Complete Test 201.txt

Card Set Information

Author:
amajdecki
ID:
65953
Filename:
Complete Test 201.txt
Updated:
2011-02-12 21:50:20
Tags:
Study
Folders:

Description:
Security Plus
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview

The flashcards below were created by user amajdecki on FreezingBlue Flashcards. What would you like to do?


  1. 2. Why do security researchers often use virtual machines?
    A. To offer an environment where new network applications can be tested
    B. To offer a secure virtual environment to conduct online deployments
    C. To offer a virtual collaboration environment to discuss security research
    D. To offer an environment where malware can be executed with minimal risk to equipment and software
    ANSWER: D
  2. 20. Virtualized applications, such as virtualized browsers, can protect the underlying operating system from which of the following?
    A. Malware installation from suspects Internet sites
    B. DDoS attacks against the underlying OS
    C. Man?in?the?middle attacks
    D. Phishing and span attacks
    ANSWER: A
  3. 38. For the following items, which is a security limitation of virtualization technology?
    A. A compromise of one instance will immediately compromise all instances.
    B. It increases false positives on the NIDS.
    C. Patch management becomes more time consuming.
    D. If an attack occurs, it could potentially disrupt multiple servers.
    ANSWER: D
  4. 39.A company?s new employees are asked to sign a document that describes the methods of and purposes for accessing the company? s IT systems. Which of the following BEST describes this document?
    A. Privacy Act of 1974
    B. Authorized Access Policy
    C. Due diligence form
    D. Acceptable Use Policy
    ANSWER: D
  5. 40. What technology is able to isolate a host OS from some types of security threats?
    A. Kiting
    B. Virtualization
    C. Cloning
    D. Intrusion detection
    ANSWER: B
  6. 49. To aid in preventing the execution of malicious code in email clients, which of the following should be done by the email administrator?
    A. Spam and anti?virus filters should be used
    B. Regular updates should be performed
    C. Preview screens should be disabled
    D. Email client features should be disabled
    ANSWER: A
  7. 58. While hardening an operating system, which item is LEAST effective?
    A. Configuration baselines
    B. Limiting administrative privileges
    C. Installing HIDS
    D. Install a software firewall
    ANSWER: C
  8. 72. Which method will most effectively verify that a patch file downloaded from a third party has not been modified since the time that the original manufacturer released the patch?
    A. Compare the final MD5 hash with the original.
    B. Compare the final LANMAN hash with the original.
    C. Download the patch file through a SSL connection.
    D. Download the patch file over an AES encrypted VPN connection.
    ANSWER: A
  9. 74. Which action should be performed to harden workstations and servers?
    A. Report all security incidents.
    B. Install only needed software.
    C. Log on only as the administrator.
    D. Check the logs regularly.
    ANSWER: B
  10. 82. Which item specifies a set of consistent requirements for a workstation or server?
    A. Patch management
    B. Vulnerability assessment
    C. Imaging software
    D. Configuration baseline
    ANSWER: D
  11. 26. In computer security, an access control list (ACL) is a list of permissions attached to an object. Which log will reveal activities about ACL?
    A. Performance
    B. Mobile device
    C. Firewall
    D. Transaction
    ANSWER: C
  12. 22. For the following items, which one is a collection of servers? setup to attract hackers?
    A. Honeypot
    B. VLAN
    C. Honeynet
    D. DMZ
    ANSWER: C
  13. 27. The ability to logon to multiple systems with the same credentials is typically known as?
    A. decentralized management
    B. single sign?on
    C. Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
    D. centralized management
    ANSWER: B
  14. 28. For the following options, which is an area of the network infrastructure that allows a technician to put public facing systems into it without compromising the entire infrastructure?
    A. YLAN
    B. VPN
    C. NAT
    D. DMZ
    ANSWER: D
  15. 117. Which of the following is MOST often used to allow a client or partner access to a network?
    A. Extranet
    B. Intranet
    C. VLAN
    D. Demilitarized zone (DMZ)
    ANSWER: A
  16. 118. In a secure environment, which authentication mechanism will perform better?
    A. RADIUS because it encrypts client?server passwords.
    B. TACACS because it encrypts client?server negotiation dialogs.
    C. TACACS because it is a remote access authentication service.
    D. RADIUS because it is a remote access authentication service.
    ANSWER: B
  17. 119. Which of the following types of firewalls provides inspection at layer 7 of the OSI model?
    A. Application?proxy
    B. Network address translation (NAT)
    C. Packet filters
    D. Stateful inspection
    ANSWER: A
  18. 124. Which one of the following is not Bluetooth threat?
    A. blue jacking.
    B. bluesnarfing.
    C. discovery mode.
    D. a smurf attack.
    ANSWER: D
  19. 125. A company implements an SMTP server on their firewall. This implementation would violate which of the following security principles?
    A. Keep the solution simple
    B. Use a device as intended
    C. Create an in?depth defense
    D. Address internal threats
    ANSWER: B
  20. 127. A company is upgrading the network and needs to reduce the ability of users on the same floor and network segment to see each other? s traffic. Which of the following network devices should be used?
    A. Router
    B. Hub
    C. Switch
    D. Firewall
    ANSWER: C
  21. 128. In computing, a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) is a type of Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) that specifies where an identified resource is available and the mechanism for retrieving it. When a user attempts to go to a website, he notices the URL has changed, which attack will
    MOST likely cause the problem?
    A. ARC poisoning
    B. DLL injection
    C. DNS poisoning
    D. DDoS attack
    ANSWER: C
  22. 131. A company?s security specialist is securing a web server that is reachable from the Internet. The web server is located in the core internal corporate network. The network cannot be redesigned and the server cannot be moved. Which of the following should the security specialist implement to secure the web server? (Select TWO).
    A. Router with an IDS module
    B. Network?based IDS
    C. Router with firewall rule set
    D. Host?based IDS
    E. Network?based firewall
    F. Host?based firewall
    ANSWER: D, F
  23. 134. A network intrusion detection system (NIBS) is an intrusion detection system that tries to detect malicious activity such as denial of service attacks, port scans or even attempts to crack into computers by monitoring network traffic. Which NIDS configuration is solely based on specific network traffic?
    A. Anomaly?based
    B. Host?based
    C. Behavior?based
    D. Signature?based
    ANSWER: D
  24. 135. Which of the following are nonessential protocols and services?
    A. Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP)
    B. TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol).
    C. Domain Name Service (DNS)
    D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
    ANSWER: B
  25. 140. Which item will MOST likely permit an attacker to make a switch function like a hub?
    A. MAC flooding
    B. DNS spoofing
    C. ARP poisoning
    D. DNS poisoning
    ANSWER: A
  26. 170. What are best practices while installing and securing a new system for a home user? (Select
    THREE).
    A. Use a strong firewall.
    B. Install remote control software.
    C. Apply all system patches.
    D. Apply all service packs.
    ANSWER: A, C, D
  27. 177. The purpose of the SSID in a wireless network is to.
    A. defines the encryption protocols used.
    B. secure the WAP
    C. identify the network
    D. protect the client
    ANSWER: C
  28. 183. Choose the figure which represents the number of ports in the TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) which are vulnerable to being scanned, attacked, and exploited.
    A. 32 ports
    B. 1,024 ports
    C. 65,535 ports
    D. 16,777,216 ports
    ANSWER: C
  29. 187. To keep an 802.11x network from being automatically discovered, a user should.
    A. turn off the SSID broadcast.
    B. leave the SSID default.
    C. change the SSID name.
    D. activate the SSID password
    ANSWER: A
  30. 189. Which of the following BEST describes the baseline process of securing devices on a network infrastructure?
    A. Enumerating
    B. Hardening
    C. Active prevention
    D. Passive detection
    ANSWER: B
  31. 192. After installing new software on a machine, what needs to be updated to the baseline?
    A. Honeypot
    B. Signature?based NIPS
    C. Signature?based NIDS
    D. Behavior?based HIDS
    ANSWER: D
  32. 195. A company wants to connect the network to a manufacturer?s network to be able to order parts. Which of the following types of networks should the company implement to provide the connection while limiting the services allowed over the connection?
    A. Scatternet
    B. Extranet
    C. VPN
    D. Intranet
    ANSWER: B
  33. 199. Fiber optic cable is considered safer than CAT5 because fiber optic cable. (Select Two).
    A. is not susceptible to interference.
    B. is hard to tap in to.
    C. is made of glass rather than copper.
    D. can be run for a longer distance
    E. is more difficult to install
    ANSWER: A, B
  34. 307. Which of the following protocols is used to transmit data between a web browser and a web server?
    A. SSH
    B. HTTP
    C. SFTP
    D. IMAP4
    ANSWER: B
  35. 312. Which security application cannot proactively detect workstation anomalies?
    A. HIPS
    B. NIDS
    C. antivirus software
    D. personal software firewall.
    ANSWER: B
  36. 317. From the listing of attacks, choose the attack which exploits session initiation between a Transport Control Program (TCP) client and server within a network?
    A. Buffer Overflow attack
    B. SYN attack
    C. Smurf attack
    D. Birthday attack
    ANSWER: B
  37. 322. For the following items, which one is a collection of servers setup to attract hackers?
    A. VLAN
    B. DMZ
    C. Honeynet
    D. Honeypot
    ANSWER: C
  38. 323. From the listing of attacks, choose the attack which misuses the TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) three?way handshake process, in an attempt to overload network servers, so that authorized users are denied access to network resources?
    A. Man in the middle attack
    B. Smurf attack
    C. Teardrop attack
    D. SYN (Synchronize) attack
    ANSWER: D
  39. 328. In computing, a stateful firewall (any firewall that performs stateful packet inspection (SPI) or stateful inspection) is a firewall that keeps track of the state of network connections (such as TCP streams, UDP communication) traveling across it. You have been studying stateful packet inspection and want to perform this security technique on the network. Which device will you use to BEST utilize stateful packet inspection?
    A. Switch
    B. Hub
    C. IDS
    D. Firewall
    ANSWER: D
  40. 330. The NIC should be placed in which mode to monitor all network traffic while placing a NIDS onto the network?
    A. Promiscuous
    B. Half-duplex
    C. Full-duplex
    D. Auto
    ANSWER: A
  41. 349. Which of the following has largely replaced SLIP?
    A. SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol)
    B. PPP (Point?to?Point Protocol)
    C. VPN
    D. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial?In User Service)
    ANSWER: B
  42. 364. Which media is LEAST susceptible to a tap being placed on the line?
    A. Fiber
    B. Coaxial
    C. UTP
    D. STP
    ANSWER: A
  43. 376. On a company?s LAN, port 3535 is typically blocked for outbound traffic. An end?user has recently purchased a legitimate business program that needs to make outbound calls through this port. Which step should be taken by a technician to allow this? (Select TWO).
    A. Change the user?s subnet mask.
    B. Open the port on the company?s firewall.
    C. Open the port on the VLAN.
    D. Open the port on the user?s personal software firewall.
    ANSWER: B, D
  44. 378. Which method is the easiest to disable a 10Base2 network?
    A. Remove a vampire tap.
    B. Introduce crosstalk.
    C. Remove a terminator.
    D. Install a zombie.
    ANSWER: C
  45. 382. The purpose of a DNS server is to enable people and applications to lookup records in DNS tables. Why implement security logging on a DNS server?
    A. To monitor unauthorized zone transfers
    B. To control unauthorized DNS DoS
    C. To measure the DNS server performance
    D. To perform penetration testing on the DNS server
    ANSWER: A
  46. 390. Study the following items carefully, which one will permit a user to float a domain registration for a maximum of five days?
    A. Spoofing
    B. DNS poisoning
    C. Domain hijacking
    D. Kiting
    ANSWER: D
  47. 59. Which of the following types of attacks is BEST described as an attacker capturing part of a communication and later sending that communication segment to the server while pretending to be the client?
    A. TCP/IP hijacking
    B. Replay
    C. Back door
    D. Man in the middle
    ANSWER: B
  48. 165. Which of the following is used to determine equipment status and modify the configuration or settings of network devices?
    A. SNMP
    B. DHCP
    C. SMTP
    D. CHAP
    ANSWER: A
  49. 203. Which of the following access attacks would involve looking through your files in the hopes of finding something interesting?
    A. Interception
    B. Snooping
    C. Eavesdropping
    D. None of the above
    ANSWER: B
  50. 227. Which of the following definitions would be correct regarding Active Interception?
    A. Someone looking through your files
    B. Involve someone who routinely monitors network traffic
    C. Listening or overhearing parts of a conversation
    D. Placing a computer system between the sender and receiver to capture information.
    ANSWER: D
  51. 269. One of the below options are correct regarding the DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack?
    A. Listening or overhearing parts of a conversation
    B. Placing a computer system between the sender and receiver to capture information
    C. Use of multiple computers to attack a single organization
    D. Prevention access to resources by users authorized to use those resources
    ANSWER: C
  52. 278. An accountant has logged onto the company?s outside banking website. An administrator uses a TCP/IP monitoring tool to discover that the accountant was actually using a spoofed banking website. What most likely cause this attack? (Select TWO).
    A. Altered hosts file
    B. Bluesnarfing
    C. Network mapper
    D. DNS poisoning
    ANSWER: A, D
  53. 281. Which of the following BEST describes an attempt to transfer DNS zone data?
    A. Evasion
    B. Fraggle
    C. Teardrop
    D. Reconnaissance
    ANSWER: D
  54. 305. Which of the following attacks are being referred to if the attack involves the attacker gaining access to a host in the network and logically disconnecting it?
    A. TCP/IP Hijacking
    B. UDP Attack
    C. ICMP Attacks
    D. Smurf Attacks
    ANSWER: A
  55. 311. Which of the following attacks are being referred to if packets are not connection?oriented and do not require the synchronization process?
    A. TCP/IP Hijacking
    B. UDP Attack
    C. ICMP Attacks
    D. Smurf Attacks
    ANSWER: B
  56. 92. Which description is correct about the standard load for all systems?
    A. Configuration baseline
    B. Group policy
    C. Patch management
    D. Security template
    ANSWER: A
  57. 105. To reduce vulnerabilities on a web server, an administrator should adopt which of the following preventative measures?
    A. Use packet sniffing software on all inbound communications
    B. Apply the most recent manufacturer updates and patches to the server.
    C. Enable auditing on the web server and periodically review the audit logs
    D. Block all Domain Name Service (DNS) requests coming into the server.
    ANSWER: B
  58. 109. The employees at a company are using instant messaging on company networked computers. The MOST important security issue to address when using instant messaging is that instant messaging.
    A. communications are a drain on bandwidth
    B. communications are open and unprotected
    C. has no common protocol
    D. uses weak encryption
    ANSWER: B
  59. 110. Removable storage has been around almost as long as the computer itself. Which of the following is the GREATEST security risk regarding removable storage?
    A. Availability of data
    B. Integrity of data
    C. Not enough space available
    D. Confidentiality of data
    ANSWER: D
  60. 120. Which goals can be achieved by use of security templates? (Select Two).
    A. To ensure that PKI will work properly within the company?s trust model
    B. To ensure that performance is standardized across all servers
    C. To ensure that servers are in compliance with the corporate security policy
    D. To ensure that all servers start from a common security configuration
    ANSWER: C, D
  61. 132. A denial-of-service attack (DoS attack) or distributed denial-of-service attack (DDoS attack) is an attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users. Which method can be used to perform denial of service (DoS) attacks?
    A. Adware
    B. Botnet
    C. Spyware
    D. Privilege escalation
    ANSWER: B
  62. 141. Which of the following describes a server or application that is accepting more input than the server or application is expecting?
    A. Denial of service (DoS)
    B. Syntax error
    C. Buffer overflow
    D. Brute force
    ANSWER: C
  63. 147. A security specialist has downloaded a free security software tool from a trusted industry site. The source has published the MD5 hash values for the executable program. The specialist performs a successful virus scan on the download but the MD5 hash is different. Which of the following steps should the specialist take?
    A. Avoid executing the file and contact the source website administrator
    B. Ignore the M115 hash values because the values can change during I? fragmentation.
    C. Re?run the anti?virus program to ensure that it contains no virus execute
    D. Install the executable program because there was probably a mistake with the MD5 value.
    ANSWER: A
  64. 151. Which of the following would be the BEST reason to disable unnecessary services on a server?
    A. Not starting a service will save system memory and reduce startup time.
    B. If a service doesn?t support the function of the server the service won?t be missed.
    C. Attack surface and opportunity for compromise are reduced
    D. Services can be re?enabled if needed at a later time
    ANSWER: C
  65. 160. Which item can reduce the attack surface of an operating system?
    A. Installing HIDS
    B. Patch management
    C. Installing antivirus
    D. Disabling unused services
    ANSWER: D
  66. 164. Which description is correct about a way to prevent buffer overflows?
    A. Apply all security patches to workstations.
    B. Monitor P2P program usage through content filters.
    C. Apply security templates enterprise wide.
    D. Apply group policy management techniques.
    ANSWER: A
  67. 184. Tom is a network technician of his company. Now, he is making a decision between implementing a HIDS on the database server and implementing a NIDS Why NIDS may be better to implement?
    (Select Two).
    A. Many HIDS only offer a low level of detection granularity.
    B. Many HIDS are not able to detect network attacks.
    C. Many HIDS have a negative impact on system performance.
    D. Many HIDS are not good at detecting attacks on database servers.
    ANSWER: B, C
  68. 190. In computing, virtualization is a broad term that refers to the abstraction of computer resources. Which is a security reason to implement virtualization throughout the network infrastructure?
    A. To implement additional network services at a lower cost
    B. To analyze the various network traffic with protocol analyzers
    C. To isolate the various network services and roles
    D. To centralize the patch management of network servers
    ANSWER: C
  69. 191. Which of the following types of removable media is write-once and appropriate for archiving security logs?
    A. Tape
    B. CDR
    C. Hard disk
    D. USB drive
    ANSWER: B
  70. 194. A PC is rejecting push updates from the server, all other PCs on the network are accepting the updates successfully. What should be examined first?
    A. Password expiration
    B. Local firewall
    C. Anti?spyware
    D. Pop?up blocker
    ANSWER: B
  71. 212. Users on a network report that they are receiving unsolicited emails from the same email address. Which action should be performed to prevent this from occurring?
    A. Install an ACL on the firewall to block traffic from the sender and filter the IP address.
    B. Configure a rule in each user?s router and restart the router.
    C. Install an anti-spam filter on the domain mail servers and filter the email address.
    D. Configure rules on the users host and restart the host.
    ANSWER: C
  72. 214. Users are using thumb drives to connect to USB ports on company workstations. A technician is concerned that sensitive files can be copied to the USB drives. Which mitigation technique would address this concern? (Select TWO).
    A. Disable the USB root hub within the OS.
    B. Apply the concept of least privilege to USB devices.
    C. Disable USB within the workstations BIOS.
    D. Run spyware detection against all workstations.
    ANSWER: A, C
  73. 239. The concept that a web script is run in its own environment and cannot interfere with any other process is known as a.
    A. honey pot
    B. VLAN
    C. quarantine
    D. sandbox
    ANSWER: D
  74. 246. Patch management must be combined with full?featured systems management to be effective. Determining which patches are needed, applying the patches and which of the following are three generally accepted activities of patch management?
    A. Backing up the patch file executables to a network share
    B. Updating the firewall configuration to include the patches
    C. Auditing for the successful application of the patches
    D. Running a NIDS report to list the remaining vulnerabilities
    ANSWER: C
  75. 252. Which technology is able to isolate a host OS from some types of security threats?
    A. Kiting
    B. Virtualization
    C. Cloning
    D. Intrusion detection
    ANSWER: B
  76. 260. Which of the following can affect heaps and stacks?
    A. SQL injection
    B. Cross-site scripting (XSS)
    C. Buffer overflows
    D. Rootkits
    ANSWER: C
  77. 270. Why malware that uses virtualization techniques is difficult to detect?
    A. The malware may be implementing a proxy server for command and control.
    B. A portion of the malware may have been removed by the IDS.
    C. The malware may be using a Trojan to infect the system.
    D. The malware may be running at a more privileged level than the antivirus software.
    ANSWER: D
  78. 272. A graphical user interface (GUI) is a type of user interface which allows people to interact with electronic devices such as computers; hand?held devices such as MP3 Players, Portable Media Players or Gaming devices; household appliances and office equipment. Which of the following will permit a technician to restrict a users access to the GUI?
    A. Use of logical tokens
    B. Group policy implementation
    C. Password policy enforcement
    D. Access control lists
    ANSWER: B
  79. 285. Which of the following are components of host hardening? (Select Two).
    A. Removing a user?s access to the user?s data.
    B. Adding users to the administrator group.
    C. Disabling unnecessary services.
    D. Configuring the Start menu and Desktop
    E. Applying patches
    ANSWER: C, E
  80. 294. While monitoring application activity and modification, which system should be used?
    A. NIDS
    B. RADIUS
    C. HIDS
    D. OVAL
    ANSWER: C
  81. 300. Your company?s website permits customers to search for a product and display the current price and quantity available of each product from the production database. Which of the following will invalidate an SQL injection attack launched from the lookup field at the web server level?
    A. NIPS
    B. Security template
    C. Buffer overflow protection
    D. Input validation
    ANSWER: D
  82. 301. The FIRST step in creating a security baseline would he.
    A. identifying the use case
    B. installing software patches
    C. vulnerability testing.
    D. creating a security policy
    ANSWER: D
  83. 304. You work as a network technician. You have been asked to reconstruct the infrastructure of an organization. You should make sure that the virtualization technology is implemented securely. What should be taken into consideration while implementing virtualization technology?
    A. The technician should perform penetration testing on all the virtual servers to monitor performance.
    B. The technician should verify that the virtual servers and the host have the latest service packs and patches applied.
    C. The technician should verify that the virtual servers are dual homed so that traffic is securely separated.
    D. The technician should subnet the network so each virtual server is on a different network segment.
    ANSWER: B
  84. 308. Which method can be used to correct a single security issue on a workstation?
    A. A patch
    B. Configuration baseline
    C. A service pack
    D. Patch management
    ANSWER: A
  85. 320. A peer-to-peer computer network uses diverse connectivity between participants in a network and the cumulative bandwidth of network participants rather than conventional centralized resources where a relatively low number of servers provide the core value to a service or application. Which of the following is a security risk while using peer-to-peer software?
    A. Licensing
    B. Cookies
    C. Data leakage
    D. Multiple streams
    ANSWER: C
  86. 325. A technician is helping an organization to correct problems with staff members unknowingly downloading malicious code from Internet websites. Which of the following should the technician do to resolve the problem?
    A. Use Java virtual machines to reduce impact
    B. Disable unauthorized ActiveX controls
    C. Implement a policy to minimize the problem
    D. Install a NIDS
    ANSWER: B
  87. 331. Which of the following is an installable package that includes several patches from the same vendor for various applications?
    A. Hotfix
    B. Patch template
    C. Service pack
    D. Patch rollup
    ANSWER: C
  88. 332. Which item can be commonly programmed into an application for ease of administration?
    A. Back door
    B. Trojan
    C. Worm
    D. Zombie
    ANSWER: A
  89. 334. Which of the following is MOST effective in preventing adware?
    A. Firewall
    B. HIDS
    C. Antivirus
    D. Pop-up blocker
    ANSWER: D
  90. 346. Look at the following items, which one usually applies specifically to a web browser?
    A. Anti-spyware
    B. Pop-up blocker
    C. Personal software firewall
    D. Antivirus
    ANSWER: B
  91. 380. Host intrusion detection systems (HIDS) and network intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are methods of security management for computers and networks. A HIDS is installed to monitor which of following?
    A. Temporary Internet files
    B. CPU performance
    C. System files
    D. NIC performance
    ANSWER: C
  92. 387. Which of the following is a security reason to implement virtualization throughout the network infrastructure?
    A. To analyze the various network traffic with protocol analyzers
    B. To centralize the patch management of network servers
    C. To isolate the various network services and roles
    D. To implement additional network services at a lower cost
    ANSWER: C
  93. 391. Which of the following definitions BEST suit Java Applet?
    A. It is a programming language that allows access to system resources of the system running the script
    B. The client browser must have the ability to run Java applets in a virtual machine on the client
    C. It can also include a digital signature to verify authenticity
    D. It allows customized controls, icons, and other features to increase the usability of web enabled systems
    ANSWER: B
  94. 399. Which of the following statements are true regarding File Sharing?
    A. FTP is a protocol, a client, and a server.
    B. Security was based on the honor system.
    C. As discussed earlier, SSH is a program that allows connections to be secured by encrypting the session between the client and the server.
    D. When files are stored on a workstation, the connection is referred to as a peer-to-peer connection.
    ANSWER: D
  95. 12. Which threat is increased by the availability of portable external storage such as USB hard drives to networks?
    A. Increased loss business data
    B. Introduction of material on to the network
    C. Removal of sensitive and PIT data
    D. Introduction of rogue wireless access points
    ANSWER: C
  96. 24. Which description is correct about an application or string of code that could not automatically spread from one system to another but is designed to spread from file to file?
    A. Botnet
    B. Adware
    C. Worm
    D. Virus
    ANSWER: D
  97. 52. Which practice can best code applications in a secure manner?
    A. Input validation
    B. Object oriented coding
    C. Cross?site scripting
    D. Rapid Application Development (RAD)
    ANSWER: A
  98. 61. Malicious code that enters a target system, lays dormant until a user opens the certain program then deletes the contents of attached network drives and removable storage devices is known as a?
    A. worm
    B. Trojan horse
    C. logic bomb
    D. honeypot
    ANSWER: C
  99. 107. Which of the following is a common type of attack on web servers?
    A. Birthday
    B. Buffer overflow
    C. Spam
    D. Brute force
    ANSWER: B
  100. 73. Non-essential services are often appealing to attackers because non-essential services. (Select TWO)
    A. consume less bandwidth
    B. are not visible to an IDS
    C. provide root level access
    D. decrease the surface area for the attack
    E. are not typically configured correctly or secured
    F. sustain attacks that go unnoticed
    ANSWER: E, F
  101. 75. A user downloads and installs a new screen saver and the program starts to rename and delete random files. Which of the following would be the BEST description of this program?
    A. Worm
    B. Virus
    C. Trojan horse
    D. Logic bomb
    ANSWER: C
  102. 77. Which of the following types of malicious software travels across computer networks without requiring a user to distribute the software?
    A. Virus
    B. Worm
    C. Trojan horse
    D. Logic bomb
    ANSWER: B
  103. 91. Which of the following programming techniques should be used to prevent buffer overflow attacks?
    A. Input validation
    B. Nested loops
    C. Signed applets
    D. Automatic updates
    ANSWER: A
  104. 152. For the following items, which is an example of an attack that executes once a year on a certain date?
    A. Rootkit
    B. Virus
    C. Logic bomb
    D. Worm
    ANSWER: C
  105. 179. Which of the following would be the MOST common method for attackers to spoof email?
    A. Web proxy
    B. Man in the middle attacks
    C. Trojan horse programs
    D. Open relays
    ANSWER: D
  106. 181. Which of the following is often misused by spyware to collect and report a user?s activities?
    A. Persistent cookie
    B. Web bug
    C. Tracking cookie
    D. Session cookie
    ANSWER: C
  107. 206. John works as a network administrator for his company. On the monthly firewall log, he discovers that many internal PCs are sending packets on a routine basis to a single external PC. Which statement correctly describes what is happening?
    A. The remote PC has a zombie slave application running and the local PCs have a zombie master application running.
    B. The remote PC has a zombie master application running and the local PCs have a zombie slave application running.
    C. The remote PC has a spam slave application running and the local PCs have a spam master application running.
    D. The remote PC has a spam master application running and the local PCs have a spam slave application running.
    ANSWER: B
  108. 219. Malicious software that travels across computer networks without user assistance is an example of a?
    A. worm
    B. virus
    C. logic bomb
    D. Trojan hors
    ANSWER: A
  109. 244. Which one of the following options will permit an attacker to hide the presence of malicious code through altering the systems process and registry entries?
    A. Trojan
    B. Logic bomb
    C. Worm
    D. Rootkit
    ANSWER: D
  110. 247. The MOST common exploits of Internet?exposed network services are due to.
    A. illicit servers
    B. Trojan horse programs
    C. active content (e.g. Java Applets)
    D. buffer overflows
    ANSWER: D
  111. 277. Which of the following types of programs autonomously replicates itself across networks?
    A. Trojan horse
    B. Worm
    C. Virus
    D. Spyware
    ANSWER: B
  112. 310. Which one of the following options overwrites the return address within a program to execute malicious code?
    A. Buffer overflow
    B. Rootkit
    C. Logic bomb
    D. Privilege escalation
    ANSWER: A
  113. 329. To which of the following viruses does the characteristic when the virus will attempt to avoid detection by masking itself from applications. It may attach itself to the boot sector of the hard drive, form part of?
    A. Polymorphic Virus
    B. Trojan Horse Virus
    C. Stealth Virus
    D. Retrovirus
    ANSWER: C
  114. 333. To which of the following viruses does the characteristic when the virus may attempt to infect your boot sector, infect all of your executable files, and destroy your applications files form part of?
    A. Multipartite Virus
    B. Armored Virus
    C. Companion Virus
    D. Phage Virus
    ANSWER: A
  115. 337. Choose the statement that best details the difference between a worm and a Trojan horse?
    A. Worms are distributed through e?mail messages while Trojan horses do not.
    B. Worms self replicate while Trojan horses do not.
    C. Worms are a form of malicious code while Trojan horses are not.
    D. There is no difference between a worm and a Trojan horse.
    ANSWER: B
  116. 339. Choose the statement which best defines the characteristics of a computer virus.
    A. A computer virus is a find mechanism, initiation mechanism and can propagate.
    B. A computer virus is a learning mechanism, contamination mechanism and can exploit.
    C. A computer virus is a search mechanism, connection mechanism and can integrate.
    D. A computer virus is a replication mechanism, activation mechanism and has an objective.
    ANSWER: D
  117. 358. Which one of the following options is an attack launched from multiple zombie machines in attempt to bring down a service?
    A. TCP/IP hijacking
    B. DoS
    C. DDoS
    D. Man?in?the?middle
    ANSWER: C
  118. 365. Which of the following attacks are being referred to if someone is accessing your e?mail server and sending inflammatory information to others?
    A. Trojan Horse.
    B. Phage Virus.
    C. Repudiation Attack.
    D. Polymorphic Virus.
    ANSWER: C
  119. 384. Which security threat will affect PCs and can have its software updated remotely by a command and control center?
    A. Zombie
    B. Adware
    C. Worm
    D. Virus
    ANSWER: A
  120. 385. Which of the following web vulnerabilities is being referred to when it receives more data than it is programmed to accept?
    A. Buffer Overflows.
    B. Cookies.
    C. CGI.
    D. SMTP Relay
    ANSWER: A
  121. 393. Which of the following definitions BEST suit Buffer Overflow?
    A. It receives more data than it is programmed to accept.
    B. It is used to provide a persistent, customized web experience for each visit.
    C. It?s an older form of scripting that was used extensively in early web systems
    D. It has a feature designed into many e?mail servers that allows them to forward e?mail to other e?mail servers
    ANSWER: A
  122. 1. Who is responsible for establishing access permissions to network resources in the DAC access control model?
    A. The system administrator.
    B. The owner of the resource.
    C. The system administrator and the owner of the resource.
    D. The user requiring access to the resource.
    ANSWER: B
  123. 3. Which access control system allows the system administrator to establish access permissions to network resources?
    A. MAC
    B. DAC
    C. RBAC
    D. None of the above.
    ANSWER: A
  124. 5. Which of the following access control models uses roles to determine access permissions?
    A. MAC
    B. DAC
    C. RBAC
    D. None of the above.
    ANSWER: C
  125. 11. How is access control permissions established in the RBAC access control model?
    A. The system administrator.
    B. The owner of the resource.
    C. The role or responsibilities users have in the organization.
    D. None of the above.
    ANSWER: C
  126. 13. What does the DAC access control model use to identify the users who have permissions to a resource?
    A. Predefined access privileges.
    B. The role or responsibilities users have in the organization
    C. Access Control Lists
    D. None of the above.
    ANSWER: C
  127. 15. Which of the following refers to the ability to be reasonably certain that data is not disclosed to unintended persons?
    A. Non?repudiation
    B. Integrity
    C. Authentication
    D. Confidentiality
    ANSWER: D
  128. 21. What does the MAC access control model use to identify the users who have permissions to a resource?
    A. Predefined access privileges.
    B. The role or responsibilities users have in the organization
    C. Access Control Lists
    D. None of the above
    ANSWER: A
  129. 23. Which of the following statements regarding the MAC access control models is TRUE?
    A. The Mandatory Access Control (MAC) model is a dynamic model.
    B. In the Mandatory Access Control (MAC) the owner of a resource establishes access privileges
    to that resource.
    C. In the Mandatory Access Control (MAC) users cannot share resources dynamically.
    D. The Mandatory Access Control (MAC) model is not restrictive.
    ANSWER: C
  130. 25. Which of the following are types of certificate?based authentication? (Select TWO)
    A. Many?to?one mapping
    B. One?to?one mapping
    C. One?to?many mapping
    D. Many?to?many mapping
    ANSWER: A, B
  131. 30. Remote authentication allows you to authenticate Zendesk users using a locally hosted script. Which of the following is an example of remote authentication?
    A. A user on a metropolitan area network (MAN) accesses a host by entering a username and password pair while not connected to the LAN.
    B. A user on a campus area network (CAN) connects to a server in another building and enters a username and password pair.
    C. A user in one building logs on to the network by entering a username and password into a host in the same building.
    D. A user in one city logs onto a network by connecting to a domain server in another city.
    ANSWER: D
  132. 33. The DAC (Discretionary Access Control) model has an inherent flaw. Choose the option that describes this flaw.
    A. The DAC (Discretionary Access Control) model uses only the identity of the user or specific process to control access to a resource. This creates a security loophole for Trojan horse attacks.
    B. The DAC (Discretionary Access Control) model uses certificates to control access to resources. This creates an opportunity for attackers to use your certificates.
    C. The DAC (Discretionary Access Control) model does not use the identity of a user to control access to resources. This allows anyone to use an account to access resources.
    D. The DAC (Discretionary Access Control) model does not have any known security flaws.
    ANSWER: A
  133. 35. You work as the network administrator at Certkiller.com. The Certkiller.com network uses the RBAC (Role Based Access Control) model. You must plan the security strategy for users to access resources on the Certkiller.com network. The types of resources you must control access to are mailboxes, and files and printers. Certkiller.com is divided into distinct departments and functions named Finance, Sales, Research and Development, and Production respectively. Each user has its own workstation, and accesses resources based on the department wherein he/she works. You must determine which roles to create to support the RBAC (Role Based Access Control) model. Which of the following roles should you create?
    A. Create mailbox, and file and printer roles.
    B. Create Finance, Sales, Research and Development, and Production roles.
    C. Create user and workstation roles.
    D. Create allow access and deny access roles.
    ANSWER: B
  134. 37. Choose the access control model that allows access control determinations to be performed based on the security labels associated with each user and each data item.
    A. MACs (Mandatory Access Control) method
    B. RBACs (Role Based Access Control) method
    C. LBACs (List Based Access Control) method
    D. DACs (Discretionary Access Control) method
    ANSWER: A
  135. 43. Choose the terminology or concept which best describes a (Mandatory Access Control) model.
    A. Lattice
    B. Bell La?Padula
    C. BIBA
    D. Clark and Wilson
    ANSWER: A
  136. 45. Which authentication method does the following sequence: Logon request, encrypts value response, server, challenge, compare encrypts results, authorize or fail referred to?
    A. Certificates
    B. Security Tokens
    C. CHAP
    D. Kerberos
    ANSWER: C
  137. 47. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the Security Token system?
    A. If your token does not grant you access to certain information, that information will either not be displayed or your access will be denied. The authentication system creates a token every time a user or a session begins. At the completion of a session, the token is destroyed.
    B. A certificate being handed from the server to the client once authentication has been established. If you have a pass, you can wander throughout the network. BUT limited access is allowed.
    C. The authentication process uses a Key Distribution Center (KDC) to orchestrate the entire process. The KDC authenticates the network. Principles can be users, programs, or systems. The KDC provides a ticket to the network. Once this ticket is issued, it can be used to authenticate against other principles. This occurs automatically when a request or service is performed by another network.
    D. The initiator sends a logon request from the client to the server. The server sends a challenge back to the client. The challenge is encrypted and then sent back to the server. The server compares the value from the client and if the information matches, the server grants authorization. If the response fails, the session fails and the request phase starts over
    ANSWER: A
  138. 54. Which of the following will restrict access to files according to the identity of the user or group?
    A. MAC
    B. CRL
    C. PKI
    D. DAC
    ANSWER: D
  139. 63. Which of the following network authentication protocols uses symmetric key cryptography, stores a shared key for each network resource and uses a Key Distribution Center (KDC)?
    A. RADIUS
    B. TACACS+
    C. Kerberos
    D. PKI
    ANSWER: C
  140. 67. Which of the following access control models uses subject and object labels?
    A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
    B. Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
    C. Rule Based Access Control (RBAC)
    D. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
    ANSWER: A
  141. 69. Which of the following access decisions are based on a Mandatory Access Control (MAC) environment?
    A. Access control lists
    B. Ownership
    C. Group membership
    D. Sensitivity labels
    ANSWER: D
  142. 81. Which of the following types of authentication BEST describes providing a username, password and undergoing a thumb print scan to access a workstation?
    A. Multifactor
    B. Mutual
    C. Biometric
    D. Kerberos
    ANSWER: A
  143. 84. Users would not like to enter credentials to each server or application to conduct their normal work. Which type of strategy can solve this problem?
    A. Biometrics
    B. Smart card
    C. Two?factor authentication
    D. SSO
    ANSWER: D
  144. 85. Kerberos uses which of the following ports by default?
    A. 23
    B. 88
    C. 139
    D. 443
    ANSWER: B
  145. 93. Which of the following authentication systems make use of the KDC Key Distribution Center?
    A. Certificates
    B. Security Tokens
    C. CHAP
    D. Kerberos
    ANSWER: D
  146. 95. Which of the following authentication methods increases the security of the authentication process because it must be in your physical possession?
    A. Smart Cards.
    B. Kerberos
    C. CHAP
    D. Certificate
    ANSWER: A
  147. 96. Users need to access their email and several secure applications from any workstation on the network. In addition, an authentication system implemented by the administrator requires the use of a username, password, and a company issued smart card. This is an example of which of the following?
    A. Three factor authentication
    B. SSO
    C. ACL
    D. Least privilege
    ANSWER: B
  148. 97. Which of the following statements regarding authentication protocols is FALSE?
    A. PAP is insecure because usernames and passwords are sent over the network in clear text.
    B. CHAP is more secure than PAP because it encrypts user names and passwords before they are sent over the network.
    C. RADIUS is a client/server-based system that provides authentication, authorization, and accounting services for remote dial-up access.
    D. MS-CHAP version 1 is capable of mutual authentication of both the client and the server.
    ANSWER: D
  149. 99. Which password management system best provides for a system with a large number of users?
    A. Self service password reset management systems
    B. Locally saved passwords management systems
    C. multiple access methods management systems
    D. synchronized passwords management systems
    ANSWER: A
  150. 101. Which definition best defines what a challenge?response session is?
    A. A challenge?response session is a workstation or system that produces a random challenge string that the user provides, when prompted, in conjunction with the proper PIN (Personal Identification Number).
    B. A challenge?response session is a workstation or system that produces a random login ID that the user provides, when prompted, in conjunction with the proper PIN (Personal Identification Number).
    C. A challenge?response session is a special hardware device used to produce random text in a cryptography system.
    D. A challenge?response session is the authentication mechanism in the workstation or system that does not determine whether the owner should be authenticated.
    ANSWER: A
  151. 102. The hashing algorithm is created from a hash value, making it nearly impossible to derive the original input number. Which item can implement the strongest hashing algorithm?
    A. NTLMv2
    B. LANMAN
    C. NTLM
    D. VLAN
    ANSWER: A
  152. 103. For which reason are clocks used in Kerberos authentication?
    A. Clocks are used to ensure proper connections.
    B. Clocks are used to ensure that tickets expire correctly.
    C. Clocks are used to generate the seed value for the encryptions keys.
    D. Clocks are used to both benchmark and specify the optimal encryption algorithm.
    ANSWER: B
  153. 106. A travel reservation organization conducts the majority of its transactions via a public facing website. Any downtime to this website will lead to serious financial damage for this organization. One web server is connected to several distributed database servers. Which statement is correct about this scenario?
    A. RAID
    B. Warm site
    C. Proxy server
    D. Single point of failure
    ANSWER: D
  154. 111. A VPN typically provides a remote access link from one host to another over.
    A. an intranet
    B. a modem
    C. a network interface card
    D. the Internet
    ANSWER: D
  155. 112. In which authentication model a ticket granting server is an important concept?
    A. CHAP
    B. PAP
    C. Kerberos
    D. RADIUS
    ANSWER: C
  156. 122. Which of the following can be used to implement a procedure to control inbound and outbound traffic on a network segment?
    A. Proxy
    B. NIDS
    C. ACL
    D. HIDS
    ANSWER: C
  157. 123. Giving each user or group of users only the access they need to do their job is an example of which of the following security principals?
    A. Least privilege
    B. Defense in depth
    C. Separation of duties
    D. Access control
    ANSWER: A
  158. 126. In computing, the Basic Input/Output System (BIOS , also known as the System BIOS, is a de facto standard defining a firmware interface for IBM PC Compatible computers. A user is concerned with the security of their laptops BIOS. The user would not like anyone to be able to access control functions except themselves. Which of the following could make the BIOS more secure?
    A. Password
    B. Flash the BIOS
    C. Encrypt the hard drive
    D. Create an access?list
    ANSWER: A
  159. 133. The CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) sends a logon request from the client to the server, and the server sends a challenge back to the client. At which stage does the CHAP protocol perform the handshake process? Choose the best complete answer.
    A. At the stage when the connection is established and at whichever time after the connection has been established.
    B. At the stage when the connection is established and when the connection is disconnected.
    C. At the stage when the connection is established.
    D. At the stage when the connection is disconnected.
    ANSWER: A
  160. 148. Which authentication method will prevent a replay attack from occurring?
    A. RADIUS
    B. L2TP
    C. Kerberos
    D. CHAP
    ANSWER: C
  161. 153. Access controls based on security labels associated with each data item and each user are known as.
    A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
    B. Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
    C. List Based Access Control (LBAC)
    D. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
    ANSWER: A
  162. 158. During which phase of identification and authentication does proofing occur?
    A. Authentication
    B. Testing
    C. Verification
    D. Identification
    ANSWER: D
  163. 167. Which of the following describes the process by which a single user name and password can be entered to access multiple computer applications?
    A. Single sign?on
    B. Encryption protocol
    C. Access control lists
    D. Constrained user interfaces
    ANSWER: A
  164. 172. Which security action should be finished before access is given to the network?
    A. Identification and authorization
    B. Identification and authentication
    C. Authentication and authorization
    D. Authentication and password
    ANSWER: B
  165. 174. Which port must be open to allow a user to login remotely onto a workstation?
    A. 53
    B. 636
    C. 3389
    D. 8080
    ANSWER: C
  166. 175. The authentication process where the user can access several resources without the need for multiple credentials is known as?
    A. Discretionary Access Control (DAC).
    B. need to know
    C. decentralized management
    D. single sign?on
    ANSWER: D
  167. 176. Which item best describes an instance where a biometric system identifies legitimate users as being unauthorized?
    A. False acceptance
    B. False positive
    C. False rejection
    D. False negative
    ANSWER: C

    • 178. Which of the following is the best description about the method of controlling how and when users can connect in from home?
    • A. Remote access policy
    • B. Remote authentication
    • C. Terminal access control
    • D. Virtual Private Networking (VPN)
    • ANSWER: A
  168. 180. The implicit deny will block anything you didn?t specifically allow but you may have allowed stuff that you don?t need. A technician is reviewing the system logs for a firewall and is told that there is an implicit deny within the ACL. Which is an example of an implicit deny?
    A. An implicit deny statement denies all traffic from one network to another.
    B. Each item is denied by default because of the implicit deny.
    C. Items which are not specifically given access are denied by default.
    D. An ACL is a way to secure traffic from one network to another.
    ANSWER: C
  169. 188. Which security policy will be most likely used while attempting to mitigate the risks involved with allowing a user to access company email via their cell phone?
    A. The cell phone should require a password after a set period of inactivity.
    B. The cell phone should have data connection abilities disabled.
    C. The cell phone should only be used for company related emails.
    D. The cell phone data should be encrypted according to NIST standards.
    ANSWER: A
  170. 197. Which of the following ports are typically used by email clients? (Select TWO)
    A. 3389
    B. 194
    C. 143
    D. 110
    E. 49
    F. 23
    ANSWER: C, D
  171. 208. Which key can be used by a user to log into their network with a smart card?
    A. Public key
    B. Cipher key
    C. Shared key
    D. Private key
    ANSWER: D
  172. 224. Which method could identify when unauthorized access has occurred?
    A. Implement session termination mechanism.
    B. Implement previous logon notification.
    C. Implement session lock mechanism.
    D. Implement two?factor authentication.
    ANSWER: B
  173. 238. Which item is not a logical access control method?
    A. biometrics
    B. group policy.
    C. ACL
    D. software token.
    ANSWER: A
  174. 249. Which of the following would be an example of a hardware device where keys can be stored? (Select TWO).
    A. PCI card
    B. Smart card
    C. PCMCIA card
    D. Network interface card (NIC)
    ANSWER: B, C
  175. 254. Your company has already implemented two?factor authentication and wants to install a third authentication factor. If the existing authentication system uses strong passwords and PKI tokens, which item would provide a third factor?
    A. Six digit PINs
    B. Pass phrases
    C. Fingerprint scanner
    D. Elliptic curve
    ANSWER: C
  176. 256. Which one of the following options will create a security buffer zone between two rooms?
    A. Mantrap
    B. Anti-pass back
    C. DMZ
    D. Turnstile
    ANSWER: A
  177. 265. An organization has a hierarchical?based concept of privilege management with administrators having full access, human resources personnel having slightly less access and managers having access to their own department files only. This is BEST described as.
    A. Discretionary Access Control (DAC).
    B. Rule Based Access Control (RBAC).
    C. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
    D. Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
    ANSWER: D
  178. 275. Default passwords in hardware and software should be changed.
    A. if a threat becomes known.
    B. once each month
    C. when the hardware or software is turned on.
    D. when the vendor requires it
    ANSWER: C
  179. 288. Which solution can be used by a user to implement very tight security controls for technicians that seek to enter the users? datacenter?
    A. Combination locks and key locks
    B. Smartcard and proximity readers
    C. Magnetic lock and pin
    D. Biometric reader and smartcard
    ANSWER: D
  180. 290. In a secure environment, which authentication mechanism performs better?
    A. RADIUS because it is a remote access authentication service.
    B. TACACS because it encrypts client?server negotiation dialogs.
    C. RADIUS because it encrypts client?server passwords.
    D. TACACS because it is a remote access authentication service.
    ANSWER: B
  181. 291. Which of the following common attacks would the attacker capture the user?s login information and replay it again later?
    A. Back Door Attacks
    B. Replay Attack
    C. Spoofing
    D. Man In The Middle
    ANSWER: C
  182. 295. The difference between identification and authentication is that.
    A. authentication verifies a set of credentials while identification verifies the identity of the network.
    B. authentication verifies a user ID belongs to a specific user while identification verifies the identity of a user group.
    C. authentication verifies a set of credentials while identification verifies the identity of a user requesting credentials.
    D. authentication verifies the identity of a user requesting credentials while identification verifies a set of credentials.
    ANSWER: C
  183. 309. Which of the following logs shows when the workstation was last shutdown?
    A. DHCP
    B. Security
    C. Access
    D. System
    ANSWER: D
  184. 313. One of the below is a description for a password cracker, which one is it?
    A. A program that can locate and read a password file.
    B. A program that provides software registration passwords or keys.
    C. A program that performs comparative analysis.
    D. A program that obtains privileged access to the system.
    ANSWER: C
  185. 340. After the maximum number attempts have failed, which of the following could set an account to lockout for 30 minutes?
    A. Account lockout threshold
    B. Account lockout duration
    C. Password complexity requirements
    D. Key distribution center
    ANSWER: B
  186. 341. Choose the attack or malicious code that cannot be prevented or deterred solely through using technical measures.
    A. Dictionary attacks.
    B. Man in the middle attacks.
    C. DoS (Denial of Service) attacks.
    D. Social engineering.
    ANSWER: D
  187. 351. Which of the following definitions fit correctly to RADIUS?
    A. Is an older protocol that was used in early remote access environments
    B. Has largely replaced SLIP and offers multiple protocol support including AppleTalk, IPX, and DECnet
    C. are used to make connections between private networks across a public network, such as the Internet
    D. is a mechanism that allows authentication of dial?in and other network connections
    ANSWER: D
  188. 353. Which of the following definitions fit correctly to TACACS?
    A. Is an older protocol that was used in early remote access environments
    B. Has largely replaced SLIP and offers multiple protocol support including AppleTalk, IPX, and DECnet
    C. are used to make connections between private networks across a public network, such as the Internet
    D. It allows credentials to be accepted from multiple methods, including Kerberos.
    ANSWER: D
  189. 354. Which access control method gives the owner control over providing permissions?
    A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
    B. Role?Based Access Control (RBAC)
    C. Rule?Based Access control (RBAC)
    D. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
    ANSWER: D
  190. 356. Which item best describes an instance where a biometric system identifies legitimate users as being unauthorized?
    A. False acceptance
    B. False positive
    C. False rejection
    D. False negative
    ANSWER: C
  191. 360. Which of the following is correct about an instance where a biometric system identifies unauthorized users and allows them access?
    A. false positive.
    B. false rejection.
    C. false acceptance.
    D. false negative.
    ANSWER: C
  192. 361. You work as the security administrator at Certkiller .com. You must configure the firewall to support TACACS.
    Which port(s) should you open on the firewall?
    A. Port 21
    B. Port 161
    C. Port 53
    D. Port 49
    ANSWER: D
  193. 374. The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol or LDAP is an application protocol for querying and modifying directory services running over TCP/IP. A user needs to implement secure LDAP on the network. Which port number will secure LDAP use by default?
    A. 53
    B. 389
    C. 443
    D. 636
    ANSWER: D
  194. 386. Which of the following will permit an administrator to find weak passwords on the network?
    A. A password generator
    B. A network mapper
    C. A hash function
    D. A rainbow table
    ANSWER: D
  195. 388. Which security measure should be used while implementing access control?
    A. Password complexity requirements
    B. Disabling SSID broadcast
    C. Time of day restrictions
    D. Changing default passwords
    ANSWER: A
  196. 397. Which of the following would allow an administrator to find weak passwords on the network?
    A. A network mapper
    B. A hash function
    C. A password generator
    D. A rainbow table
    ANSWER: D
  197. 280. You work as a network administrator for your company. Your company requires you to improve the physical security of a data center located inside the office building. The data center already maintains a physical access log and has a video surveillance system. Which additional control can be performed?
    A. ACL
    B. Defense-in-depth
    C. Logical token
    D. Mantrap
    ANSWER: D
  198. 14. Alexander works as a network administrator for an organization which has 33, 000 users. Now, Alexander wants to store six months of Internet proxy logs on a dedicated logging server for analysis and content reporting. The reports are not time critical, but are required by upper management for legal obligations. When determining the requirements for the logging server, which of the following will not be applied?
    A. log storage and backup requirements.
    B. log details and level of verbose logging.
    C. performance baseline and audit trails.
    D. time stamping and integrity of the logs.
    ANSWER: C
  199. 41. Which of the following is the BEST place to obtain a hotfix or patch for an application or system?
    A. An email from the vendor
    B. A newsgroup or forum
    C. The manufacturer?s website
    D. A CD?ROM
    ANSWER: C
  200. 42. Tom is a network administrator of his company. He guesses that PCs on the internal network maybe acting as zombies participating in external DDoS attacks. Which item will most effectively confirm the administrators? suspicions?
    A. AV server logs
    B. HIDS logs
    C. Proxy logs
    D. Firewall logs
    ANSWER: D
  201. 44. Password cracking tools are available worldwide over the Internet. Which one of the following items is a password cracking tool?
    A. Wireshark
    B. Nessus
    C. John the Ripper
    D. AirSnort
    ANSWER: C
  202. 46. IDS is short for Intrusion Detection Systems. Which option is the MOST basic form of IDS?
    A. Signature
    B. Statistical
    C. Anomaly
    D. Behavioral
    ANSWER: A
  203. 56. Which description is correct concerning the process of comparing cryptographic hash functions of system executables, configuration files, and log files?
    A. File integrity auditing
    B. Stateful packet filtering
    C. Host based intrusion detection
    D. Network based intrusion detection
    ANSWER: A
  204. 70. Which tool can best monitor changes to the approved system baseline?
    A. Enterprise antivirus software
    B. Enterprise performance monitoring software
    C. Enterprise key management software
    D. Enterprise resource planning software
    ANSWER: B
  205. 71. Audit log information can BEST be protected by. (Select Two).
    A. using a VPN
    B. an IDS
    C. access controls that restrict usage
    D. an intrusion prevention system (IPS)
    E. Recording to write?once media.
    F. a firewall that creates an enclave
    ANSWER: C, E
  206. 76. John works as a network administrator for his company. He uses a tool to check SMTP, DNS, POP3, and ICMP packets on the network. This is an example of which of the following?
    A. A vulnerability scan
    B. A protocol analyzer
    C. A penetration test
    D. A port scanner
    ANSWER: B
  207. 83. Which of the following steps is MOST often overlooked during the auditing process?
    A. Reviewing event logs regularly
    B. Enabling auditing on the system
    C. Auditing every system event
    D. Deciding what events to audit
    ANSWER: A
  208. 86. What should be taken into consideration while executing proper logging procedures? (Select TWO).
    A. The information that is needed to reconstruct events
    B. The password requirements for user accounts
    C. The virtual memory allocated on the log server
    D. The amount of disk space required
    ANSWER: A, D
  209. 104. Network utilization is the ratio of current network traffic to the maximum traffic that the port can handle. Which of the following can most effectively determine whether network utilization is abnormal?
    A. Application log
    B. Performance baseline
    C. Systems monitor
    D. Security log
    ANSWER: B
  210. 121. A newly hired security specialist is asked to evaluate a company?s network security. The security specialist discovers that users have installed personal software; the network OS has default settings and no patches have been installed and passwords are not required to be changed regularly. Which of the following would be the FIRST step to take?
    A. Install software patches.
    B. Disable non-essential services.
    C. Enforce the security policy.
    D. Password management
    ANSWER: C
  211. 137. Which of the following protocols are not recommended due to them supplying passwords and information over the network?
    A. Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP)
    B. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol).
    C. Domain Name Service (DNS)
    D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
    ANSWER: B
  212. 150. Which of the following can be used by a technician to detect staff members that are connecting to an unauthorized website?
    A. Protocol analyzer
    B. Host routing table
    C. HIDS
    D. Bluesnarfing
    ANSWER: A
  213. 154. Which tool can help the technician to find all open ports on the network?
    A. Router ACL
    B. Performance monitor
    C. Protocol analyzer
    D. Network scanner
    ANSWER: D
  214. 162. For the following items, which is a protocol analyzer?
    A. Cain & Abel
    B. WireShark
    C. Nessus
    D. John the Ripper
    ANSWER: B
  215. 168. Network traffic is data in a network. Which tool can be used to review network traffic for clear text passwords?
    A. Port scanner
    B. Protocol analyzer
    C. Firewall
    D. Password cracker
    ANSWER: B
  216. 182. Which of the following is not identified within the penetration testing scope of work?
    A. a complete list of all network vulnerabilities.
    B. handling of information collected by the penetration testing team.
    C. IP addresses of machines from which penetration testing will be executed.
    D. a list of acceptable testing techniques and tools to be utilized.
    ANSWER: A
  217. 192. After installing new software on a machine, what needs to be updated to the baseline?
    A. Honeypot
    B. Signature?based NIPS
    C. Signature?based NIDS
    D. Behavior?based HIDS
    ANSWER: D
  218. 202. An outside auditor has been contracted to determine whether weak passwords are being used on the network. In order to achieve this goal, the auditor is running a password cracker against the master password file. Which of the following is an example of this?
    A. Vulnerability assessment
    B. Malware scan
    C. Baselining
    D. Fingerprinting
    ANSWER: A
  219. 218. Which one of the following options is a vulnerability assessment tool?
    A. AirSnort
    B. John the Ripper
    C. Cain & Abel
    D. Nessus
    ANSWER: D
  220. 221. When setting password rules, which of the following would lower the level of security of a network?
    A. Passwords must be greater than six characters and contain at least one non?alpha.
    B. All passwords are set to expire at regular intervals and users are required to choose new passwords that have not been used before.
    C. Complex passwords that users can not remotely change are randomly generated by the administrator and given to users
    D. After a set number of failed attempts the server will lock out any user account forcing the user to call the administrator to re?enable the account.
    ANSWER: C
  221. 222. You are a network technician of your company. You have just detected an intrusion on your company?s network from the Internet. What should be checked FIRST?
    A. The firewall logs
    B. The performance logs
    C. The DNS logs
    D. The access logs
    ANSWER: A
  222. 226. Which practice is the best to secure log files?
    A. Copy or save the logs to a remote log server.
    B. Change security settings to avoid corruption.
    C. Log all failed and successful login attempts.
    D. Deny administrators all access to log files to prevent write failures.
    ANSWER: A
  223. 229. Nmap has been run against a server and more open ports than expected have been discovered. Which of the following would be the FIRST step to take?
    A. All ports should be closed and observed to see whether a process tries to reopen the port.
    B. Nmap should be run again and observed to see whether different results are obtained.
    C. All ports should be left open and traffic monitored for malicious activity
    D. The process using the ports should be examined.
    ANSWER: D
  224. 232. Which scanner can find a rootkit?
    A. Email scanner
    B. Malware scanner
    C. Anti?spam scanner
    D. Adware scanner
    ANSWER: B
  225. 235. Which of the following is the MOST effective way for an administrator to determine what security holes reside on a network?
    A. Perform a vulnerability assessment
    B. Run a port scan
    C. Run a sniffer
    D. Install and monitor an IDS
    ANSWER: A
  226. 240. Which description is true about the external security testing?
    A. Conducted from outside the perimeter switch but inside the border router
    B. Conducted from outside the perimeter switch but inside the firewall
    C. Conducted from outside the organizations security perimeter
    D. Conducted from outside the building that hosts the organizations servers
    ANSWER: C
  227. 258. Which is the primary objective to implement performance monitoring applications on network systems from a security standpoint?
    A. To detect host intrusions from external networks
    B. To detect network intrusions from external attackers
    C. To detect integrity degradations to network attached storage
    D. To detect availability degradations caused by attackers
    ANSWER: D
  228. 263. In a classified environment, a clearance into a Top Secret compartment only allows access to certain information within that compartment. This is known as.
    A. dual control.
    B. need to know.
    C. separation of duties
    D. acceptable use.
    ANSWER: B
  229. 266. Identify the item that can determine which flags are set in a TCP/IP handshake?
    A. Network mapper
    B. FIN/RST
    C. Protocol analyzer
    D. SYN/ACK
    ANSWER: C
  230. 276. An organization needs to monitor all network traffic as it traverses their network. Which item should be used by the technician?
    A. Honeypot
    B. Protocol analyzer
    C. HIDS
    D. Content filter
    ANSWER: B
  231. 282. Which method is the LEAST intrusive to check the environment for known software flaws?
    A. Port scanner
    B. Vulnerability scanner
    C. Penetration test
    D. Protocol analyzer
    ANSWER: B
  232. 289. Which of the following is a protocol analyzer?
    A. John the Ripper
    B. WireShark
    C. Cain & Abel
    D. Nessus
    ANSWER: B
  233. 292. After auditing file, which log will show unauthorized usage attempts?
    A. Application
    B. Performance
    C. Security
    D. System
    ANSWER: C
  234. 299. Which of the following is a reason to use a vulnerability scanner?
    A. To identify open ports on a system
    B. To assist with protocol analyzing
    C. To identify remote access policies
    D. To assist with PKI implementation
    ANSWER: A
  235. 302. Look at the following intrusion detection systems carefully; which one uses well defined models of how an attack occurs?
    A. Anomaly
    B. Protocol
    C. Signature
    D. Behavior
    ANSWER: C
  236. 315. Which of the below options would you consider as a program that constantly observes data traveling over a network?
    A. Smurfer
    B. Sniffer
    C. Fragmenter
    D. Spoofer
    ANSWER: B
  237. 316. Which of the following will require setting a baseline? (Select TWO).
    A. Anomaly?based monitoring
    B. Signature?based monitoring
    C. NIPS
    D. Behavior?based monitoring
    ANSWER: A, D
  238. 319. Which of the following assessment tools would be MOST appropriate for determining if a password was being sent across the network in clear text?
    A. Protocol analyzer
    B. Port scanner
    C. Password cracker
    D. Vulnerability scanner
    ANSWER: A
  239. 324. Both the server and the client authenticate before exchanging data. This is an example of which of the following?
    A. SSO
    B. biometrics
    C. mutual authentication.
    D. multifactor authentication
    ANSWER: C
  240. 326. A protocol analyzer will most likely detect which security related anomalies?
    A. Many malformed or fragmented packets
    B. Passive sniffing of local network traffic
    C. Decryption of encrypted network traffic
    D. Disabled network interface on a server
    ANSWER: A
  241. 345. Choose the network mapping tool (scanner) which uses ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol).
    A. A port scanner.
    B. A map scanner.
    C. A ping scanner.
    D. A share scanner.
    ANSWER: C
  242. 347. One type of port scan can determine which ports are in a listening state on the network, and can then perform a two way handshake.
    Which type of port scan can perform this set of actions?
    A. A TCP (transmission Control Protocol) SYN (Synchronize) scan
    B. A TCP (transmission Control Protocol) connect scan
    C. A TCP (transmission Control Protocol) fin scan
    D. A TCP (transmission Control Protocol) null scan
    ANSWER: A
  243. 362. Which security measures should be recommended while implementing system logging procedures? (Select Two).
    A. Collect system temporary files.
    B. Apply retention policies on the log files.
    C. Perform CRC checks.
    D. Perform hashing of the log files.
    ANSWER: B, D
  244. 366. Tom is a network administrator of his company. He suspects that files are being copied to remote location during off hours. The file server does not have logging enabled. Which logs will be the BEST place to look for information?
    A. Antivirus logs
    B. Firewall logs
    C. DNS logs
    D. Intrusion detection logs
    ANSWER: B
  245. 367. A technician is auditing the security posture of an organization. The audit shows that many of the users have the ability to access the company?s accounting information. Which of the following should the technician recommend to address this problem?
    A. Changing file level audit settings
    B. Implementing a host based intrusion detection system
    C. Changing the user rights and security groups
    D. Implementing a host based intrusion prevention system
    ANSWER: C
  246. 370. Which description is true about penetration testing?
    A. Simulating an actual attack on a network
    B. Establishing a security baseline
    C. Hacking into a network for malicious reasons
    D. Detecting active intrusions
    ANSWER: A
  247. 371. Which of the following would be MOST useful in determining which internal user was the source of an attack that compromised another computer in its network?
    A. The firewall?s logs
    B. The attacking computer?s audit logs
    C. The target computer?s audit logs.
    D. The domain controller?s logs.
    ANSWER: C
  248. 88. In computer programming, DLL injection is a technique used to run code within the address space of another process by forcing it to load a dynamic-link library. Which activity is MOST closely associated with DLL injection?
    A. Penetration testing
    B. SQL servers
    C. Network mapping
    D. Vulnerability assessment
    ANSWER: A
  249. 196. Malware, a portmanteau from the words malicious and software, is software designed to infiltrate or damage a computer system without the owner?s informed consent. A network technician suspects that a piece of malware is consuming too many CPU cycles and slowing down a system. Which item can help determine the amount of CPU cycles being consumed?
    A. Install malware scanning software.
    B. Run performance monitor to evaluate the CPU usage.
    C. Use a protocol analyzer to find the cause of the traffic.
    D. Install HIDS to determine the CPU usage.
    ANSWER: B
  250. 7. Most current encryption schemes are based on.
    A. digital rights management
    B. time stamps
    C. randomizing
    D. algorithms
    ANSWER: D
  251. 9. Which of the following types of cryptography is typically used to provide an integrity check?
    A. Public key
    B. Asymmetric
    C. Symmetric
    D. Hash
    ANSWER: D
  252. 10. The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a set of hardware, software, people, policies, and procedures needed to create, manage, store, distribute, and revoke digital certificates. The public key infrastructure is based on which encryption schemes?
    A. Symmetric
    B. Quantum
    C. Asymmetric
    D. Elliptical curve
    ANSWER: C
  253. 15. Which of the following refers to the ability to be reasonably certain that data is not disclosed to unintended persons?
    A. Non?repudiation
    B. Integrity
    C. Authentication
    D. Confidentiality
    ANSWER: D
  254. 16. Hashing is the transformation of a string of characters into a usually shorter fixed?length value or key that represents the original string. Hashing is used to index and retrieve items in a database. Which description is correct when a hashing algorithm generates the same hash for two different messages?
    A. A one?way hash occurred.
    B. A hashing chain occurred.
    C. A collision occurred.
    D. A deviation occurred.
    ANSWER: C
  255. 17. Which of the following describes a type of algorithm that cannot be reversed in order to decode the data?
    A. Symmetric
    B. One Way Function
    C. Asymmetric
    D. Pseudorandom Number Generator (PRNG)
    ANSWER: B
  256. 18. CRL is short for Certificate Revocation List. Which types of keys are included in a CRL?
    A. Both public and private keys
    B. Public keys
    C. Steganographic keys
    D. Private keys
    ANSWER: A
  257. 19. Secret Key encryption is also known as?
    A. symmetrical
    B. replay
    C. one way function
    D. asymmetrical
    ANSWER: A
  258. 32. What maybe happen when hashing two different files creates the same result?
    A. A mirror
    B. A collision
    C. A duplication
    D. A pseudo?random event
    ANSWER: B
  259. 48. Which statement is true about the cryptographic algorithm employed by TLS to establish a session key?
    A. Blowfish
    B. Diffie?Hellman
    C. IKE
    D. RSA
    ANSWER: B
  260. 55. Which of the following would be an easy way to determine whether a secure web page has a valid certificate?
    A. Right click on the lock at the bottom of the browser and check the certificate information
    B. Contact Thawte or Verisign and ask about the web page
    C. Contact the web page?s web master
    D. Ensure that the web URL starts with ?https.\\?.
    ANSWER: A
  261. 64. In cryptography, MD5 (Message?Digest algorithm 5) is a widely used cryptographic hash function with a 128?bit hash value. As an Internet standard (RFC 1321), MD5 has been employed in a wide variety of security applications, and is also commonly used to check the integrity of files. A user sees an MD5 hash number beside a file that they wish to download. Which description is true about a hash?
    A. A hash is a unique number that is generated after the file has been encrypted and used as the SSL key during download.
    B. A hash is a unique number that is generated based upon the TCP/IP transmission header and should be verified before download.
    C. A hash is a unique number that is generated based upon the files contents and used as the SSL key during download.
    D. A hash is a unique number that is generated based upon the files contents and should be verified after download.
    ANSWER: D
  262. 68. Encryption is the conversion of data into a form, called a cybertext, that cannot be easily understood by unauthorized people. Which of the following is considered the weakest encryption?
    A. SHA
    B. DES
    C. RSA
    D. AES
    ANSWER: B
  263. 94. A digital signature or digital signature scheme is a type of asymmetric cryptography. For messages sent through an insecure channel, a properly implemented digital signature gives the receiver reason to believe the message was sent by the claimed sender. While using a digital signature, the message digest is encrypted with which of the following keys?
    A. Senders public key
    B. Receivers private key
    C. Receivers public key
    D. Senders private key
    ANSWER: D
  264. 113. Which of the following would be needed to ensure that a user who has received an email cannot claim that the email was not received?
    A. Anti?aliasing
    B. Data integrity
    C. Asymmetric cryptography
    D. Non-repudiation
    ANSWER: D
  265. 142. The IF Authentication Header (AH) is used to provide connectionless integrity and data origin authentication for IP datagrams (hereafter referred to as just ?authentication), and to provide protection against replays. Which of the following is correct about authentication headers (AH)?
    A. The authentication information is a keyed hash based on all of the bytes in the packet.
    B. The authentication information may be the same on different packets if the integrity remains in place.
    C. The authentication information hash will increase by one if the bytes remain the same on transfer.
    D. The authentication information hash will remain the same if the bytes change on transfer.
    ANSWER: A
  266. 143. Which of the following refers to the ability to be reasonably certain that data is not modified or tampered with?
    A. Authentication
    B. Integrity
    C. Non-repudiation
    D. Confidentiality
    ANSWER: B
  267. 149. Which of the following identifies the layer of the OSI model where SSL provides encryption?
    A. Application
    B. Network
    C. Session
    D. Transport
    ANSWER: C
  268. 156. Which algorithms can best encrypt large amounts of data?
    A. Asymmetric key algorithms
    B. Symmetric key algorithms
    C. ECC algorithms
    D. Hashing algorithms
    ANSWER: B
  269. 161. Which of the following connectivity is required for a web server that is hosting an SSL based web site?
    A. Port 443 inbound
    B. Part 443 outbound
    C. Port 80 inbound
    D. Port 80 outbound
    ANSWER: A
  270. 166. Which item will effectively allow for fast, highly secure encryption of a USB flash drive?
    A. 3DES
    B. SHA?1
    C. MD5
    D. AES2S6
    ANSWER: D
  271. 186. Which types of keys will be used if a server and workstation communicate via SSL? (Select TWO).
    A. Public key
    B. Recovery key
    C. Session key
    D. Key logger
    ANSWER: A, C
  272. 193. Which of the following could cause communication errors with an IPSec VPN tunnel because of changes made to the IP header?
    A. SOCKS
    B. NAT
    C. DNS
    D. Private addressing
    ANSWER: B
  273. 200. How to make sure that when an employee leaves the company permanently, the company will have access to their private keys?
    A. Store the keys in escrow.
    B. Store them in a CRL.
    C. Obtain the employees hardware token.
    D. Immediately delete the account.
    ANSWER: A
  274. 204. Identify the service provided by message authentication code (MAC) hash.
    A. data recovery.
    B. fault tolerance.
    C. key recovery.
    D. integrity
    ANSWER: D
  275. 207. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) uses a PKI Trust Model where no certificate authority (CA) is subordinate to another. The model with no single trusted root is known as.
    A. peer-to-peer
    B. downlevel
    C. hierarchical
    D. hybrid
    ANSWER: A
  276. 208. Which key can be used by a user to log into their network with a smart card?
    A. Public key
    B. Cipher key
    C. Shared key
    D. Private key
    ANSWER: D
  277. 209. Which of the following would be an effective way to ensure that a compromised PKI key can not access a system?
    A. Reconfigure the key
    B. Revoke the key
    C. Delete the key
    D. Renew the key
    ANSWER: B
  278. 211. Which of the following provides the MOST secure form of encryption?
    A. 3DES
    B. Diffie-Hellman
    C. DES
    D. AES
    ANSWER: D
  279. 213. Which of the following describes the validation of a message?s origin?
    A. Integrity
    B. Confidentiality
    C. Non-repudiation
    D. Asymmetric encryption
    ANSWER: C
  280. 215. Using software on an individual computer to generate a key pair is an example of which of the following approaches to PKJ architecture?
    A. Decentralized
    B. Centralized
    C. Hub and spoke
    D. Distributed key
    ANSWER: A
  281. 216. Which description is true about how to accomplish steganography in graphic files?
    A. Replacing the most significant bit of each byte
    B. Replacing the most significant byte of each bit
    C. Replacing the least significant byte of each bit
    D. Replacing the least significant bit of each byte
    ANSWER: D
  282. 217. Which of the following types of encryption would be BEST to use for a large amount of data?
    A. Asymmetric
    B. Symmetric
    C. ROT13
    D. Hash
    ANSWER: B
  283. 234. What is steganography primarily used for?
    A. Data integrity
    B. Message digest
    C. Hide information
    D. Encrypt information
    ANSWER: C
  284. 237. A company has instituted a VPN to allow remote users to connect to the office. As time progresses multiple security associations are created with each association being more secure. Which of the following should be implemented to automate the selection of the BEST security association for each user?
    A. AES
    B. 3DES
    C. SHA
    D. IKE
    ANSWER: D
  285. 243. Which of the following uses private key / public key technology to secure web sites?
    A. SSL
    B. TCP
    C. Media Access Control (MAC)
    D. Access Control List (ACL)
    ANSWER: A
  286. 245. Which of the following is the MOST significant flaw in Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) authentication?
    A. Private Keys can be compromised.
    B. A user must trust the public key that is received
    C. It is subject to a man?in?the?middle attack
    D. Weak encryption can be easily broken
    ANSWER: B
  287. 248. Which option is correct about a hash algorithms ability to avoid the same output from two guessed inputs?
    A. Collision strength
    B. Collision resistance
    C. Collision strength
    D. Collision metric
    ANSWER: B
  288. 250. Encryption is the conversion of data into a form, called a ciphertext that cannot be easily understood by unauthorized people. Which encryption is the strongest by use of mathematical evaluation techniques?
    A. 3DES
    B. ROT13
    C. AES
    D. DES
    ANSWER: C
  289. 251. The Diffie-Hellman encryption algorithm relies on which of the following?
    A. Tunneling
    B. Digital signatures
    C. Key exchange
    B. Passwords
    ANSWER: C
  290. 253. Non-repudiation is enforced by which of the following?
    A. Secret keys
    B. Digital signatures
    C. PKI
    D. Cipher block chaining
    ANSWER: B
  291. 271. An SMTP server is the source of email spam in an organization. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
    A. The administrator account was not secured.
    B. X.400 connectors have not been password protected.
    C. Remote access to the email application?s install directory has not been removed.
    D. Anonymous relays have not been disabled.
    ANSWER: D
  292. 274. Which key is generally applied FIRST to a message digest to provide non-repudiation by use of asymmetric cryptography?
    A. Private key of the receiver
    B. Private key of the sender
    C. Public key of the sender
    D. Public key of the receiver
    ANSWER: B
  293. 284. Which item can easily create an unencrypted tunnel between two devices?
    A. PPTP
    B. AES
    C. L2TP
    D. HTTPS
    ANSWER: C
  294. 286. In order to encrypt credit card data, which will be the most secure algorithm with the least CPU utilization?
    A. 3DES
    B. AES
    C. SHA-1
    D. MD5
    ANSWER: B
  295. 287. Pretty good privacy (PGP) uses a PKI Trust Model where no certificate authority (CA) is subordinate to another. The model with no single trusted root is known as.
    A. peer-to-peer.
    B. downlevel.
    C. hierarchical
    D. hybrid
    ANSWER: A
  296. 306. Which protocol can be used to ensure secure transmissions on port 443?
    A. HTTPS
    B. SHTTP
    C. Telnet
    D. SFTP
    ANSWER: A
  297. 318. Which statement correctly describes the difference between a secure cipher and a secure hash?
    A. A hash can be reversed, a cipher cannot.
    B. A hash produces a variable output for any input size, a cipher does not.
    C. A cipher can be reversed, a hash cannot.
    D. A cipher produces the same size output for any input size, a hash does not.
    ANSWER: C
  298. 327. One type of network attack sends two different messages that use the same hash function to generate the same message digest. Which network attack does this?
    A. Man in the middle attack.
    B. Ciphertext only attack.
    C. Birthday attack.
    D. Brute force attack.
    ANSWER: C
  299. 338. Recently, your company has implemented a work from home program. Employees should connect securely from home to the corporate network. Which encryption technology can be used to achieve this goal?
    A. L2TP
    B. IPSec
    C. PPPoE
    D. PPTP
    ANSWER: B
  300. 344. Which encryption algorithm depends on the inability to factor large prime numbers?
    A. SHA-1
    B. AES 2S6
    C. RSA
    D. Elliptic Curve
    ANSWER: C
  301. 350. In cryptography, a pre-shared key or PSK is a shared secret which was previously shared between the two parties using some secure channel before it needs to be used. Pre?shared keys can be applied to which of the following?
    A. TPM
    B. PGP
    C. Digital signature
    D. CA
    ANSWER: B
  302. 357. Which of the following definitions fit correctly to PPTP?
    A. It supports encapsulation in a single point?to?point environment
    B. It was created by Cisco as a method of creating tunnels primarily for dial?up connections
    C. It is primarily a point?to?point protocol
    D. It is a tunneling protocol originally designed for UNIX systems.
    ANSWER: A
  303. 359. From the list of protocols, which two are VPN (Virtual Private Network) tunneling protocols? Choose two protocols.
    A. PPP (Point?to?Point Protocol).
    B. SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol).
    C. L2TP (Layer Two Tunneling Protocol).
    D. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol).
    E. PPTP (Point?to?Point Tunneling Protocol).
    ANSWER: C, E
  304. 363. Which of the following network attacks cannot occur in an email attack?
    A. Dictionary attack
    B. Trojan Horse
    C. Phage Virus
    D. Polymorphic Virus
    ANSWER: A
  305. 373. By which means do most network bound viruses spread?
    A. Email
    B. Floppy
    C. CDRom
    D. Mass storage devices
    ANSWER: A
  306. 372. Which encryption algorithms can be used to encrypt and decrypt data?
    A. NTLM
    B. MD5
    C. SHA-1
    D. RC5
    ANSWER: D
  307. 377. Choose the primary disadvantage of using a third party mail relay.
    A. Spammers can utilize the third party mail relay.
    B. A third party mail relay limits access to specific users.
    C. A third party mail relay restricts the types of e?mail that maybe sent.
    D. A third party mail relay restricts spammers from gaining access.
    ANSWER: A
  308. 379. Choose the option that details one of the primary benefits of using S/MIME /Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension)?
    A. S/MIME allows users to send both encrypted and digitally signed email messages.
    B. S/MIME allows users to send anonymous email messages.
    C. S/MIME allows users to send email messages with a return receipt.
    D. S/MIME expedites the delivery of email messages.
    ANSWER: A
  309. 381. On the topic of comparing viruses and hoaxes, which statement is TRUE? Choose the best TRUE statement.
    A. Hoaxes can create as much damage as a real virus.
    B. Hoaxes are harmless pranks and should be ignored.
    C. Hoaxes can help educate users about a virus.
    D. Hoaxes carry a malicious payload and can be destructive.
    ANSWER: A
  310. 383. Choose the scheme or system used by PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) to encrypt data.
    A. Asymmetric scheme
    B. Symmetric scheme
    C. Symmetric key distribution system
    D. Asymmetric key distribution system
    ANSWER: B
  311. 389. Which of the following web vulnerabilities is being referred to when it has a feature designed into many e?mail servers that allows them to forward email to other email servers?
    A. Buffer Overflows.
    B. Cookies.
    C. CGI
    D. SMTP Relay
    ANSWER: D
  312. 6. Given. John is a network administrator. He advises the server administrator of his company to implement whitelisting, blacklisting, closing-open relays and strong authentication techniques. Question. Which threat is being addressed?
    A. Viruses
    B. Adware
    C. Spam
    D. Spyware
    ANSWER: C
  313. 34. The CEO of your company is worrying about staff browsing inappropriate material on the Internet via HTTPS. Your company is advised to purchase a product which can decrypt the SSL session, scan the content and then repackage the SSL session without staff knowing. Which type of attack is similar to this product?
    A. TCP/IP hijacking
    B. Replay
    C. Spoofing
    D. Man? in?the-middle
    ANSWER: D
  314. 89. Spam is considered a problem even when deleted before being opened because spam.
    A. verifies the validity of an email address
    B. corrupts the mail file
    C. wastes company bandwidth
    D. installs Trojan horse viruses
    ANSWER: C
  315. 185. Which of the following would be considered a detrimental effect of a virus hoax? (Select Two).
    A. The email server capacity is consumed by message traffic.
    B. Technical support resources are consumed by increased user calls.
    C. Users are tricked into changing the system configuration.
    D. Users are at risk for Identity theft.
    ANSWER: B, C
  316. 335. Choose the most effective method of preventing computer viruses from spreading throughout the network.
    A. You should require root/administrator access to run programs and applications.
    B. You should enable scanning of all e-mail attachments.
    C. You should prevent the execution of .vbs files.
    D. You should install a host based IDS (Intrusion Detection System)
    ANSWER: B
  317. 375. Which of the following definitions should BEST suit the functions of an e-mail server?
    A. Detect the viruses in the messages received from various sources and send warnings to the recipient to warn him/her of the risky mail.
    B. Notify you that a message carries a virus.
    C. Forms a platform on which messages are sent.
    D. Makes use of a port used specifically for messages to be sent through.
    ANSWER: A
  318. 4. You work as a network administrator for your company. Taking personal safety into consideration, what fire suppression substances types can effectively prevent damage to electronic equipment?
    A. Halon
    B. CO2
    C. Water
    D. Foam
    ANSWER: B
  319. 29. Which of the following would be MOST important to have to ensure that a company will be able to recover in case of severe environmental trouble or destruction?
    A. Disaster recovery plan
    B. Alternate sites
    C. Offsite storage
    D. Fault tolerant systems
    ANSWER: A
  320. 31. Documentation describing a group expected minimum behavior is known as?
    A. the need to know
    B. acceptable usage
    C. the separation of duties
    D. a code of ethics
    ANSWER: D
  321. 36. Sending a patch through a testing and approval process is an example of which option?
    A. Acceptable use policies
    B. Change management
    C. User education and awareness training
    D. Disaster planning
    ANSWER: B
  322. 53. In addition to bribery and forgery, which of the following are the MOST common techniques that attackers use to socially engineer people? (Select TWO)
    A. Phreaking
    B. Dumpster diving
    C. Whois search
    D. Flattery
    E. Assuming a position of authority
    ANSWER: B, D
  323. 79. Which of the following should be done if an audit recording fails in an information system?
    A. Log off the user
    B. Overwrite the oldest audit records
    C. Stop generating audit records
    D. Send an alert to the appropriate personnel
    ANSWER: D
  324. 80. In order to recover discarded company documents, which of the following might an attacker resort to?
    A. Shoulder surfing
    B. Phishing
    C. Dumpster diving
    D. Insider theft
    ANSWER: C
  325. 87. Turnstiles, double entry doors and security guards are all prevention measures for which of the following types of social engineering?
    A. Piggybacking
    B. Looking over a co?workers shoulder to retrieve information
    C. Looking through a co?worker?s trash to retrieve information
    D. Impersonation
    ANSWER: A
  326. 90. Alex is a network administrator of his company. He is backing up all server data nightly to a local NAS device. Which additional action should Alex perform to block disaster in the case the primary site is permanently lost?
    A. Backup all data at a preset interval to removable disk and store the disk in a fireproof safe in the building?s basement.
    B. Backup all data at a preset interval to tape and store those tapes at a sister site in another city.
    C. Backup all data at a preset interval to tape and store those tapes at a sister site across the street.
    D. Backup all data at a preset interval to removable disk and store the disk in a safety deposit box at the administrator?s home.
    ANSWER: B
  327. 98. Many unauthorized staff has been entering the data center by piggybacking authorized staff. The CIO has mandated to stop this behavior. Which technology should be installed at the data center to prevent piggybacking?
    A. Mantrap
    B. Token access
    C. Security badges
    D. Hardware locks
    ANSWER: A
  328. 100. Why will a Faraday cage be used?
    A. To find rogue access points
    B. To allow wireless usage
    C. To mitigate data emanation
    D. To minimize weak encryption
    ANSWER: C
  329. 116. A technician is conducting a forensics analysis on a computer system. Which step should be taken FIRST?
    A. Search for Trojans.
    B. Look for hidden files.
    C. Get a binary copy of the system.
    D. Analyze temporary files.
    ANSWER: C
  330. 129. A system administrator reports that an unauthorized user has accessed the network. Which of the following would be the FIRST action to take?
    A. Notify management.
    B. Determine the business impact.
    C. Contact law enforcement officials.
    D. Contain the problem.
    ANSWER: D
  331. 130. After analyzing vulnerability and applying a security patch, which non-intrusive action should be taken to verify that the vulnerability was truly removed?
    A. Update the antivirus definition file.
    B. Apply a security patch from the vendor.
    C. Repeat the vulnerability scan.
    D. Perform a penetration test.
    ANSWER: C
  332. 136. You work as a network technician for your company. The company policy for availability needs full backups on Sunday and incremental backups each week night at 10p.m. The file server crashes on Wednesday afternoon; how many types are required to restore the data on the file server for Thursday morning?
    A. One
    B. Two
    C. Three
    D. Four
    ANSWER: C
  333. 139. Most key for based identification systems use which of the following types of authentication mechanisms? (Select TWO).
    A. Kerberos
    B. Biometrics
    C. Username/pas sword
    D. Certificates
    E. Token
    ANSWER: C, B
  334. 144. Which description is correct about the form used while transferring evidence?
    A. Evidence log
    B. Booking slip
    C. Chain of custody
    D. Affidavit
    ANSWER: C
  335. 145. Disguising oneself as a reputable hardware manufacturer?s field technician who is picking up a server for repair would be described as.
    A. a phishing attack
    B. a Trojan horse
    C. a man?in?the?middle attack
    D. social engineering
    ANSWER: D
  336. 157. Which of the following describes an attacker encouraging a person to perform an action in order to be successful?
    A. Man-in-the-middle
    B. Social engineering
    C. Back door
    D. Password guessing
    ANSWER: B
  337. 169. To preserve evidence for later use in court, which of the following needs to be documented?
    A. Audit trail of systems usage
    B. Disaster recovery plan
    C. Chain of certificates
    D. Chain of custody
    ANSWER: D
  338. 171. Which of the following is a major reason that social engineering attacks succeed?
    A. Strong passwords are not required
    B. Lack of security awareness
    C. Multiple logins are allowed
    D. Audit logs are not monitored frequently
    ANSWER: B
  339. 173. Which of the following types of backups requires that files and software that have been changed since the last full backup be copied to storage media?
    A. Incremental
    B. Differential
    C. Full
    D. Delta
    ANSWER: B
  340. 198. In order to allow for more oversight of past transactions, a company decides to exchange positions of the purchasing agent and the accounts receivable agent. Which is an example of this?
    A. Separation of duties
    B. Least privilege
    C. Implicit deny
    D. Job rotation
    ANSWER: D
  341. 296. The main objective of risk management in an organization is to reduce risk to a level.
    A. where the ALE is lower than the SLE.
    B. where the ARO equals the SLE.
    C. the organization will mitigate.
    D. the organization will accept.
    ANSWER: D
  342. 297. Following a disaster, which of the following functions should be returned FIRST from the backup facility to the primary facility?
    A. Web services
    B. Systems functions
    C. Executive functions
    D. Least critical functions
    ANSWER: D
  343. 298. The Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a set of hardware, software, people, policies, and procedures needed to create, manage, store, distribute, and revoke digital certificates. An executive uses PKI to encrypt sensitive emails sent to an assistant. In addition to encrypting the body of the email, the executive wants to encrypt the signature so that the assistant can verify that the email actually came from the executive.
    Which asymmetric key should be used by the executive to encrypt the signature?
    A. Shared
    B. Private
    C. Hash
    D. Public
    ANSWER: B
  344. 303. A computer system containing personal identification information is being implemented by a company?s sales department. The sales department has requested that the system become operational before a security review can be completed. Which of the following can be used to explain the reasons a security review must be completed?
    A. Vulnerability assessment
    B. Risk assessment
    C. Corporate security policy
    D. Need to know policy
    ANSWER: C
  345. 314. Risk assessment is a common first step in a risk management process. Risk assessment is the determination of quantitative or qualitative value of risk related to a concrete situation and a recognized threat (also called hazard). As a best practice, risk assessments should be based upon which of the following?
    A. An absolute measurement of threats
    B. A qualitative measurement of risk and impact
    C. A quantitative measurement of risk, impact and asset value
    D. A survey of annual loss, potential threats and asset value
    ANSWER: C
  346. 321. From the listing of attacks, which analyzes how the operating system (Os) responds to specific network traffic, in an attempt to determine the operating system running in your networking environment?
    A. Operating system scanning.
    B. Reverse engineering.
    C. Fingerprinting
    D. Host hijacking.
    ANSWER: C
  347. 336. Choose the correct order in which crucial equipment should draw power.
    A. Backup generator, UPS battery, UPS line conditioner
    B. Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) battery, UPS line conditioner, backup generator
    C. Backup generator, UPS line conditioner, UPS battery
    D. UPS line conditioner, UPS battery, and backup generator
    ANSWER: D
  348. 343. An Auditing system is necessary to prevent attacks on what part of the system?
    A. The files.
    B. The operating system.
    C. The systems memory
    D. None of the above
    ANSWER: A
  349. 348. Which one of the following options will allow for a network to remain operational after a T1 failure?
    A. Redundant servers
    B. Redundant ISP
    C. RAID 5 drive array
    D. Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
    ANSWER: B
  350. 352. Which description is correct about a tool used by organizations to verify whether or not a staff member has been involved in malicious activity?
    A. Mandatory vacations
    B. Time of day restrictions
    C. Implicit deny
    D. Implicit allow
    ANSWER: A
  351. 355. Which of the following needs to be backed up on a domain controller to be able to recover Active Directory?
    A. System files
    B. User date
    C. System state
    D. Operating system
    ANSWER: C
  352. 368. Job rotation is a cross-training technique where organizations minimize collusion amongst staff.
    A. True
    B. False
    ANSWER: A
  353. 369. A security specialist is reviewing firewall logs and sees the information below. Which of the following BEST describes the attack that is occurring?

    s-192.168.0.21.53 ? d-192.168.0.1.0
    s-192.168.0.21.53 ? d-192.168.0.1.1
    s-192.168.0.21.53 ? d-192.168.0.1.2
    s-192.168.0.21.53 ? d-192.168.0.1.3
    s-192.168.0.21.53 ? d-192.168.0.1.4
    s-192.168.0.21.53 ? d-192.168.0.1.5
    s-192.168.0.21.53 ? d-192.168.0.1.6
    s-192.168.0.21.53 ? d-192.168.0.1.7
    s-192.168.0.21.53 ? d-192.168.0.1.8

    A. ARP poisoning
    B. DNS spoofing
    C. Port scan
    D. PING sweep
    ANSWER: C
  354. 392. A programmer plans to change the server variable in the coding of an authentication function for a proprietary sales application. Which process should be followed before implementing the new routine on the production application server?
    A. Change management
    B. Secure disposal
    C. Password complexity
    D. Chain of custody
    ANSWER: A
  355. 394. An administrator wants to make sure that no equipment is damaged when encountering a fire or false alarm in the server room. Which type of fire suppression system should be used?
    A. Carbon Dioxide
    B. Deluge sprinkler
    C. Hydrogen Peroxide
    D. Wet pipe sprinkler
    ANSWER: A
  356. 395. An end-to-end traffic performance guarantee made by a service provider to a customer is a.
    A. DRP.
    B. BCP.
    C. SLA.
    D. VPN
    ANSWER: C
  357. 396. The staff must be cross-trained in different functional areas in order to detect fraud. Which of the following is an example of this?
    A. Implicit deny
    B. Least privilege
    C. Separation of duties
    D. Job rotation
    ANSWER: D
  358. 400. Who is finally in charge of the amount of residual risk?
    A. The senior management
    B. The DRP coordinator
    C. The security technician
    D. The organizations security officer
    ANSWER: A
  359. 65. The risks of social engineering can be decreased by implementing. (Select TWO)
    A. security awareness training
    B. risk assessment policies
    C. operating system patching instructions
    D. vulnerability testing techniques
    E. identity verification methods
    ANSWER: A, E
  360. 159. A user has received an email from a mortgage company asking for personal information including bank account numbers. This would BEST be described as.
    A. spam
    B. phishing
    C. packet sniffing
    D. a hoax
    ANSWER: B

What would you like to do?

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview