PMK: BMR CH 08.txt

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pascual
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57769
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PMK: BMR CH 08.txt
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2011-01-02 15:23:16
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  1. The damage control organization is divided into how many parts?
    Two
  2. What person coordinates the efforts of repair parties to control damage?
    The damage control assistant
  3. Which of the following are duties of the executive officer?
    • Ship's survivability training
    • Readiness to manage casualties
    • Control and recover from damage
  4. What officer is designated as the ship's damage control officer?
    The engineer officer
  5. The DCA is the primary assistant to the damage control officer. As such, the DCA has which of the following responsibilities?
    • Training the ship's DC personnel
    • Administration of the ship's DC organization
    • Maintain records of DC personnel PQS accomplishment for all hands
  6. What requirements must a petty officer have to be designated as the damage control petty officer (DCPO)?
    Complete the PQS
  7. Normally, the job of DCPO is held for what period of time?
    6 months
  8. Which of the following is/are responsibilities of the DCPO?
    • Assist in the instruction of division personnel in damage control
    • Prepare and maintain damage control checkoff lists for their spaces
    • Make required reports
  9. What person is responsible for determining the safe entry of personnel into closed or poorly ventilated spaces?
    The gas free engineer CORRECT
  10. What person is designated to aid the DCA train personnel and to prevent and fight fires?
    The fire marshal
  11. What action is taken if the fire marshal finds hazards that relate to poor housekeeping during a daily inspection?
    Submit discrepancy report to DCA with copies to XO and department head
  12. What is the purpose of the ship's damage control battle organization?
    To restore the ship to as near normal operation as possible
  13. In the damage control battle organization, what person is responsible for controlling damage; fighting fires; CBR countermeasures; and control of stability, list, and trim? 1. The DCPO
    The DCA
  14. What are the primary damage control battle organization unit(s)?
    Repair parties
  15. What is the nerve center of the directing force for directing the damage control organization?
    DCC or CCS
  16. REPAIR PARTY THAT IS IDENTIFIED BY THE FUNCTION USED AS THE QUESTION: Main deck repair.
    Repair 1
  17. REPAIR PARTY THAT IS IDENTIFIED BY THE FUNCTION USED AS THE QUESTION: Propulsion repair.
    Repair 5
  18. REPAIR PARTY THAT IS IDENTIFIED BY THE FUNCTION USED AS THE QUESTION: Ordnance.
    Repair 6
  19. REPAIR PARTY THAT IS IDENTIFIED BY THE FUNCTION USED AS THE QUESTION: Electronic casualty control.
    Repair 8
  20. Each repair party should be capable of performing which of the following functions?
    • Rigging casualty power
    • Controlling flooding
    • Extinguishing all types of fires
  21. When in port, the ship has which of the following duty section components available to respond to any type of casualty?
    In port emergency teams
  22. The rescue and assistance detail must have which of the following qualifications?
    • Be qualified as an emergency team member
    • Be qualified in first aid
  23. General quarters is an all hands evolution´┐Żit is the highest state of readiness of the ship.
    True
  24. Which of the following statements describes a correct GQ route to follow?
    Aft in the passageways and down ladders on the port side
  25. Which of the following is an emergency damage control communications system?
    X40J
  26. What system signals override microphone control stations to notify the ship's crew of imminent danger?
    Alarms for collision, chemical attack, general, and flight crash
  27. This alarm is sounded by the OOD or PreFly notifying ship's company of a pending or actual flight deck emergency.
    FLIGHT CRASH
  28. This alarm is sounded when there is a possibility that the ship will be struck by another waterborne unit.
    COLLISION
  29. When this alarm is sounded, all hands report to their preassigned stations and set material condition ZEBRA.
    GENERAL
  30. Which of the following means of communications is used when all other methods have failed?
    Messengers CORRECT
  31. All Navy ships have how many material conditions of readiness?
    Three
  32. What material condition provides the least degree of watertight integrity?
    XRAY
  33. What material condition sets the highest degree of watertight integrity?
    ZEBRA correct
  34. Which of the following fittings are closed when condition ZEBRA is set?
    • DOG Z fittings
    • Circle X fittings
    • Y fittings
  35. What means, if any, is used by repair parties to find damage control fittings and closures in each compartment?
    Compartment checkoff lists
  36. The Damage Control Closure Log is maintained in which of the following locations?
    • DCC
    • Quarterdeck
  37. Which of the following logs is a list of all DC-related fittings that don't work properly?
    Inoperative Fittings and Closures Log
  38. What fittings are secured when the ship is set for "darken ship"?
    DOG ZEBRA
  39. The emergency escape breathing device (EEBD) supplies breathable air for what maximum period of time?
    15 minutes
  40. With training, you should be able to activate the EEBD within what maximum period of time?
    30 seconds
  41. Which of the following breathing devices should NOT be worn for fire-fighting purposes?
    SEED
  42. Which of the following is the primary fire fighting tool for respiratory protection?
    OBA
  43. From the time it is activated, each cylinder used in the self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) will last approximately what length of time?
    30 minutes
  44. Which of the following substances must be present to start a fire?
    • Oxygen
    • Heat
    • Fuel
  45. In the fire tetrahedron, how many components are necessary for combustion?
    Four
  46. Flammable materials give off vapors. What is the lowest temperature that these vapors burn when a spark is applied?
    Flash point
  47. What term is used to describe the lowest temperature at which spontaneous combustion occurs?
    Ignition point
  48. Heat from fire can be transferred by how many methods?
    Three
  49. What method of heat transfer occurs when heat moves from one body to another by direct contact?
    Conduction CORRECT
  50. What method of heat transfer occurs through the motion of smoke, hot air, and heated gases?
    Convection
  51. What type of heat transfer occurs when heat moves in all direction unless blocked?
    Radiation
  52. Which of the following agents should be used to extinguish a class B fire?
    • AFFF
    • PKP
  53. Which of the following agents should be used to extinguish class A or D fires?
    Water CORRECT

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