2010 release questions

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2010 release questions
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2011-02-02 22:43:19
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ACFD NDEB EE Qualifying Program Dental
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Canadian Dental Preparation Materials
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  1. Crown-root ratio and residual bone support can best be seen radiographically in a:

    A. panoramic film.
    B. bite-wing film.
    C. periapical film - bisecting angle technique.
    D. periapical film - paralleling technique.
    D. periapical film - paralleling technique.
  2. Which of the following steroids can produce Cushing's syndrome?

    A. Estradiol.
    B. Testosterone.
    C. Prednisolone.
    D. Progesterone.
    E. Diethylstilbestrol.
    C. Prednisolone.
  3. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for a child with acute herpetic gingivostomatitis?

    A. Analgesic and hydration therapy.
    B. Antibiotic therapy.
    C. Topical antiviral therapy.
    D. Topical antifungal therapy.
    A. Analgesic and hydration therapy.
  4. An inflammatory cellular infiltrate found in the connective tissue of healthy gingiva is:

    A. a routine microscopic finding.
    B. an indication of systemic disease.
    C. composed chiefly of macrophages.
    D. a tissue response to food decomposition.
    A. a routine microscopic finding.
  5. A well-defined radiolucency at the apex of a nonvital tooth is most likely a/an :

    A. lateral periodontal cyst.
    B. ameloblastoma.
    C. odontogenic keratocyst.
    D. rarefying osteitis.
    D. rarefying osteitis.
  6. A deflection of the mandible towards the right upon opening may be due to:

    A. ankylosis of the right temporomandibular joint.
    B. internally displaced disk in left temporomandibular joint.
    C. bilateral fracture of the neck of the condyles.
    D. hypermobility of the right temporomandibular joint.
    A. ankylosis of the right temporomandibular joint.
  7. The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold alloy, means that chromium-cobalt-nickel partial denture clasps will require

    A. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm.
    B. a shorter retentive arm.
    C. more taper.
    D. a shallower undercut.
    D. a shallower undercut.
  8. A possible consequence for patients taking cyclosporine is

    A. erythematous gingivae.
    B. fibrous gingival hyperplasia.
    C. loss of soft tissue attachment.
    D. epithelial sloughing.
    B. fibrous gingival hyperplasia.
  9. How would you manage a percussion sensitive tooth that responds normally to pulp testing?

    A. Pulpectomy.
    B. Occlusal assessment.
    C. Coronal pulpotomy.
    D. None of the above.
    B. Occlusal assessment.
  10. Which of the following should NOT be administered to a patient with chest pain consistent with a myocardial infarction?

    A. Epinephrine.
    B. Nitroglycerin.
    C. Oxygen.
    D. Morphine.
    E. Acetylsalicylic acid.
    A. Epinephrine.
  11. A patient has a draining sinus tract 6mm apical to the free gingival margin of a maxillary lateral incisor. You would

    A. enucleate the sinus tract.
    B. test the tooth for percussion sensitivity.
    C. perform pulp vitality tests.
    D. open the tooth without anesthesia.
    E. open into the pulp chamber and establish the correct root length.
    C. perform pulp vitality tests.
  12. In the restoration of the proximal surfaces of posterior teeth, periodontal involvement is most likely to develop when the restoration:

    A. has a flat marginal ridge.
    B. has an inadequate contact.
    C. is overcontoured buccolingually.
    D. is undercontoured gingivally.
    B. has an inadequate contact.
  13. Following trauma, bluish-grey discolouration of the crown is due to:

    A. external resorption.
    B. pulpal hemorrhage.
    C. discoloured composite restoration.
    D. chromogenic bacteria.
    B. pulpal hemorrhage.
  14. The most common site of a basal cell carcinoma is the:

    A. middle third of the face.
    B. lower lip.
    C. tongue.
    D. oral mucosa.
    A. middle third of the face.
  15. The best method to prevent root canal obstruction during the instrumentation phase of endodontic treatment is to:

    A. obtain adequate access.
    B. use a chelating agent.
    C. irrigate copiously.
    D. use reamers instead of files.
    C. irrigate copiously.
  16. Which of the following methods of instrument sterilization uses the lowest temperature?

    A. Steam autoclave.
    B. Dry heat oven.
    C. Ethylene oxide method.
    D. Glass bead sterilizer.
    E. Alcohol autoclave.
    C. Ethylene oxide method.
  17. After completion of endodontic chemomechanical debridement you can expect to have

    1. removed all tissue from the entire root canal system.
    2. machined the canals to a microscopically smooth channel.
    3. caused some temporary inflammation.
    4. sterilized the root canal.
    5. left some areas of the root canal system incompletely cleaned.

    A. (1) (2) (3)
    B. (1) and (3)
    C. (2) and (4)
    D. (4) only.
    E. All of the above.
    B. (1) and (3)
  18. Which of the following may be used to disinfect gutta-percha points?

    A. Glass bead sterilizer.
    B. Autoclave.
    C. Chemical solutions.
    D. Flame sterilization.
    E. Dry heat sterilization.
    C. Chemical solutions.
  19. For the bleaching of a discoloured and devitalized tooth the most effective agent is :

    A. sodium hypochlorite 5%.
    B. parachlorophenol.
    C. sodium bicarbonate.
    D. hydrogen peroxide 30%.
    D. hydrogen peroxide 30%.
  20. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to root canal instrumentation?

    A. Reamers only are used in curved canals.
    B. Reamers or files are placed in the canal to its determined length, rotated one complete turn, removed, cleaned and the process repeated.
    C. If the root canal is curved the instrument must be precurved before insertion.
    D. Files are more effective than reamers for removing necrotic debris from root canals.
    E. Use of a reamer must be followed by use of a corresponding file.
    C. If the root canal is curved the instrument must be precurved before insertion.
  21. When root canals are treated topically with antibiotics rather than with disinfectants

    1. a greater success rate results.
    2. the same rules of mechanical preparation and filling must be observed.
    3. treatment may be completed in fewer appointments.
    4. there is greater assurance that all micro-organisms are destroyed.
    5. there is a danger of sensitizing patients to antibiotics.

    A. (1) (3) (4)
    B. (2) (4) (5)
    C. (1) (2) (3)
    D. (2) and (5)
    E. All of the above.
    D. (2) and (5)
  22. The placement of a retentive pin in the proximal regions of posterior teeth would MOST likely result in periodontal ligament perforation in the:

    A. mesial of a mandibular first premolar.
    B. distal of a mandibular first premolar.
    C. distal of a mandibular first molar.
    D. mesial of a mandibular first molar.
    D. mesial of a mandibular first molar.
  23. The benefits of flap curettage include:

    A. direct access for thorough debridement.
    B. pocket reduction.
    C. increased opportunity for reattachment.
    D. A. and B.
    E. All of the above.
    D. A. and B.
  24. To evaluate an existing occlusion, diagnostic casts should be mounted on an articulator in

    A. centric relation.
    B. balancing occlusion.
    C. either centric relation or balancing occlusion.
    D. horizontal protrusive relation.
    B. balancing occlusion.
  25. In a hygroscopic investment technique, excess water in the investment mix will result in a casting which
    A. is over expanded.
    B. is under expanded.
    C. has deficient margins.
    D. shows microporosity.
    E. None of the above.
    B. is under expanded.
  26. A decrease in the particle size of the amalgam alloy will affect the amalgam by
    A. increasing flow.
    B. decreasing expansion.
    C. retarding setting rate.
    D. increasing early strength.
    D. increasing early strength.
  27. The presence of tin in an amalgam alloy modifies the reaction and physical properties of the amalgam in that it
    A. speeds the amalgamation rate.
    B. enhances strength.
    C. enhances tarnish resistance.
    D. reduces flow. .
    A. speeds the amalgamation rate.
  28. Following orthodontic alignment, relapse of the mandibular incisors cannot

    A. be predicted from characteristics of the original malocclusion.
    B. occur if the second or third molars are removed.
    C. occur if retainers are worn until the mandibular growth is complete.
    D. occur if a supracrestal fiberotomy is performed.
    A. be predicted from characteristics of the original malocclusion.
  29. Which of the following is correct?

    A. Supragingival calculus does not rely on salivary minerals for its calcification.
    B. Subgingival calculus is not a by-product of streptoccoci mutans.
    C. Subgingival calculus is a result rather than an initiating factor in periodontal disease.
    D. All of the above.
    B. Subgingival calculus is not a by-product of streptoccoci mutans.
  30. The working time of zinc-phosphate cement
    A. is shortened if moisture condenses on the mixing slab during the mixing process.
    B. is lengthened if the powder is mixed with the liquid as quickly as possible.
    C. is shortened if the mixing slab is cooled.
    D. None of the above.
    A. is shortened if moisture condenses on the mixing slab during the mixing process.
  31. A skeletal cross-bite, as contrasted with functional cross-bite, usually demonstrates

    A. marked wear facets.
    B. interference free closure to centric occlusion.
    C. deviated closure to centric occlusion.
    D. None of the above.
    B. interference free closure to centric occlusion.
  32. Which of the following is/are common to both gingival and periodontal pockets?

    1. Apical migration of junctional epithelium.
    2. Fibrotic enlargement of marginal tissue.
    3. Bleeding upon probing.
    4. Increased depth upon probing.

    A. (1) (2) (3)
    B. (1) and (3)
    C. (2) and (4)
    D. (4) only
    E. All of the above.
    D. (4) only
  33. In treatment of an Angle Class~II, Division 2, the Frankel functional regulator is designed to perform all the following EXCEPT

    A. increase vertical dimension.
    B. reposition the mandible forward.
    C. retract the maxillary molars.
    D. expand the dental arches.
    C. retract the maxillary molars.
  34. The features of aggressive (rapidly progressive) periodontitis are

    1. rapid attachment loss.
    2. suspected periodontal microbial pathogens.
    3. onset before the age of 35.
    4. ulcerations of the gingiva.

    A. (1) (2) (3)
    B. (1) and (3)
    C. (2) and (4)
    D. (4) only
    E. All of the above.
    A. (1) (2) (3)
  35. Focal periapical osteopetrosis (dense bone island) differs from focal sclerosing osteomyelitis in that it is

    A. expansile.
    B. periapical.
    C. radiopaque.
    D. caused by pulpitis.
    D. caused by pulpitis.
  36. The most appropriate treatment of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis in a patient with lymphadenopathy is

    1. periodontal debridement.
    2. occlusal adjustment.
    3. oral hygiene instruction.
    4. antibiotic therapy.

    A. (1) (2) (3)
    B. (1) and (3)
    C. (2) and (4)
    D. (4) only
    E. All of the above.
    D. (4) only
  37. The effect of chronic nasal restriction or mouth breathing on facial growth and development is

    A. increased lower anterior face height.
    B. increased lower anterior face height and narrow maxillary arch.
    C. increased lower anterior face height, narrow maxillary arch and lower incisor crowding.
    D. difficult to evaluate.
    B. increased lower anterior face height and narrow maxillary arch.
  38. Orthopedic correction of a mild skeletal Class III malocclusion with spacing due to a combination of vertical and anteroposterior maxillary deficiency should be started

    A. just prior to the pre-pubertal growth spurt.
    B. immediately following the pre-pubertal growth spurt.
    C. shortly after eruption of the upper first permanent molars.
    D. shortly after eruption of the upper second permanent molars.
    C. shortly after eruption of the upper first permanent molars.
  39. The best time to begin interceptive orthodontic treatment for a patient with a skeletal Class II malocclusion is

    A. as soon as the malocclusion is diagnosed.
    B. immediately following complete eruption of the deciduous dentition.
    C. immediately following complete eruption of the first permanent molars.
    D. several months prior to the pre-pubertal growth spurt.
    E. after skeletal maturity.
    C. immediately following complete eruption of the first permanent molars.
  40. The most common cause of persistent post operative sensitivity following the placement of posterior composite resin restorations is

    A. hyperocclusion.
    B. microleakage.
    C. acidic primers.
    D. residual caries.
    B. microleakage.
  41. Radiographs of Garre's osteomyelitis show

    A. radiopaque islands of bone that represent formation of sequestra.
    B. a worm-eaten pattern of bone destruction.
    C. thickening of the cortex.
    D. A. and B.
    E. All of the above.
    C. thickening of the cortex.
  42. Which of the following is most likely to displace the adjacent teeth?
    A. Lateral periodontal cyst.
    B. Dentigerous cyst.
    C. Periapical cemental dysplasia.
    D. Periapical abscess.
    E. Radicular cyst.
    B. Dentigerous cyst.
  43. Hypercementosis (cemental hyperplasia)

    A. is most often confined to the apical half of the root.
    B. most frequently affects molars.
    C. affects non vital teeth in the majority of cases.
    D. (A) and (C)
    E. (B) and (C)
    A. is most often confined to the apical half of the root.
  44. A Bolton relationship has determined a
    • maxillary “12” excess of 3.5mm
    • maxillary “6” excess of 3.0mm

    What effect(s) could this Bolton relationship have on a Class I malocclusion?
    1. Deeper overbite.
    2. Maxillary crowding.
    3. Reduced overjet.
    4. Increased overjet.

    A. (1) (2) (3)
    B. (1) and (3)
    C. (2) and (4)
    D. (4) only
    E. All of the above.
    C. (2) and (4)
  45. The primary stimulus for growth of the mandible is

    1. genetic.
    2. epigenetic.
    3. functional.
    4. environmental.

    A. (1) (2) (3)
    B. (1) and (3)
    C. (2) and (4)
    D. (4) only
    E. All of the above.
    B. (1) and (3)
  46. What ADA type die stone should be used to pour dies for porcelain fused to metal crowns when a polyvinylsiloxane impression material is used?

    A. Type IV.
    B. Type III.
    C. Type II.
    D. Type I.
    A. Type IV.
  47. The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer must have a

    1. rough surface.
    2. space for the veneer material.
    3. definite finish line.
    4. margin at least 1mm supragingivally.

    A. (1) (2) (3)
    B. (1) and (3)
    C. (2) and (4)
    D. (4) only
    E. All of the above.
    ?????
  48. The most common risk associated with vital bleaching using 10% carbamide peroxide in a custom tray is

    A. superficial enamel demineralization.
    B. soft tissue reaction.
    C. tooth sensitivity.
    D. cytotoxicity.
    B. soft tissue reaction.
  49. High telomerase activity is associated with

    A. diabetes mellitus.
    B. malignant tumors.
    C. hyperthyroidism.
    D. cystic fibrosis.
    B. malignant tumors.
  50. Hardening of Type IV cast gold dental alloys by heat treatment increases
    A. ductility.
    B. yield strength.
    C. coring.
    D. elastic modulus.
    E. malleability.
    B. yield strength.
  51. The chemical that is used to retard the setting reaction in alginate impression materials is

    A. calcium sulfate.
    B. sodium sulfate.
    C. calcium phosphate.
    D. sodium phosphate.
    D. sodium phosphate.
  52. A well circumscribed 3mm radiolucent lesion is present in the apical region of the mandibular second premolar. The lesion may be

    1. a periapical granuloma.
    2. a periapical cyst.
    3. a chronic periapical abscess.
    4. the mental foramen.

    A. (1) (2) (3)
    B. (1) and (3)
    C. (2) and (4)
    D. (4) only
    E. All of the above.
    E. All of the above.
  53. Aphthous stomatitis

    1. is considered to be an autoimmune condition.
    2. is more frequent in men than in women.
    3. may be related to the menstrual cycle.
    4. is rarely seen clinically with vesicle formation.
    5. is of three to four days duration.

    A. (1) (2) (3)
    B. (1) (3) (4)
    C. (1) (3) (5)
    D. (2) (3) (4)
    E. (2) (3) (5)
    B. (1) (3) (4)
  54. A benign cementoblastoma is a solitary

    A. circumscribed radiopacity involving a mandibular molar.
    B. circumscribed radiolucency involving the apices of the mandibular incisors.
    C. radiolucency involving the apices of the maxillary incisors.
    D. unilocular radiolucency in an edentulous area.
    A. circumscribed radiopacity involving a mandibular molar.
  55. The most common bacteria that develop resistance to antibiotics are

    A. streptococci.
    B. staphylococci.
    C. lactobacilli.
    D. pneumococci.
    B. staphylococci.
  56. When preparing a cavity in a deciduous molar, a dentist causes a small mechanical exposure of one of the pulp horns. There is a slight hemorrhage and the dentin surrounding the exposure is sound. The treatment of choice is

    A. extraction and space maintenance.
    B. pulp capping with calcium hydroxide and a base.
    C. pulpectomy.
    D. pulp capping with zinc oxyphosphate cement.
    B. pulp capping with calcium hydroxide and a base.
  57. In the examination of the child patient, normal gingiva is diagnosed on the basis of

    1. contour.
    2. stippling.
    3. sulcus depth.
    4. color of Nasmyth's membrane.
    5. tight fitting gingival collar.

    A. (1) (2) (3) (5)
    B. (1) (2) (4) (5)
    C. (1) and (3)
    D. (2) (3) (4)
    E. (3) and (5)
    A. (1) (2) (3) (5)
  58. In females from age 6-12, the growth prediction of mandibular intercuspid width will

    A. decrease 1-2mm.
    B. remain constant.
    C. increase 1mm.
    D. increase 2-3mm.
    D. increase 2-3mm.
  59. In a 5-year old, a small mechanical exposure in a vital primary molar would be treated by

    A. extraction of the tooth.
    B. a pulp capping with calcium hydroxide.
    C. a routine amalgam restoration without any specific treatment for the exposed pulp.
    D. the use of a cavity liner.
    B. a pulp capping with calcium hydroxide.
  60. Dietary deficiency of vitamin D can result in

    A. abnormal formation of osteoid.
    B. osteitis fibrosa cystica.
    C. Paget's disease.
    D. myositis ossificans.
    E. osteogenesis imperfecta.
    B. osteitis fibrosa cystica.
  61. Which of the following is NOT suggestive of a diagnosis of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG)?

    A. Bleeding from the gingiva.
    B. "Punched-out" papillae with necrotic slough.
    C. Fetor oris.
    D. Metallic taste.
    E. Periodontal pocketing.
    E. Periodontal pocketing.
  62. A patient complains of irritability, fatigue and weakness. She is losing weight and has diarrhea. The clinical examination shows diffuse brown macular pigmentation of the oral mucosa. The pigmentation appeared recently. The most likely diagnosis is

    A. iron deficiency anemia.
    B. Addison’s disease.
    C. acute myeloid leukemia.
    D. Crohn’s disease.
    B. Addison’s disease.
  63. A 32 year old male complains of weight loss and diarrhea. The clinical examination shows lymphadenopathy, multiple flat erythematous lesions on the palate and a linear gingival erythema. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    A. Crohn’s disease.
    B. Diabetes mellitus.
    C. AIDS.
    D. Leukemia.
    A. Crohn’s disease.
  64. Amalgam

    1. spherical alloys shrink slightly when setting.
    2. lathe cut alloys expand slightly when setting.
    3. admix alloys are dimensionally stable when setting.
    4. high copper content alloys have improved resistance to tarnish and corrosion.

    A. (1) (2) (3)
    B. (1) and (3)
    C. (2) and (4)
    D. (4) only
    E. All of the above.
    D. (4) only
  65. During radiographic film processing, silver halide is removed from the emulsion during the

    A. developing stage.
    B. post-developing wash stage.
    C. fixing stage.
    D. post-fixing wash stage.
    C. fixing stage.
  66. Mean x-ray beam energy is a function of

    A. exposure time (s).
    B. tube current (a).
    C. tube voltage (v).
    D. collimation.
    C. tube voltage (v).
  67. Osseous resective surgery is best suited for periodontal sites with

    A. severe attachment loss.
    B. deep intrabony defects.
    C. teeth with short roots.
    D. early to moderate bone loss.
    B. deep intrabony defects.
  68. Which microorganism does NOT contribute significantly to the progression of dentinal caries?

    A. Actinomyces naeslundii.
    B. Lactobacillus casei.
    C. Actinomyces viscosus.
    D. Streptococcus salivarius.
    D. Streptococcus salivarius.
  69. Which procedure requires antibiotic prophylaxis in a patient susceptible to bacterial endocarditis?

    A. Impressions for partial dentures.
    B. Suture removal.
    C. Mandibular block anesthetic injection.
    D. Taking periapical radiographs.
    ????
  70. Nitrous oxide, when used as a sedative, produces

    A. euphoria.
    B. dizziness.
    C. lethargy.
    D. anesthesia.
    A. euphoria.
  71. Which of the following drugs is used in treating opioid-dependent individuals?

    A. Codeine.
    B. Methadone.
    C. Alphaprodine.
    D. Pentazocine.
    E. Meperidine.
    B. Methadone.

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