AD 2/3

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AD 2/3
2011-02-17 00:05:10
Assignment seven

engine and airframe related systems and helicopters and turboshaft power plants
Show Answers:

  1. What branch of science deals with the study of liquids in motion?
  2. What law or principle states that pressure applied to a confined liquid is transmitted undiminished in every direction?
    Pascal's law
  3. Which of the following manuals would you study for additional information on hydraulic theory, components, and systems?
    NAVEDTRA 12964, Fluid Power
  4. What is the base or origin of the most widely used fluids in hydraulic systems?
  5. MIL-H-83282 is the only fluid authorized for use in the preservation, packaging, shipment, and test bench operation of hydraulic components?
  6. What are the two general classifications of hydraulic fluid contamination?
    Abrasives and nonabrasives
  7. Which of the following is an example of a nonabrasive contaminant?
  8. When the size of particles circulating in a hydraulic system is greater than the clearance between moving parts, what is the immediate result?
    retention of the particles
  9. The originn of contaminants or impuritieis in hydraulic systems can be traced to how many major areas?
  10. Loose particles from assemblies during fabrication are comprised of what type of hydraulic system contamination?
    particles originally contained in the system
  11. Common danger areas for introducing particles from outside forces are which of the following areas?

    Refill openings?
    Breather openings?
    Cylinder rod packings?
    All of the above
  12. What two types of contamination occur from contaminants created during system operation?
    Mechanical and chemical
  13. What factor causes particle generation of a mechanical nature?
    frictional contacts
  14. What is the chief source of chemical contamination?
  15. Which of the following statements correctly identifies a precipitate?
    a solid substance, chemically separated
  16. For what reason should hydraulic liquid be kept below specified temperatures?
    the liquid will break down chemically
  17. In a hydraulic system, at what location does water usually settle?
    on the reservoir bottom
  18. Which of the following corrective maintenance procedures is performed by ADs on hydraulic systems of turbojet engines?
    replace parts
  19. Which of the following sypmtoms indicates an internal fluid leak within a hydraulic system?
    A drop in system pressure
  20. Which of the following manuals give you additional information for hydraulic systems?
    NA 01-1A-17 (Hydraulics Manual) and NAVEDTRA 12964 (Fluid Power)
  21. Engine IGV's are hydraulically actuated by using which of the following fluids a a hydraulic medium?
    jet fuel
  22. Which of the following statements is NOT correct when defining electricity?
    it is a form of energy
  23. Which of the following are the two forms of electricty?

    chemical and mechanical?
    in motion and at rest?
    dynamic and static?
    both 2 and 3 above
  24. What are the three methods of producing electricity?
    heat, mechanical, and chemical
  25. Which of the following devices or components converts chemical energy into electrical energy?
  26. Which, if any, of the following forces causes electrons to flow within a conductor?
    electromotive force
  27. Which of the following are units of force necessary to cause electons to flow within a circuit?
  28. The rate of electron flow within a conductor is measured in which of the following units?
  29. What electrical unit is determined by the length, cross-sectional area, and temperature of a conductor?
    an ohm
  30. Since jet engine combustion is a self-sustaining process, all jet engines turn the igniters off after starting to prevent component wear.
  31. What component of the capacitor discharge ignition system reduces the discharge time to a minimum?
    the triggering transformer
  32. Which of the following components supples electrical power to the ignition system during flameouts or armament firing?
    engine alternator stator
  33. The high speed and low torque of the turbine wheel in an air turbine starter are converted into low speed and high torque at the output shaft by which of the following components?
    the reduction gear system
  34. Actuation of the starter's overspeed control causes which of the following actions?
    the air supply driving the starter to be cut off
  35. In a turbine impingement starter system, what design feature prevents loss of gases after the engine is started?
    a check valve in the starting manifold
  36. Hydraulic and electrical starters are usually used to start which, if any, of the following engines?
    APUs and small jet engines
  37. From what section of the engine is bleed air tapped?
    the compressor section
  38. Depending on engine design, what, if any, type of air pressure can be tapped from the engine during operation?
    low and/or high pressure
  39. Multi-engine aircraft use cross-bleed air to drive the accessories on the other engine(s) during single engine ground operations.
  40. Which of the following statements is correct for engines that use labyrinth or clearance-type bearing seals?
    oil loss is kept at a minimum due to sump pressurization differential
  41. An inlet anti-icing system is safer and more effecient than an inlet de-icing system for which of the following reasons?

    It prevents a potential FOD hazard?
    It prevents ice from forming?
    It uses engine bleed air?
    both 1 and 2 above
  42. Using engine bleed air for engine anti-icing will result in an increase in engine temperature due to loss of cooling air. What other effect does bleed air use have on the engine?
    decrease in engine power
  43. What condition could cause water droplets to be supercooled below freezing without turning into ice?
    the surface tension of the water not allowing the droplet to exand and freeze
  44. What condition results when water vapor turns directly into a solid?
  45. Ice forming on aircraft surfaces is extremely dangerous for which of the following reasons?

    An unbalanced aircraft condition may occur?
    The airfoil shape of the wing may change?
    The weight of the aircraft may change?
    All of the above
  46. What system uses bleed air?
  47. What system is a combination of systems?
    ice protection
  48. What system uses mechanical action?
  49. What system may be pnuematically operated?
  50. APUs are capable of providing which of the following aircraft services?

    Air for ground operation of the aircraft's air-conditioning system?
    Starting air for aircraft engines?
    Electrical power?
    all of the above
  51. Major APU inspections and repairs may require the removal of the APU due to which of the following reasons?
    APU location
  52. What is the fundamental advantage of the helicopter over conventional aircraft?
    its movement independent of the forward speed
  53. The main difference between fixed-wing aircraft and rotary-wing aircraft is the way in which lift is achieved.
  54. Lift generated by the rotating blades of a helicoptor is equivalent to the lift generated by forward motion or airspeed on a fixed-wing aircraft.
  55. During which of the following flight maneuvers is there a component of velocity parallel to the axis of the rotor?
  56. Torque effect is greater under which of the following conditions?
    during high-powered takeoff
  57. A vertical tail rotor is used for which of the following functions?
    to counteract main rotor torque and to provide directional control
  58. As the helicopter's rotor turns in one direction, the body of the helicopter tends to rotate inthe opposite direction. What law or principle explains this action?
    Newton's third law
  59. Which of the following is/are true about the rotor disc area?
    it is the area swept by rotating rotor blades
  60. A helicopter is in forward flight at 50 miles per hour. How much faster is the advancing blade traveling as compared to the retreating blade?
    150 mph