is the structure of a desmosome or macula adherens?
    Transmembrane protein linker plus intercellular electron-dense plaque. Intermediate filaments are attached to this plaque forming a hairpin loop.
  55. What connects cells to extracellular matrix protein?
  56. What permits the direct passage of inorganic ions and other water-soluble molecules from cell to cell?
    Gap junction
  57. What do gap junctions do?
    Connects the intercellular space by interlocking transmembrane proteins of the opposite membrane.
  58. What is cilia composed of?
    Nine doublet microtubules around two central microtubules.
  59. What is a flagellum?
    A single long cilium.
  60. What are microvilli?
    Cytoplasmic evaginations to increase the free surface for absorption (e.g. small intestine)
  61. What are stereocilia?
    Long, rigid microvilli e.g., hair cells of the spiral organ (corti) of the inner ear.
  62. What does the basement membrane consist of?
    • Basal Lamina - Lamina lucida and lamina densa
    • Subbasal lamina or reticular lamina
  63. What layer of the basement membrane is composed mainly of proteoglycans and a special type of collagen?
    Basal lamina
  64. What is the subbasal lamina composed of and what is its function?
    • Reticular fibers
    • Connects the lamina densa to the subepithelial connective tissue
  65. What are the functions of the epithelium?
    Protection, absorption, secretion and diffusion
  66. What are the two ways to classify epithelium?
    • Number of layers present (simple or stratified)
    • Shape of the top layer of cells (i.e. squamous, cuboidal, columnar)
  67. Where can you find simple squamous epithelium?
    • Lining of the blood vessels
    • Pleural and peritoneal cavities
    • Pulmonary alveoli
    • Glomerular capsule
  68. Where can you find simple cuboidal epithelium?
    • Thyroid gland
    • Collecting ducts of the kidney
  69. Where can you find simple solumnar epithelium?
    • Stomach
    • Intestine
    • Gall bladder
  70. What is pseudostratified columnar epithelium and where is it found?
    • Single layer of cells, but because of the different cell shape and nuclei location at various levels, gives an impression of stratified epithelium.
    • Trachea and bronchi (ciliated form)
  71. What is the difference between keratinized and non-keratinized cells?
    Keratinized cells have layers of dead cells on top of the epithelium for protection.
  72. Where can you find stratified squamous epithelium?
    Skin (keratinized) and cornea (non-keratinized)
  73. Where can you find stratified cuboidal epithelium?
    Lining the excretory duct of glands
  74. Where can you find stratified columnar epithelium?
    In parotid and mandibular gland ducts
  75. Which type of cells line certain hollow organs and is capable of considerable distention and give examples?
    Transitional epithelium, e.g. urinary bladder and urethra.
  76. What part of the gland consists of secretory epithelium and duct system?
  77. Which part of a gland is the supportive framework of connective tissue?
  78. What are the different classifications of glands?
    • Unicellular (goblet cells) or multicellular
    • Endocrine or exocrine
    • Simple or compound
  79. What is the difference between endocrine and exocrine glands?
    • Exocrine - has a system of ducts
    • Endocrine - ductless, secretions released into intercellular fluid and transported by blood
  80. Give an example of each gland:
    Simple straight tubular
    Large intestine
  81. Give an example of each gland:
    Simple coiled tubular
    Sweat gland
  82. Give an example of each gland:
    Simple branched tubular
  83. Give an example of each gland:
    Simple alveolar or acinar gland
    Sebaceous gland
  84. Give an example of each gland:
    Simple branched acinar or alveolar gland
    Large sebaceous gland
  85. Give an example of each gland:
    Simple tubulo-acinar gland
    Minor salivary gland of oral cavity
  86. Give an example of each gland:
    Compound alveolar or acinar
    Parotid gland
  87. Give an example of each gland:
    Compound tubulo-alveolar
  88. What is the order of the duct system from smallest to largest?
    • Intercalated ducts
    • Intralobular
    • Interlobular
    • Lobar ducts
    • Main ducts
  89. Which glands produce a thin, watery secretion and have spherical nuclei in the center or lower half of the cell?
    Serous glands (e.g. Parotid salivary gland)
  90. Which glands procude a thick, viscous secretion with flattened nuclei displace to the basal part of the cell?
    Mucous glands
  91. What is a seromucous gland?
    Has both serous and mucous glands. Generally, serous cells are located over the mucous acini as serous demilunes (e.g. in the mandibular salivary gland)
  92. What is merocrine secretion?
    Secretory granules enclosed in a membrane, discharged by exocytosis.
  93. What is apocrine secretion?
    Membrane-bound granule, together with a rim of cytoplasm and plasmalemma, is released from the apex of the cell e.g., sweat and mammory glands
  94. What is holocrine secretion?
    Entire cell is released as the secretory product e.g., sebaceous glands
  95. What is cytocrine secretion?
    The secretory material from one cell is transferred to the cytoplasm of another cell, e.g., transfer of melanin pigment from the melanocytes into the keratinocytes.
  96. What forces the secretory product into the duct system and where is it located?
    • Myoepithelial cells
    • Interposed between the secretory cells and basement membrane
  97. Which cells can differentiate into other cells?
    • Mesenchymal cells
    • Pericytes
  98. Which cells are responsible for the synthesis of fibers and intercellular ground substance?
    Fibroblast cells
  99. What is an inactive fibroblast?
  100. What type of fibroblast contains actin filament and plays a role in contraction during wound healing?
  101. What cells are stellate-shaped with spherical nucleus and basophilic cytoplasm, and produce reticular fibers?
    Reticular cells
  102. Which cells are fillied with large lipid droplets and nucleus is displaced to the periphery?
    Unilocular adipocytes
  103. Which cells have a centrally located nucleus with multiple lipid droplets and high concentration of mitochondria in the cytoplasm?
    Multilocular adipocytes
  104. What are pericytes?
    • Cells located adjacent to the endothelium lining small blood vessels
    • Contain actin and myosin
    • Have potential to transform into other cells
    • Participate in healing process
  105. What cells turn red when stained with toluidine blue?
    Mast cells
  106. What do mast cells produce?
    • Heparin (anticoagulant)
    • Histamine (vasoconstrictor - increases permeability)
  107. What cells are spherical or ovoid with spherical, eccentric nucleus and the arrangement of chromatin gives the nucleus a cart-wheel-like appearance and are intensely basophilic?
    Plasma cells
  108. What do plasma cells develop from and what do they produce?
    • They develop from B-lymphocytes
    • Produce antibodies (plasma cells are abundant in lymphatic tissues and lamina propria of the GIT)
  109. What do monocytes turn into when they migrate across the blood vessel walls into the connective tissue?
  110. What do macrophages contain?
    Cytoplasmic vacuoles and numerous lysosomes.
  111. What are the three types of fibers and their descriptions?
    • Collagen - wavy
    • Reticular - networks
    • Elastic - Coiled
  112. Where are collagen fibers found?
    • Tendon
    • Ligament
    • Organ capsule
  113. Which fibers are strong and flexible and inelastic?
    Collagen fibers (tendon, ligament, organ capsule)
  114. Which fibers are stained red with Van Gieson's method?
    Collagen fibers
  115. What fibers can be stained with silver impregnation (argyrophilic or argentaffin fibers) or PAS agent?
    Reticular fibers
  116. Where are reticular fibers?
    They form the framework of liver, endocrine, lymphatic organs.
  117. What is the makeup of reticular fibers?
    Individual collagen fibrils (type 3 collagen) coated with proteoglycans and glycoproteins.
  118. What is used to stain elastic fibers?
    • H&E (stains light pink)
    • Stained selectively by orcein and resorcin-fuchsin
  119. Where are elastic fibers found?
    Present in structures that require elasticity e.g., aorta and muscular arteries, nuchal ligament, pinna of ear and lungs.
  120. What is an amporphous ground substance composed of?
    Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) and proteoglycans
  121. What are the major types of GAGs and where are they found?
    • Hyaluronic acid - vitreous body of eye and in synovial fluid
    • Chondroitin sulphate - cartilage, bone and large blood vessels
    • Dermatin sulphate - tendons and ligaments
    • Keratin sulphate - cartilage and bones
    • Heparin sulphate - arteries and lungs
  122. What are the types of Embryonic CT?
    • Mesenchymal CT
    • Mucous or gelatinous CT
  123. What are the types of adult CT and where are they found?
    • Loose or Areolar CT; beneath the epithelium, around blood vessels and nerves, and in serous membranes
    • Dense CT; Irregular - in capsules of the organs, deep layer of the dermis; Regular - tendons, ligaments and aponeurosis
    • Elastic CT; Nuchal ligament, vocal ligament
    • Reticular CT; Spleen, lymph node and liver
    • Adipose CT; loose CT of mesenteries, around blood vessels and nerves
  124. What does cartilage consist of and lack?
    • Consists of cartilage cells (chondroblasts and chondrocytes) and matrix
    • Lacks blood vessels
  125. Label the parts:
    • A : Perichondrial fibroblast
    • B : Chondroblast
    • C : Interterritorial matrix
    • D : Chondrocyte
    • E : Territorial matrix
  126. Unilocular adipocyte
  127. Label this cell:
    • Hyaline cartilage
    • Find these parts:
    • Chondrocyte
    • Territorial matrix
    • Interterritorial matrix
  128. Label the cartilage:
    • Elastic cartilage
    • Label these parts:
    • Chondrocyte
    • Elastic fibers
  129. Label the picture:
    • Fibrocartilage
    • Label these parts:
    • Collagen fibers
    • Chondrocyte
    • (No perichondrium)
  130. What is cartilage matrix composed of?
    Fibers and ground substance containing proteoglycans and GAGs (chondroitin sulphate, keratin sulphate, hyaluronic acid) and the adhesive molecules (chondronectin and fibronectin).
  131. What are the 3 types of cartilage and where are they found?
    • Hyaline - articular surfaces of bones, nose and trachea
    • Elastic - pinna and epiglottis
    • Fibrocartilage - intervertebral discs and menisci
  132. Bone is a specialized connective tissue composed of what?
    • Intercellular calcified material (bone matrix)
    • Three cell types (Osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts)
  133. What do osteoblasts secrete?
    Osteoid (organic matter of bony matrix) which is subsequently calcified by the deposition of calcium salts.
  134. What cell makes new bone?
  135. What cell functions in bone resorption and how?
    • Osteoclast
    • Secretes acid and lysosomal enzymes
    • A - Osteoblast
    • B - Osteoclast
    • C - Osteocyte
    • D - Mesenchyme
    • E - Bone matrix
    • F - Newly forming matrix (osteoid)
  136. Label the parts:
    • A - Inner circumferential lamellae
    • B - Haversion system (osteon)
    • C - Outer circumferential lamellae
    • D - Volkmann's (perforating) canal
    • E - Periosteum
    • F - Haversian (central) canal
    • G - Endosteum
  137. Bone is a specialized connective tissue composed of what?
    • Intercellular calcified material (bone matrix)
    • Osteoblasts, osteoclasts, osteocytes
  138. What do osteoblasts secrete?
    Osteoid (Organic matter of bony matrix) which is subsequently calcified by the deposition of calcium salts.
  139. What cells form new bone?
  140. What cell is responsible for bone resorption and how?
    • Osteoclasts
    • Secretes acid and lysosomal enzymes
  141. Periosteum consists of ____ and ____ layers.
    Fibrous and osteogenic
  142. T/F: Periosteum covers all surfaces of the bone.
    False, it is absent on the articulating surfaces and at sites where tendons and ligaments insert on the bone.
  143. What lines the marrow cavity and what is its composition?
    • Endosteum
    • A single layer of squamous cells, osteoblasts and osteoclasts
  144. Where do compact bone and spongy bone occur?
    • Compact bone - Outer shells of the diaphysis and epiphyses
    • Spongy bone - Interior of the epiphysis
  145. What does compact bone consist of?
    • Osteons or Haversian systems
    • Outer and inner circumferential lamellae
    • Interstitial lamellae
  146. What does each osteon consist of?
    A central canal surrounded by concentric lamellae, and lacunae containing osteocytes between the lamellae
  147. What connects the central canals?
    Perforating (Volkmann's) canals
  148. What is in the central canal?
    • Blood vessels
    • Nerves
    • Loose CT
  149. What are the two types of ossifications and where are they found?
    • Intramembranous ossification - skull bones (except base of the skull)
    • Endochondral ossification - Appendicular skeleton, vertebral column and bones of the base of the skull
  150. T/F: Skeletal muscle myocytes have multiple oval nuclei located centrally.
    False, they have multiple nuclei but the nuclei are located peripherally.
  151. What are myofibrils composed of?
    • Thick myofilaments (primarily myosin)
    • Thin filaments (actin, troponin, tropomyosin)
  152. What are the structures of the muscle from largest to smallest and the membranes around each?
    • Muscle (Epimysium)
    • Bundles (Perimysium)
    • Myofiber (Endomysium)
    • Myofibril
    • Myofilaments (actin & myosin)
  153. What are the A band, I band and Z line?
    • A band - where thick and thin myofilaments overlap
    • I band - only thin myofilaments present
    • Z line - dark transverse line bissecting the I band
  154. What is the smallest unit of the contractile apparatus of the muscle?
    The sarcomere, which is between two adjacent Z lines.
  155. What does the sarcoplasm contain and what covers it?
    • Smooth ER (sarcoplasmic reticulum)
    • Glycogen
    • Mitochondria
    • Myoglobin
    • Covered by the sarcolemma
  156. What are satellite cells?
    Represent inactive myoblasts that can be activated upon injury to initiate some regeneration of muscle fibers. Spindle-shaped cells with heterochromatic nuclei, located adjacent to the myocytes.
  157. T/F: Red muscle fibers are fast-twitch.
    False, red muscle fibers are slow-twitch, white muscle fibers are fast-twitch.
  158. T/F: White fibers are larger with few mitochondria.
    True, red fibers are smaller, rich in myoglobin and mitochondria.
  159. What separates cardiac muscle myocytes?
    Intercalated discs
  160. T/F: Cardiac muscle myocytes have a single nucleus located in the center of the cell and branch.
    • True
    • Cardiac - branching (anastomosing), striated muscle, single nucleus in middle
    • Skeletal - non-branching, striated muscle, multiple nuclei on periphery
  161. How do purkinje fibers differ from other cardiac muscle myocytes?
    They have less myofibrils and located on the periphery.
  162. What are the specialized impulse conducting fibers?
    Purkinje fibers
  163. What cells are elongated, spindle-shaped with a single elongated centrally located nucleus and an acidophilic cytoplasm?
    Smooth muscle cells
  164. What type of myofilaments are in smooth muscle?
    Mainly thin myofilaments, sparse thick myofilaments.
  165. What controls the contractions of smooth muscle?
    Dense bodies
  166. What links dense bodies into a meshwork array?
    Intermediate filaments
  167. Where is cerebrospinal fluid found?
    Cavities of the brain and spinal cord, and in the space within the meninges.
  168. What are the two parts of the neuron?
    • Nerve cell body (perikaryon)
    • Neuronal processes (axon and dendrites)
  169. What type of neuron has one axon and multiple dendrites?
  170. What type of neuron has one axon and one dendrite?
  171. What type of neurons have one process that bifurcates into central and peripheral branches?
    Unipolar, e.g. sensory ganglia
  172. What is part of the Nissl substance in neurons?
    Aggregation of rER and ribosomes
  173. Where can you find eccentric nuclei in nerve cells?
    Autonomic ganglia
  174. What are the properties of the nucleus of nerve cells?
    • Centrally placed, ovoid or spherical, and relatively euchromatic
    • Eccentrically placed nucleus in the neurons of autonomic ganglia
    • Prominent nucleolus
    • Sex chromatin (Barr body) may be evident in the vicinity of the nucleolus in cats and rodents.
  175. What is present in the cytoplasm of nerve cells?
    • Nissl substance (aggregation of rER and ribosomes)
    • Neurofilaments (cytoskeleton)
    • Microtubules (rapid transport of membrane-bound organelles)
    • Prominent golgi complex (secretes neurotransmitter and neurohormones)
    • Numerous mitochondria
    • Lipofuscin pigments (residue of lysosomal activity)
  176. What structure is missing from the dendrites?
    Golgi complexes
  177. What is present on the synaptic sites of dendrites?
    Thick band of electron-dense material, representing protein (receptor, channels, enzymes, etc.) responsible for postsynaptic activity
  178. What are dendritic spines?
    Gemmules, which consist of a membrane sac containing dense material.
  179. What is the origin and terminal branches of axons?
    • Origin - axon hillock
    • Terminal - telodendrites
  180. Where are the terminal bulbs and what do they include?
    • The ends of each terminal branch
    • Neurotransmitter molecules, packaged and stored within a synaptic vesicle
  181. What are in the terminal branches and what do they contain?
    • Synaptic vesicles - neurotransmitter molecules
    • Secretory vesicles - Neuromodulaters (agents that augment neurotransmitter effects) and neurohormones (oxytocin and vasopressin in hypothalamic neurons)
  182. What is the area between 2 neurons or a neuron and other effector cells?
  183. What are the parts forming a synapse?
    • Presynaptic terminal (telodendron)
    • Synaptic cleft (intercellular space)
    • Post synaptic terminal (on dendrites or gemmules)
  184. What are the three types of synapses?
    • Axo-somatic
    • Axo-dendritic
    • Axo-axonic
  185. What are the different types of neuroglial cells?
    • CNS: Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, microglial cells, ependymal cells
    • PNS: Neurolemmocytes (Schwann cells)
  186. What binds neurons to capillaries and to the pia mater?
  187. Which astrocytes are in the white matter and grey matter?
    • White matter - fibrous astrocytes (processes are long, slender and moderately branched)
    • Grey matter - Protoplasmic astrocytes (processes are shorter and highly branched)
  188. What is the expansion of astrocyte processes that covers the endothelium of blood vessels and what does it form?
    • End feet
    • Blood-brain barrier (helps to maintain the electrolyte balance in the CNS)
  189. What cells produce myelin in the CNS and PNS?
    • CNS - oligodendrocytes
    • PNS - neurolemmocytes (Schwann cells)
  190. The myelin sheath between nodes is called an _____.
  191. Which cells are phagocytic cells of the nervous system and derived from bone marrow?
    Microglial cells
  192. Which cells line the ventricles of the brain and central canal of the spinal cord and what is their function?
    • Ependymal cells (ciliated cuboidal or columnar cells)
    • Facilitate the movement of cerebrospinal fluid
  193. What are the 3 layers of the nerve cell?
    • Endoneurium - surrounds the axon by neurolemmocytes and a thin layer of connective tissue fibers
    • Perineurium - Collagenous connective tissue surrounding fascicles of nerve fibers
    • Epineurium - Connective tissue surrounding multiple fascicles of a nerve
  194. What are ganglia?
    Aggregations of nerve cell bodies along the course of peripheral nerves supported by connective tissue
  195. What are sensory ganglia associated with?
    • Cranial nerves (cranial ganglia)
    • Dorsal root of the spinal nerve (spinal ganglia)
  196. Which type of cell bodies are in sensory ganglia?
  197. What tightly encapsulates each cell body of the sensory ganglia?
    Ganglionic gliocytes (satellite cells)
  198. What are the characteristics of autonomic ganglia?
    • Accumulations of multipolar nerve cell bodies
    • Eccentric nuclei
    • Marginally distributed Nissl granules
    • Loosely encapsulated by ganglionic gliocytes
  199. What are the types of receptors characterized by location?
    • Exteroreceptors (body surface)
    • Enteroreceptors (viscera)
    • Proprioceptors (musculoskeletal structures)
  200. What are the types of receptors named by stimulus?
    • Mechanoreceptors
    • Chemoreceptors
    • Thermoreceptors
  201. What are the types of receptors named anatomically?
    • Nonencapsulated receptors - free nerve ending, tactile corpuscles
    • Encapsulated receptors - Encapsulated tactile (Meissner's) corpuscles, Lamellar (Paccinian) corpuscles, Bulbous (Krause's) or genital corpuscles, neurotendinous and neuromuscular spindles
  202. What are the parts of a neuromuscular synapse?
    Presynaptic neuronal end plate overlaying a postsynaptic muscle sole plate in the mid region of the muscle fiber
  203. What is in the motor end plate cytoplasm?
    • Many mitochondria
    • Synaptic vesicles that contain acetylcholine
  204. What are the parts of the grey matter and what do they include?
    • Ventral grey matter - efferent neurons
    • Dorsal grey matter - interneurons
    • Lateral grey matter - sympathetic neurons
  205. Label the following:
    • A - Dorsal median septum
    • B - Dorsal horn
    • C - Lateral horn
    • D - Ventral horn
    • E - Ventral median fissure
    • F - Ventral funiculus
    • G - Lateral funiculus
    • H - Dorsal funiculus
  206. What lines the central canal of the spinal cord?
    Ependymal cells
  207. What separates medulla from the spinal cord?
    Foramen magna (Inside skull - medulla, outside skull - spinal cord)
  208. What are groups of nerve cell bodies in the brain called?
  209. Where is the grey matter and white matter in the cerebellum?
    Grey matter on the outside, white matter on the inside (opposite of spinal cord and medulla)
  210. What are the layers of the cerebral cortex in order from most exterior?
    • Molecular layer
    • External granular
    • External pyramidal
    • Internal granular
    • Internal pyramidal
    • Fusiform layer
  211. What are the layers of the cerebellar cortex?
    • Outer molecular layer
    • Intermediate Purkinje cell layer (single layer of piriform cells, which send their ramified dendrites into the molecular layer, axons into the white matter)
    • Inner granular layer
  212. What are the 3 meninges?
    • Dura mater
    • Arachnoid
    • Pia Mater
  213. What's the term for the arachnoid and pia mater?
  214. What produces the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
    The choroid plexuses in ventricles; by exiting through the lateral aperture it enters the subarachnoid space
  215. Where are the epidural and subarachnoid spaces?
    • Epidural - Between the bone and dura mater
    • Subarachnoid - between the arachnoid and pia mater