BMR-CH13 Chemical, Biological, and Radiological Defense

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BMR-CH13 Chemical, Biological, and Radiological Defense
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Basic Military Requirements Chemical, Biological, and Radiological Defense CHAPTER 13
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  1. 1. What is defined as defensive measures taken against the effects of a chemical, biological, or nuclear weapons
    • attack?
    • Ans: CBR-D
  2. 2. What type of chemical was used in WWI, which forced the development of the gas mask?
    Ans: Chlorine Gas
  3. 3. What type of weapon was used for the first time in WWII?
    Ans: Nuclear
  4. 4. Name the two types of agents that nations have began developing as a warfare tool?
    • Ans: Chemical
    • Biological
  5. 5. What chemical agent was used in Japan's subway system?
    Ans: Nerve
  6. 6. What chemical agent was used on the Kurd's during the Iraq and Iran war?
    Ans: Blister
  7. 7. Who must approve the initial use of chemical weapons against an attacking nation?
    Ans: President
  8. 8. What type of agent will the United States not use regardless of source or manner of production?
    Ans: Biological
  9. 9. What allows Navy Units to survive CBR attacks and continue to fight and defend their ship or unit?
    Ans: CBR-D Training
  10. 10. What is the primary purpose of nuclear weapons?
    Ans: The mass destruction of targets and personnel
  11. 11. What is the primary purpose of biological and chemical attacks?
    Ans: The mass casualties of personnel, livestock, and crops
  12. 12. What are CBR weapons called because they destroy large areas or kill and disable large segments of the
    • population?
    • Ans: Weapons of Mass Destruction
  13. 13. What type of agent can kill or disable personnel by affecting their blood, nerves, eyes, skin, lungs or stomach?
    Ans: Chemical Agents
  14. 14. What types of weapons produce explosions of great force and heat and release radiation?
    Ans: Nuclear
  15. 15. What is the most probable method of delivery for chemical agents?
    • Ans: Aerosol
    • DT1 (SW/AW) ALLEN
    • 16. How many types of antipersonnel agents are there?
    • Ans: 2
  16. 17. Name the two types of antipersonnel agents?
    • Ans: Casualty
    • Incapacitating
  17. 18. Name the two types of nerve agents?
    • Ans: Sarin
    • VX
  18. 19. What is the agent name for the blister agent?
    Ans: Mustard
  19. 20. What type of agent includes microorganisms, fungi, toxins, and microtoxins to cause diseases that will kill
    • or produce other casualties?
    • Ans: Biological Agents
  20. 21. What is the agent name for the blood agent?
    Ans: Hydrogen Cyanide
  21. 22. What types of agents are antipersonnel agents?
    Ans: Chemical Agents
  22. 23. What are the two ways that casualty agents can be?
    • Ans: Persistent
    • Nonpersistent
  23. 24. Name the four types of chemical agents that casualty agents are classified as?
    • Ans: Blood
    • Choking
    • Nerve
    • Blister
  24. 25. What type of an effect does some casualty agents have?
    Ans: Cumulative Effect
  25. 26. What type of antipersonnel agent temporarily disables personnel but do not create permanent injury?
    Ans: Incapacitating
  26. 27. What type of chemical agent is the incapacitating agent classified as?
    Ans: Riot Control
  27. 28. What are the two principal concerns of yours when dealing with the effects of CW agents?
    • Ans: Recognizing the symptoms
    • Relieving the effects of exposure
  28. 29. What type of antipersonnel agent can cause death or severely incapacitate personnel for long periods of time?
    Ans: Casualty Agents
  29. 30. Name the two types of symptoms that blood agent produce?
    • Ans: Mild Symptoms
    • Severe Symptoms
  30. 31. What does nerve agent-poisoning affects?
    Ans: Body Functions
  31. 32. What type of symptom consists of excessive sudden drooling when exposed nerve agents?
    Ans: Mild
  32. 33. What type symptoms are similar to the symptoms of nerve agent poisoning?
    Ans: Heat Stress Symptoms
  33. 34. What type of symptom consists of wheezing when exposed nerve agents?
    Ans: Severe
  34. 35. What does rapid actions of nerve agents’ calls for?
    Ans: Immediate administration of nerve agent antidotes
  35. 36. What type of symptom causes difficulty in seeing or (moisis) when exposed nerve agents?
    Ans: Mild
  36. 37. Name the two antidotes that are used nerve agents?
    • Ans: Atropine
    • Pralidoxime Chloride (2-PAM CI)
  37. 38. What type of symptom consists of red eyes with tearing when exposed nerve agents?
    Ans: Severe
  38. 39. What are the two affects that Atropine takes once administered?
    • Ans: Dries up secretions in the respiratory tract
    • Stimulates the central respiratory functions
  39. 40. What affect does Pralidoxime Chloride (2-PAM CI) take once administered?
    Ans: Simultaneously relieves muscle paralysis
  40. 41. What type of symptom consists of localized muscular twitching when exposed nerve agents?
    Ans: Mild
  41. 42. Name the four the parts of the body that blister agents act on?
    • Ans: Eyes
    • Mucous Membranes
    • Lungs
    • Skin
  42. 43. What part of the body are both antidotes self-injected into?
    Ans: Lateral Thigh Muscle
  43. 44. What are the types of mustard agents that blister agents includes?
    • Ans: Mustard Vapors
    • Mustard Liquids
  44. 45. What are the four factors that the degree of damage depends on after being exposed to blister agents?
    • Ans: Type and concentration of the agent
    • Weather
    • The amount of activity of the individual
    • Exposure Time
  45. 46. Name the two groups that riot control agents can be classified as?
    • Ans: Tear Agents
    • Vomiting Agents
  46. 47. What type of symptom consists of tightness in the chest when exposed nerve agents?
    Ans: Mild
  47. 48. What riot control agent consists of the symptom diarrhea?
    Ans: Tear Agents
  48. 49. What areas of the body are burns form blister agents most severe?
    Ans: Moist Areas
  49. 50. How long from exposure to blister agents does redness of the skin follows?
    Ans: ½ - 36 hours
  50. 51. What riot control agent consists of the symptom coughing?
    Ans: Vomiting Agents
  51. 52. What type of symptom consists of vomiting when exposed nerve agents?
    Ans: Severe
  52. 53. What medical condition frequently develops after severe exposure of mustard vapors?
    Ans: Pneumonia
  53. 54. What chemical agent inhibits the action of an enzyme responsible for transferring oxygen from the blood to
    • the cells of the body?
    • Ans: Blood Agents
  54. 55. What type of symptom causes difficulty in breathing when exposed nerve agents?
    Ans: Mild
  55. 56. What riot control agent consists of the symptom burn sensation of the skin?
    Ans: Tear Agents
  56. 57. What is the usual route of entry for blood agents?
    Ans: Inhalation
  57. 58. What are the two factors that the symptoms produced by blood agents depend on?
    • Ans: Concentration of the agent
    • Exposure Time
  58. 59. What type of symptom consists of general weakness when exposed nerve agents?
    Ans: Severe
  59. 60. What are the three advanced symptoms blood agents?
    • Ans: Convulsions
    • Coma
    • Death
  60. 61. Name the two types of symptoms that blood agent produce?
    • Ans: Initial Symptoms
    • Advanced Symptoms
  61. 62. What riot control agent consists of the symptom runny nose?
    Ans: Vomiting Agents
  62. 63. What type of symptom consists of difficult or labored respiration or cough when exposed nerve agents?
    Ans: Severe
  63. 64. What is essential when exposed to blood agents?
    Ans: Donning your protective mask
  64. 65. What chemical agent produce an action on the respiratory system that results in the accumulation of fluid in
    • the lungs?
    • Ans: Choking Agents
  65. 66. What riot control agent consists of the symptom burn sensation of the throat?
    Ans: Tear Agents
  66. 67. How fast does blood agents act?
    Ans: Within Seconds
  67. 68. What riot control agent consists of the symptom tightness and pain in the chest?
    Ans: Vomiting Agents
  68. 69. What are the two factors that can cause death when exposed to choking agents?
    • Ans: Accumulation of fluid in the lungs
    • High Concentrations
  69. 70. What are the symptoms that indicate the presence of fluid in the lungs?
    • Ans: Shallow and Rapid breathing
    • Hacking and painful cough
    • Frothy Saliva
    • Ashen gray color of the skin
  70. 71. What is important to begin after exposure to a high dose of a choking agent to prevent accumulation of fluid in
    • the lungs?
    • Ans: Medical Treatment
  71. 72. What riot control agent consists of the symptom irrigation of the eyes?
    Ans: Vomiting Agents
  72. 73. What are the two effects that riot control agents are characterized by?
    • Ans: Very Low Toxicity
    • Brief Action
  73. 74. What are riot control agents used for?
    Ans: Produce temporary misery and harassment
  74. 75. Name the two areas of the eyes that tear agents act rapidly on?
    • Ans: Nerve ends in the cornea
    • Mucous membranes
  75. 76. What are the two first aid procedures taken for personnel exposed to tear agents?
    • Ans: Providing a supply of fresh air
    • Changing exposed clothing
  76. 77. What riot control agent consists of the symptom uncontrollable winkling?
    Ans: Tear Agents
  77. 78. What riot control agent consists of the symptom irritation of the mucous membranes of the mouth?
    Ans: Vomiting Agents
  78. 79. What can be given to relieve headache and general discomfort after being exposed to riot control agents?
    Ans: Analgesics
  79. 80. Cough suppressant and pain relievers can be given to a victim of a choking agent? (True or False)
    Ans: True
  80. 81. What type of warfare might be used on a large scale?
    Ans: Biological Warfare
  81. 82. What are the two protective measures being developed to be used to fight biological warfare?
    • Ans: Biological Immunization
    • Detection Equipment
  82. 83. What type of detection equipment is military forces using for biological warfare?
    Ans: Interim Biological Agent Detection System (IBADS)
  83. 84. How many time are toxins and microtoxins are stronger than today’s chemical weapons?
    Ans: Hundreds to Thousands
  84. 85. What is the disadvantage of many biological weapons?
    Ans: They are rapidly degraded by environmental conditions
  85. 86. Name the five environmental conditions that biological weapons are rapidly degraded by?
    • Ans: Ultraviolet Radiation
    • Visible Radiation
    • Heat
    • Dryness
    • Humidity
  86. 87. What riot control agent can personnel usually perform duties despite their effects?
    Ans: Vomiting Agents
  87. 88. What can infect large numbers of people by contaminating a water supply?
    Ans: Saboteurs
  88. 89. Name the four types of diseases that can be spread through infected water or food supply?
    • Ans: Anthrax
    • Typhoid Fever
    • Cholera
    • Influenza
  89. 90. What is the causative agent for anthrax?
    Ans: Bacillus Anthracis
  90. 91. How many days will death occur after being exposed to anthrax if left untreated?
    Ans: Within 5-12
  91. 92. Name the three types of carriers that can be used to spread biological weapon agents?
    • Ans: Animals
    • Insects
    • Rodents
  92. 93. What is the fatal rate of pulmonary anthrax?
    Ans: 90%
  93. 94. What riot control agent causes local inflammation of the respiratory tract, sinuses, and eyes?
    Ans: Vomiting Agents
  94. 95. What is the time of effect for anthrax?
    Ans: 1-5 days
  95. 96. What are the four physiological effects of anthrax?
    • Ans: Mild Fever and Fatigue
    • Severe Respiratory Disorders
    • High Fever
    • Rapid Pulse Rate
  96. 97. What is the causative agent for plague?
    Ans: Yersinia Pestis
  97. 98. What is the time of effect for plague?
    Ans: 2-3 days
  98. 99. What type of disease causes pneumonia?
    Ans: Plague
  99. 100. What percent of fatality does untreated plague pneumonia approaches?
    Ans: 100%
  100. 101. What percent can treated plague pneumonia reduces mortality to?
    Ans: 5%
  101. 102. What is the causative agent for tularemia?
    Ans: Francisella Tularensis
  102. 103. What percent of untreated tularemia can result in mortality?
    Ans: 30%-60%
  103. 104. What percent can treated tularemia reduces mortality rate?
    Ans: 1%
  104. 105. What is the time of effect for tularemia?
    Ans: 3-5 days
  105. 106. What type of disease cause respiratory paralysis?
    Ans: Botulinum Toxin
  106. 107. What is the causative agent for botulinum toxin?
    Ans: Clostridium Botulinum
  107. 108. What is the time of effect for botulinum toxin?
    Ans: 2 - 26 days
  108. 109. Name the five physiological effects of plague?
    • Ans: Fever
    • Headache
    • Rapid Heart Rate
    • Hemorrhaging the skin
    • Hemorrhaging the mucous membranes
  109. 110. Name the four physiological effects of tularemia?
    • Ans: Fever
    • Chills
    • Headaches
    • Muscular Pain
  110. 111. Name the physiological effects of botulinum toxin ?
    • Ans: Extreme Weakness
    • Nausea
    • Headaches
    • Intestinal Pain
  111. 112. What are the three general symptoms of any biological disease in the early stages?
    • Ans: Fever
    • Malaise
    • Inflammation
  112. 113. What does fevers depend on within each individual?
    Ans: The person’s resistance
  113. 114. What condition serves as a rough guides to the severity of infection?
    Ans: Fever
  114. 115. What often precedes the fever?
    Ans: A violent chill
  115. 116. What condition is a feeling of bodily discomfort and weakness?
    Ans: Malaise
  116. 117. Name the four symptoms that malaise includes?
    • Ans: Nausea
    • Dizziness
    • Loss of appetite
    • General aches and pains
  117. 118. Name the three symptoms that inflammation includes?
    • Ans: Pain
    • Redness
    • Swelling
  118. 119. What added effect gives nuclear weapons a much more greater destruction capability than conventional high-explosive weapons?
    Ans: Nuclear Radiation
  119. 120. What condition is caused by the reaction of body tissues combating and sealing off an infection?
    Ans: Inflammation
  120. 121. How are nuclear explosion classed?
    Ans: According to the point of detonation with relationship to the surface of the earth
  121. 122. Who many types of nuclear weapon explosion classifications are there?
    Ans: 4
  122. 123. Name the four types of nuclear weapon explosions?
    • Ans: High Altitude Blast
    • Air Blast
    • Surface Blast
    • Subsurface Burst
  123. 124. What type of nuclear explosion is defined as a blast that takes place above 100,000 feet?
    Ans: High Altitude Blast
  124. 125. What is an intense electrical surge that affects electronic or electrical equipment in a burnout?
    Ans: Electromagnetic Pulse (EMP)
  125. 126. What type of nuclear explosion is a fireball blast that place below 100,000 feet?
    Ans: Air Blast
  126. 127. What level is the radiation effect from an air blast?
    Ans: Minimal
  127. 128. What is the front of an air blast called?
    Ans: Mock Front
  128. 129. What type of nuclear explosion is a blast that touches the earth’s surface?
    Ans: Surface Blast
  129. 130. What type of nuclear explosion major aim is to destroy or interrupt satellites and communication system through the effect of an electromagnetic pulse (EMP)?
    Ans: High Altitude Blast
  130. 131. What type of nuclear explosion is a blast that does not touch the earth’s surface?
    Ans: Air Blast
  131. 132. What is done to a large amount of surface materials during a surface blast?
    Ans: Vaporized and taken into the fireball
  132. 133. As the fireball rises, more debris is sucked up? (True or False)
    Ans: True
  133. 134. What is debris sucked up by, as the fireball rises?
    Ans: Strong after winds
  134. 135. What type of nuclear explosion produces most of its damage by the shock waves that accompanies the explosion?
    Ans: Surface Blast
  135. 136. What does most of the debris returns to the earth as, from a surface blast?
    Ans: Radioactive Fallout
  136. 137. What type of nuclear explosion blast causes an overpressurization that crushes everything in its path?
    Ans: Air Blast
  137. 138. How many types of nuclear radiations are there?
    Ans: 2
  138. 139. Name the two types of nuclear radiations?
    • Ans: Initial
    • Residual
  139. 140. What type of nuclear radiation occurs within the first minutes after an explosion?
    Ans: Initial
  140. 141. What type of nuclear explosion main reason of use is its destructive value in weapon detonation?
    Ans: Air Blast
  141. 142. What type of nuclear radiation is dangerous because of the large amount of surface material drawn into the clouds?
    Ans: Residual
  142. 143. What area of a surface blast is much larger than the area affected by heat and shock?
    Ans: Fallout Area
  143. 144. A fireball is formed in a subsurface burst? (True False)
    Ans: True
  144. 145. What type of nuclear explosion is a blast that touches the earth’s surface?
    Ans: Surface Blast
  145. 146. What type of nuclear radiation is of little consequence because the lethal range of its effects is less than that of the blast wave?
    Ans: Initial
  146. 147. What type of nuclear explosion creates a large bubble that rises to the surface?
    Ans: Subsurface Burst
  147. 148. Name the three types of elements that a subsurface burst expels into air after it rises to the surface?
    • Ans: Steam
    • Gases
    • Debris
  148. 149. What type of nuclear radiation occurs thereafter?
    Ans: Residual
  149. 150. What type of form is made after water has been thrown upward after rushing into the cavity of a subsurface burst?
    Ans: Hollow Column
  150. 151. What type of nuclear explosion would be most effective to use against a battle group at sea?
    Ans: Air Blast
  151. 152. What height may the hollow column reach that’s formed by a subsurface burst?
    Ans: Several Thousand Feet
  152. 153. What is formed around the base of the column when the hollow column collapses?
    Ans: Circular Cloud of Mist
  153. 154. What is the circular cloud of mist called that forms around the base of the column?
    Ans: Base Surge
  154. 155. What height will the base surge billows upward to?
    Ans: Several Hundred Feet
  155. 156. What type of nuclear explosion is capable of structurally damaging and sinking many ships?
    Ans: Air Blast
  156. 157. How far will the base surge rapidly expand outward?
    Ans: Several Thousand Yards
  157. 158. What does the detonation of a nuclear bomb creates?
    Ans: Blast Wave
  158. 159. What direction does the blast wave travel in?
    Ans: Outward
  159. 160. What is pressure at the wave front called?
    Ans: Overpressure
  160. 161. Blast waves from nuclear bombs travel at a much greater speed than sound? (True or False)
    Ans: True
  161. 162. What type of nuclear explosion blast is the effective range of blast damage of a surface blast less than because most of the energy is transmitted in the form of a ground or water shock wave?
    Ans: Air Blast
  162. 163. What is formed when a blast wave strikes the earth's surface?
    Ans: Another Wave
  163. 164. What is the other wave formed by when a blast wave strikes the earth's surface?
    Ans: Reflection
  164. 165. What type of wave is formed by the primary and reflected wave combined together?
    Ans: Reinforced Blast Wave
  165. 166. What type of pressure causes most of the physical damage from a nuclear blast?
    Ans: Overpressure
  166. 167. What type of burst creates large water waves?
    Ans: Underwater Bursts
  167. 168. Name the three categories that nuclear weapon effects are divided into?
    • Ans: Blast waves or shock waves
    • Incendiary
    • Radiation
  168. 169. What height does some large wave reach that's created by underwater burst?
    Ans: 90 feet
  169. 170. What is the primary purpose of nuclear weapons?
    Ans: The mass destruction of property and personnel
  170. 171. How many categories are the effects of nuclear weapons divided into?
    Ans: 3
  171. 172. Name the two types of blast injuries that can be caused by blast waves?
    • Ans: Primary (Direct)
    • Secondary (Indirect)
  172. 173. What type of blast injury results from the direction of the air shock wave on the human body?
    Ans: Primary Blast Injury
  173. 174. How many ways can fires originate in a nuclear explosion?
    Ans: 2
  174. 175. What is the first way that a fire can originated in a nuclear explosion?
    Ans: Kindling fuels that can be ignited as a direct result of thermal radiation
  175. 176. What are the three sources from the second way that a fire can originate in a nuclear explosion?
    • Ans: Electrical Short Circuits
    • Broken Gas Line
    • Other interrupted heat source
  176. 177. What are the three important factors in determining the spread of fire?
    • Ans: Interaction of the blast wave
    • Fire
    • Extent of blast damage
  177. 178. Name the two types of nuclear weapon blast that flash burns are likely to occur from?
    • Ans: Air Blast
    • Surface Blast
  178. 179. How many miles from a nuclear weapon blast may second-degree burns be received?
    Ans: 25 or more
  179. 180. What type of blast injury is caused by strong blast winds?
    Ans: Secondary Blast Injury
  180. 181. What element may produce flash blindness that accompanies a nuclear blast?
    Ans: Intense Flash of Light
  181. 182. How many minutes will the eyes recover from flash blindness in the daytime?
    Ans: 15
  182. 183. How many minutes will the eyes recover from flash blindness in the night?
    Ans: 45
  183. 184. What element causes a greater danger to your eyes?
    Ans: Thermal Radiation
  184. 185. Name the two categories that mass fires can be divided into?
    • Ans: Firestorms
    • Conflagrations
  185. 186. How many miles from a nuclear weapon blast may permanent damages to the eyes occur from thermal radiation?
    Ans: 40 or more
  186. 187. What type of blast injury is caused by collapsing buildings?
    Ans: Secondary Blast Injury
  187. 188. What type of mass fire will many fires merge to form a single column of hot gas that rises from the burning area?
    Ans: Firestorms
  188. 189. What type of blast injury is caused by flinging debris?
    Ans: Secondary Blast Injury
  189. 190. What type of mass fire is associated with strong, fire-induced, radial winds?
    Ans: Firestorms
  190. 191. What type of mass fire can spread as long as there is fuel?
    Ans: Conflagrations
  191. 192. How many elements does nuclear radiation hazards consist of?
    Ans: 4
  192. 193. Name the four elements that nuclear radiation hazards consist of?
    • Ans: Alpha Particles
    • Beta Particles
    • Gamma Rays
    • Neutrons
  193. 194. What type of nuclear radiation has little skin-penetrating power?
    Ans: Alpha Particles
  194. 195. What type of nuclear radiation is not easily stopped?
    Ans: Gamma Rays
  195. 196. What type of blast injury is caused by shock waves accompanying an underwater burst at sea?
    Ans: Secondary Blast Injury
  196. 197. What type of nuclear radiation can present a hazard to personnel if the emitters of these particles come into contact with the skin or get inside the body?
    Ans: Beta Particles
  197. 198. What are the two routes that alpha particles must be taken into the body through to be injurious?
    • Ans: Ingestion
    • Cuts
  198. 199. What are the two types of nuclear radiations that initial radiation contains?
    • Ans: Gamma Rays
    • Neutrons
  199. 200. What types of burns does beta particles cause?
    Ans: Radiation Burns
  200. 201. What type of mass fire have moving fire fronts driven by the wing?
    Ans: Conflagrations
  201. 202. What type of nuclear radiation is pure energy?
    Ans: Gamma Rays
  202. 203. What does gamma rays cause atoms to do that touches in the body?
    Ans: Ionize
  203. 204. What type of nuclear radiation has the greatest penetration power?
    Ans: Neutrons
  204. 205. What are the two types of nuclear radiations that are released when neutrons are captured in the atoms of various elements, which become radioactive?
    • Ans: Beta Particles
    • Gamma Rays
  205. 206. What type of nuclear radiation with enough intensity can cause skin burns?
    Ans: Beta Particles
  206. 207. What type of nuclear radiation can penetrate every region of the body?
    Ans: Gamma Rays
  207. 208. What are the two types of nuclear radiations that residual radiation contains?
    • Ans: Gamma Rays
    • Beta Particles
  208. 209. What the four effects from a nuclear explosion that a ship close to a detonation point may sustain considerable material damage?
    • Ans: Air Blast
    • Underwater Shock
    • Water Waves
    • Thermal Radiation
  209. 210. What type of mass fire can develop from a single ignition?
    Ans: Conflagrations
  210. 211. What zone is located around ground zero?
    Ans: Kill Zone
  211. 212. What zone is located outside of ground zero?
    Ans: Damage-Survival Zone
  212. 213. What alters or inhibits radar or radio waves and affects all frequency bands?
    Ans: Blackout
  213. 214. What are the three impacts of water waves?
    • Ans: Distortion of the superstructure
    • Carry away deck gear
    • Flood through damaged weather doors
  214. 215. What is the pressure pulse created in water by an explosion on or below the surface called?
    Ans: Underwater Shock
  215. 216. Underwater shock travels much faster than an air blast? (True or False)
    Ans: True
  216. 217. What type of nuclear radiation will pass right through the body without touching it?
    Ans: Gamma Rays
  217. 218. What are the two primarily areas of the ship will damage be inflicted on from an air blast?
    • Ans: Superstructure
    • Hull above the waterline
  218. 219. What are the four possible effects from an underwater shock?
    • Ans: Damage to the Hull
    • Heavy Machinery
    • Gun Mounts
    • Electronics Systems
  219. 220. What type of effect from an underwater nuclear burst seldom is the primary source of ship damage?
    Ans: Water Wave
  220. 221. What is the interference of radio transmission through ion fields formed in a detonation?
    Ans: Blackout
  221. 222. What does the acronym EMP means?
    Ans: Electromagnetic Pulse
  222. 223. What are the four protective measures that can be taken to protect or harden equipment against damage by EMP?
    • Ans: Metal Shielding
    • Good Grounding
    • Use Of Surge Arresters
    • Proper Arrangement Of Electric Wiring
  223. 224. What does the acronym TREE means?
    Ans: Transient Radiation Effects on Electronics
  224. 225. What is the prolonged disturbance of an underwater nuclear detonation?
    Ans: Blueout
  225. 226. What are the effects of blueouts?
    Ans: Temporary
  226. 227. What are the four procedures that can be used to counteract the effects of black?
    • Ans: Providing alternate paths for communications
    • Shifting radio operating frequencies
    • Changing transmission modes
    • Waiting for blackout effects to diminish
  227. 228. What zone will ships receive severe, moderate or light topside damage as well as operational and equipment damage?
    Ans: Damage-Survival Zone
  228. 229. Name the three members of the survey team or monitoring party?
    • Ans: Monitor
    • Recorder
    • Messenger
  229. 230. What member of the survey team or monitoring party is in charged?
    Ans: Monitor
  230. 231. What is caused by an atmosphere nuclear explosion?
    Ans: Blackout
  231. 232. What are the two important factors that ships or station must take to retain its offense power and carry out its mission against radiation, biological, and chemical agents?
    • Ans: Detection
    • Identification
  232. 233. What make radiation, biological, and chemical agents difficult to detect and identify them?
    Ans: Their Nature
  233. 234. What member of the survey team or monitoring party is responsible for determining intensities of contamination?
    Ans: Monitor
  234. 235. What is caused by ocean basin shock reverberations that interfere with passive sonar systems?
    Ans: Blueout
  235. 236. What member of the survey team or monitoring party maintains a record of intensity readings?
    Ans: Recorder
  236. 237. What team goes through the ship to determine the extent and location of any contamination after a CW, BW, or nuclear attack?
    Ans: Survey Team
  237. 238. What member of the survey team or monitoring party is responsible for the safety of the team?
    Ans: Monitor
  238. 239. How many members does the survey team or monitoring party contain at the minimum?
    Ans: 3
  239. 240. What occurs in the electronics systems as a result of exposure to gamma or neutron radiation?
    Ans: Transient Radiation Effects on Electronics
  240. 241. What member of the survey team or monitoring party is responsible for locations of contamination?
    Ans: Monitor
  241. 242. What member of the survey team or monitoring party may act as a marker?
    Ans: Recorder
  242. 243. How are all accessible areas and equipment surveyed by the detailed method?
    Ans: In a slow methodical manner
  243. 244. What member of the survey team or monitoring party carriers high-range and low-range survey meters?
    Ans: Monitor
  244. 245. How many types of surveys are there?
    • Ans: Rapid
    • Detailed
  245. 246. What member of the survey team or monitoring party reports to DCC the contaminated areas and the readings obtained by the monitor?
    Ans: Messenger
  246. 247. What type of survey is also known as the gross survey?
    Ans: Rapid
  247. 248. What are the four items that each member of the survey team or monitoring party wears?
    • Ans: Protective Mask
    • Protective Clothing
    • Pocket Dosimeter
    • High-Range Casualty Dosimeter
  248. 249. What type of survey is used to determine the effectiveness of decontamination measures?
    Ans: Detailed
  249. 250. What type of wound should not be exposed to a contaminated area?
    Ans: Open Cuts
  250. 251. What type of survey is a preliminary reconnaissance?
    Ans: Rapid
  251. 252. What are the three things that are prohibited in contaminated areas?
    • Ans: Smoking
    • Drinking
    • Eating
  252. 253. What type of system is used to mark areas contaminated by CW, BW, or nuclear agents?
    Ans: Standard System
  253. 254. What type of survey are limited numbers of readings taken in a minimum amount of time?
    Ans: Rapid
  254. 255. What shape are markers?
    Ans: Triangular
  255. 256. What is each type of contamination readily identified by?
    Ans: The color of the marker
  256. 257. What part of the marker indicates the safe limits of the contaminated area?
    Ans: Front
  257. 258. What type of survey is used to obtain a quick estimate of radiation levels at specified locations to determine the possibility of keeping stations manned?
    Ans: Rapid
  258. 259. What are the two types of measurements that are made?
    • Ans: Does Rate
    • Dose
  259. 260. Name the three labels that are assigned to each colors of the marker?
    • Ans: GAS
    • BIO
    • ATOM
  260. 261. What part of the marker contains information about the contaminated area?
    Ans: Front
  261. 262. What are the three pieces of information that the marker contains about the contaminated area?
    • Ans: Date of the detection
    • Time of the detection
    • Type of agent
  262. 263. What is made to determine the degree of contamination when a ship is exposed to radiation?
    Ans: Survey
  263. 264. What type of measurement involves the intensity of the radiation field?
    Ans: Dose Rate
  264. 265. What is the time after exposure when an area may be entered safely called?
    Ans: Safe Entry Time
  265. 266. What is the length of time a person may remain in an area without exceeding permissible radiation exposure levels called?
    Ans: Stay Time
  266. 267. What is the total dose expressed in?
    Ans: Rads
  267. 268. What does the radiac stand for?
    Ans: Radioactivity Detection, Indication, and Computation
  268. 269. What type of measurement involves the total amount received?
    Ans: Dose
  269. 270. Described the appearance of the chemical markers?
    Ans: Yellow triangle with red letters (GAS)
  270. 271. Described the appearance of the biological markers?
    Ans: Blue triangle with red letters (BIO)
  271. 272. Described the appearance of the radiological sign?
    Ans: White triangle with black letters (ATOM)
  272. 273. What are the four ranges that the self-reading pocket dosimeter comes in?
    • Ans: 0 to 5 roentgens
    • 0 to 200 roentgens
    • 0 to 600 roentgens
    • 0 to 200 milliroentgens
  273. 274. Name the two types of personnel dosimeters used for the detection of nuclear radiation?
    • Ans: Self-Reading
    • Nonself-Reading
  274. 275. What is the shape of the self-reading pocket dosimeter?
    Ans: Fountain Pen
  275. 276. What type of personnel dosimeter is a high-range casualty dosimeter?
    Ans: Nonself-Reading
  276. 277. What is the range of the nonself-reading pocket dosimeter?
    Ans: 0 to 600 roentgens
  277. 278. What are the two known phases used to detect BW contaminants?
    • Ans: Sampling Phase
    • Laboratory Stage
  278. 279. Who conducts the sampling phase?
    Ans: CBR survey team
  279. 280. Who conducts the laboratory stage?
    Ans: Medical Personnel
  280. 281. What are the two types of special detection equipment used to detect CW agents?
    • Ans: M256A1 Vapor Sample Detector Kit
    • M8 and M9 Liquid Chemical Agent Papers
  281. 282. What type of equipment is used to detect the presence of phosgene gas?
    Ans: Draeger Tubes
  282. 283. What are the two other types of detection equipment used to detect CW agents?
    • Ans: Portable AN/KAS-1A Chemical Warfare Directional Detector
    • Permanent Chemical Agent Point Detector System
  283. 284. What are the three purposes of the M256A1 vapor sample detector kit?
    • Ans: To check areas suspected of being contaminated
    • To test an area after decontamination operations
    • To indicate when masks might be removed
  284. 285. What should you do as soon as the initial effects of the explosion are over?
    Ans: Put on your mask immediately
  285. 286. What should you do if you do not have a protective mask to put on at the time of the explosion?
    Ans: Cover your nose and mouth
  286. 287. What are the two materials that can be used to cover your nose and mouth?
    • Ans: Handkerchief
    • Cloth
  287. 288. What are the two types of actions that should be taken as protective measures?
    • Ans: Individual
    • Group
  288. 289. Name the two types of clothing used in CBR defense?
    • Ans: Wet Weather Clothing
    • Ordinary Work Clothing
  289. 290. What type of protective mask is used for BW and CW attacks?
    Ans: MCU-2/P
  290. 291. What type of protective action is an immediate concern?
    Ans: Individual
  291. 292. What is the most important piece of protective equipment used against CBR agents?
    Ans: Protective Mask (MCU-2/P)
  292. 293. What are the two functions that the protective mask (MCU-2/P) serves?
    • Ans: Filters the air
    • Purify
  293. 294. What are the five types of gases that the protective mask doesn’t provide protection against?
    • Ans: Smoke
    • Toxic Gases
    • Carbon Monoxide
    • Carbon Dioxide
    • Ammonia
  294. 295. How fast should you be able to don and adjust your protective mask?
    Ans: 10 seconds
  295. 296. What are the three types of elements that the MCU-2/P provides protection against?
    • Ans: Chemical Agents
    • Biological Agents
    • Toxins
    • Radiological Fallout
  296. 297. What item does the MCU-2/P accommodates?
    Ans: Tri-Service/NATO Canister
  297. 298. What type of rubber is the MCU-2/P facepiece made of?
    Ans: Silicone
  298. 299. What are the three features of the MCU-2/P?
    • Ans: Voice Emitters
    • Drinking Tube
    • Flexible Lens
  299. 300. How many voice emitters does the MCU-2/P has?
    Ans: 2
  300. 301. What are the two pieces of clothing that the chemical-protective overgarment consists of?
    • Ans: Smock
    • Trousers
  301. 302. What are the three procedures that can reduce sweating and lengthen tolerance time in the wet-weather clothing?
    • Ans: Reduce exercise rate
    • Using water-spray cooling
    • Reduce exposure to direct sunlight
  302. 303. What is the shelf life of the chemical-protective overgarment when unopened?
    Ans: 5 years
  303. 304. What is the shelf life of the chemical-protective overgarment when opened?
    Ans: 14 days
  304. 305. How many hours of continuous protection does the chemical-protective overgarment provides?
    Ans: 6
  305. 306. What type of material are the overboots made of?
    Ans: Loose-Fitting, Impermeable, Butyl Sheet Rubber
  306. 307. How many hours of continuous protection does the chemical-protective footwear covers provide?
    Ans: 6
  307. 308. What type protective clothing is described as impermeable or rubberized clothing?
    Ans: Wet-Weather Clothing
  308. 309. What is the safest place to be during a nuclear attack?
    Ans: Below the main deck
  309. 310. What is a means of establishing levels of readiness?
    Ans: MOPP
  310. 311. What does the acronym MOPP means?
    Ans: Mission Oriented Protective Posture
  311. 312. How many levels of MOPP are there?
    Ans: 4
  312. 313. What level of MOPP may readiness condition I be relaxed?
    Ans: 3
  313. 314. What are the two options that the MOPP gives the CO?
    • Ans: No Protection
    • Full Protection
  314. 315. What level of MOPP are individual protective equipment and medical supply items issued to shipboard personnel?
    Ans: 1
  315. 316. What level of MOPP are new filter canisters installed on protective masks?
    Ans: 3
  316. 317. What levels of MOPP provides the most protection?
    Ans: 4
  317. 318. What level of MOPP are chemical-protective gloves and medical supply items stowed in the overgarment coat pocket?
    Ans: 3
  318. 319. What is a flexible system of protection against chemical agents?
    Ans: MOPP
  319. 320. What level of MOPP are protective masks fitted for immediate use?
    Ans: 1
  320. 321. What level of MOPP are detection and monitoring teams posted?
    Ans: 3
  321. 322. What level of MOPP are decontamination supplies preposition in decon stations and at repair lockers?
    Ans: 2
  322. 323. What level of MOPP is wet-weather gear provided for donning over protective clothing and equipment?
    Ans: 3
  323. 324. What levels of MOPP provides the least protection?
    Ans: 1
  324. 325. What level of MOPP consists of donning protective mask and securing the hood over the head?
    Ans: 4
  325. 326. What level of MOPP is the material condition zebra set?
    Ans: 3
  326. 327. What is used in CW defense to help accomplish the mission?
    Ans: MOPP
  327. 328. What level of MOPP is the protective mask worn on the person in a carrier?
    Ans: 2
  328. 329. What level of MOPP are overgarment trousers and coat donned with hood down?
    Ans: 3
  329. 330. What level of MOPP are chemical-protective gloves donned?
    Ans: 4
  330. 331. What level of MOPP are chemical/biological defense equipment and supplies inventoried?
    Ans: 1
  331. 332. What level of MOPP are chemical-protective overboots donned?
    Ans: 3
  332. 333. What level of MOPP are continuous monitoring and operation of detection equipment initiated?
    Ans: 4
  333. 334. What level of MOPP are canteens filled with water?
    Ans: 3
  334. 335. What level of MOPP is the material condition yoke set?
    Ans: 1
  335. 336. What level of MOPP will you go to GQ?
    Ans: 3
  336. 337. What level of MOPP is the countermeasure washdown system continuously activated?
    Ans: 4
  337. 338. What level of MOPP is the material condition modify zebra set?
    Ans: 2
  338. 339. What readiness condition level is set at MOPP 1?
    Ans: III
  339. 340. What level of MOPP is personal decontamination kit stowed in mask carrier?
    Ans: 3
  340. 341. What readiness condition level is set at MOPP 3 at the CO’s discretion?
    Ans: II
  341. 342. What level of MOPP is the countermeasure washdown system intermittently activated?
    Ans: 3
  342. 343. What level of MOPP are stowed detection and monitoring equipment, supplies, and empty canteens preposition?
    Ans: 2
  343. 344. What level of MOPP are decontamination stations activated?
    Ans: 3
  344. 345. What level of MOPP is the material condition circle william set?
    Ans: 4
  345. 346. What are the three factors that the setting of MOPP levels depends on from various locations around the ship?
    • Ans: Mission
    • Work Rate
    • Heat Buildup
  346. 347. How many levels of decontamination are there?
    Ans: 4
  347. 348. Name the four levels of decontamination?
    • Ans: Emergency Personnel Decontamination
    • Limited Operation Decontamination
    • Operationally Complete Decontamination
    • Complete Decontamination
  348. 349. What level of decontamination is at sea?
    Ans: Level 3, Operationally Complete Decontamination
  349. 350. What type of decontamination is assigned to level 1?
    Ans: Emergency Personnel Decontamination
  350. 351. What level of decontamination is also known as full decontamination?
    Ans: Level 3, Operationally Complete Decontamination
  351. 352. Name the four types of protective gear that level I safeguard you in?
    • Ans: Mask
    • Protective Overgarment
    • Boots
    • Gloves
  352. 353. What level of decontamination is a degree of decontamination where appropriate chemical tests fail to give positive response for a residual agent?
    Ans: Level 4, Complete Decontamination
  353. 354. What kit gives you the ability to decontaminate skin surfaces?
    Ans: Personnel Decontamination Kit M291
  354. 355. What level of decontamination is necessary to let you, do your job with a minimum risk of contact of chemical agent contamination?
    Ans: Level 2, Limited Operation Decontamination
  355. 356. What type of decontamination is assigned to level 2?
    Ans: Limited Operation Decontamination
  356. 357. What level of decontamination is performed so that the contamination of personal is reduced to a level that results in a significant operational benefit?
    Ans: Level 3, Operationally Complete Decontamination
  357. 358. What are the three elements that the decontamination stations provide?
    • Ans: Soap
    • Detergent
    • Shower Facilities
  358. 359. What level of decontamination is necessary to save your life?
    Ans: Level 1, Emergency Personnel Decontamination
  359. 360. What type of decontamination is assigned to level 3?
    Ans: Operationally Complete Decontamination
  360. 361. What level of decontamination is the lowest level possible?
    Ans: Level 3, Operationally Complete Decontamination
  361. 362. What type of decontamination is assigned to level 4?
    Ans: Complete Decontamination
  362. 363. What level of decontamination is to destroy, neutralize, or remove persistent chemical agents?
    Ans: Level 2, Limited Operation Decontamination
  363. 364. How many types of contamination hazards are there?
    Ans: 2
  364. 365. What level of decontamination should be conducted when there is a reasonable chance that work can be performed without masks or gloves for limited periods?
    Ans: Level 3, Operationally Complete Decontamination
  365. 366. What is the purpose of decontamination?
    Ans: To remove or reduce CBR contamination so that the ship can carry out its mission
  366. 367. What level of decontamination is your responsibility?
    Ans: Level 1, Emergency Personnel Decontamination
  367. 368. How can radiological contamination be removed from the ship?
    Ans: Washing it over the side
  368. 369. What level of decontamination can the ship’s mission be completed without undue hazards to personnel?
    Ans: Level 3, Operationally Complete Decontamination
  369. 370. Name the two types of contamination hazards?
    • Ans: Pickup Hazards
    • Transfer Hazards
  370. 371. What level of decontamination primary purpose is to safeguard you in protective gear?
    Ans: Level 1, Emergency Personnel Decontamination
  371. 372. What type of contamination hazard consists of a surface being touched by an individual, contaminating himself?
    Ans: Pickup Hazards
  372. 373. What level of decontamination depends on the ship’s operating schedule and the urgency of the assigned mission?
    Ans: Level 3, Operationally Complete Decontamination
  373. 374. How are chemical warfare agents treated or removed?
    Ans: Neutralized
  374. 375. What level of decontamination primary purpose is to safeguard you in protective gear?
    Ans: Level 1, Emergency Personnel Decontamination
  375. 376. How are biological warfare agents treated?
    Ans: Destroyed
  376. 377. What type of service does a ship require for a complete decontamination?
    Ans: Shipyard
  377. 378. What level of decontamination depends on the ship’s operating schedule and the urgency of the assigned mission?
    Ans: Level 3, Operationally Complete Decontamination
  378. 379. What are the two washdown methods used to remove radioactive particles?
    • Ans: Mechanical
    • Manual
  379. 380. What type of equipment supplies the water mechanical washdown?
    Ans: Firemain
  380. 381. What type of agent is the washdown system actually a preventive measure against?
    Ans: Fallout
  381. 382. What washdown method sprays water over all weather surfaces?
    Ans: Mechanical
  382. 383. How must heavy contamination be washed away?
    Ans: Hosed down with water under pressure
  383. 384. What type of contamination hazard consists of a chemical agent being picked up, transferred, and then deposited on an uncontaminated area?
    Ans: Transfer Hazards
  384. 385. What level of decontamination is by ship’s personnel?
    Ans: Level 3, Operationally Complete Decontamination
  385. 386. What washdown method consists of hosing and scrubbing down the ship?
    Ans: Manual
  386. 387. What team hose and scrub down the ship to remove contamination?
    Ans: Decontamination Team
  387. 388. What washdown method consists of a system of piping and nozzles?
    Ans: Mechanical
  388. 389. How many members does the decontamination team consist of?
    Ans: 6
  389. 390. Name the six members of the decontamination team?
    • Ans: 1 Monitor
    • 2 Hosemen
    • 3 Other team members
  390. 391. Who’s in charged of the decontamination team?
    Ans: Monitor
  391. 392. What washdown method is called the ship’s water washdown system?
    Ans: Mechanical
  392. 393. How should the hosemen wash down the hotspots with the fire hoses?
    Ans: Moving from the less contaminated area towards the greater contaminated area
  393. 394. Where should the hosemen begin washing down the hotspots?
    Ans: From top to bottom
  394. 395. What hosing method is used to hose down the contaminated areas?
    Ans: Hosing-Scrubbing-Hosing
  395. 396. What term means eliminating the sources of infection?
    Ans: BW Decontamination
  396. 397. What is the most effective way to decontaminate BW agents?
    Ans: Using Chemical Disinfectant
  397. 398. What are the three factors that the type of disinfectant used depends on?
    • Ans: Agent
    • Material
    • Area
  398. 399. What are the three alternatives for decontaminating BW agents?
    • Ans: Burning
    • Dry Heat
    • Moist Heat
  399. 400. What is an example of dry heat decontamination?
    Ans: Hot Air Oven
  400. 401. What degrees should the hot air oven be set to?
    Ans: 180
  401. 402. What is also an effective way to reduce BW contamination?
    Ans: Sunlight
  402. 403. What is an example of moist heat decontamination?
    Ans: Hot Water or Steam
  403. 404. What type of rays from the sunlight kills most BW agents?
    Ans: Ultraviolet rays
  404. 405. What is the simplest means in CW contamination?
    Ans: Weather
  405. 406. What is a decontaminant for CW contamination?
    Ans: Bright Sunlight
  406. 407. How many parts are decon stations divided into?
    Ans: 3
  407. 408. Name the three parts that decon stations divided into?
    • Ans: Contaminated or an Unclean Area
    • Washing Area
    • Clean Area
  408. 409. What system filters the air supply and maintains an overpressure to prevent the penetration of contaminants?
    Ans: Collective Protection System (CBS)
  409. 410. What area of the decon station is undressing done in?
    Ans: Unclean Area
  410. 411. How many minutes should you spend soaping, scrubbing, and rinsing?
    Ans: 5
  411. 412. What should you do after you rinse, soap, and scrub?
    Ans: Rinse
  412. 413. What is used to decontaminate the skin and equipment?
    Ans: M291 Decontamination Kit
  413. 414. How many sealed foil packets the M291 Decontamination Kit contains?
    Ans: 6
  414. 415. How many complete skin applications should you get from a M291 Decontamination Kit?
    Ans: 3
  415. 416. What are the two antidotes used to counteract the effects of nerve agents?
    • Ans: Atropine
    • Oxime
  416. 417. How many atropine autoinjectors will each member be issued?
    Ans: 3
  417. 418. How many oxime autoinjectors will each member be issued?
    Ans: 2
  418. 419. How many minutes should you wait before you administer another autoinjector of atropine?
    Ans: 10 - 15
  419. 420. How many levels of protection are there?
    Ans: 3
  420. 421. What system protects specific areas of the ship from the effects of CBR?
    Ans: Collective Protection System (CBS)
  421. 422. What level of protection consists of the shelter envelope?
    Ans: Level I
  422. 423. How many zones is the CBS divided into?
    Ans: 2
  423. 424. Name the two zones of the CBS?
    • Ans: Total Protection Zone
    • Limited Protection Zone
  424. 425. What level of protection is the maximum operational protection envelope?
    Ans: Level III
  425. 426. What are the three factors that determine the protection level of a ship?
    • Ans: Its Mission
    • Operational Requirements
    • Overall cost of installation
  426. 427. What level of protection is the minimum operational protection envelope?
    Ans: Level II
  427. 428. What zone of the CBS provides a pressurized, toxic-free environment?
    Ans: Total Protection Zone
  428. 429. What level of protection provides protection for messing, berthing, sanitary, and BDF?
    Ans: Level I
  429. 430. What zone of the CBS is not pressurized nor provides protection against chemical agents?
    Ans: Limited Protection Zone
  430. 431. What level of protection provides sufficient protection of the ship for mission requirements?
    Ans: Level III
  431. 432. What percent of protection does level I provides for the crew?
    Ans: 40%
  432. 433. What level of protection provides protection for key operational functions?
    Ans: Level II

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