CT Mock Review1

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DTJones2011
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68478
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CT Mock Review1
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2011-02-24 10:24:45
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CT Review
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  1. An average range for activated PTT is:
    A. 10-12 seconds
    B. 25-35 seconds
    C. 43-55 seconds
    D. 17-21 seconds
    B. 25-35 seconds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Which of the following is the correct angle of insertion for placing a butterfly needle into a vein for intravenous administration of a contrast agent?
    A. 5 degrees
    B. 15 degrees
    C. 45 degrees
    D. 60 degrees
    B. 15 degrees
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. A total volume of 125 mL of an iodinated contrast agent is administered intravenously via automatic injector in 50 seconds. The Flow Rate for this injection is:
    a 0.75 mL/sec
    b. 1.25 mL/sec
    c. 1.75 mL/sec
    d. 2.5 mL/sec
    d. 2.5 mL/sec

    125mL divided by 50 sec = 2.5mL/sec
  4. The acronym CTDI is used to describe which of the following?
    A. a high-speed CT scanner used for cardiac imaging
    B. the radiation dose to the patient during a CT scan
    C. a specialized CT imaging technique used to measure bone mineral density
    D. a quality control test that measures the accuracy of the laser lighting system
    B. the radiation dose to the patient during a CT scan
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. While one is obtaining a thorough history from a patient prior to the intravenous injection of an iodinated contrast material, which of the following topics from be included?
    1. any prior allergic reaction to contrast media
    2. presence of HIV or hepatitis infection
    3. history of asthma
    A. 1 only
    B. 1 and 2 only
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 1 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Which of the following factors may affect a patients calculated Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)?
    1. age
    2. sex
    3. race
    A. 2 and 3 only
    B. 1 and 2 only
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Which of the following intravenous contrast agent administration methods provides the greatest over-all plasma iodine concentration?
    A. bolus technique
    B. CT portography
    C. drip infusion
    D. biphasic technique
    A. Bolus Technique
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. A patient in shock may exhibit which of the following symptoms?
    1. tachycardia
    2. rapid, shallow breathin
    3. cyanosis
    A. 1 and 3 only
    B. 1 only
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. The drug SOLU-CORTEF may be classified as which of the following?
    A. corticosteroid
    B. antihistamine
    C. anticholinergic
    D. bronchodilator
    A. corticosteroid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Which of the following technical factors has a direct effect on patient dose?
    A. algorithm
    B. matrix size
    C. window level
    D. mAs
    D. mAs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Which of the following is a non-ionice contrast material?
    A. iodamide
    B. iohexol
    C. iothalamate
    D. diatrizoate
    B. iohexol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Which of the following terms is used to describe a patient who is having difficulty breathing?
    A. dysphasia
    B. dyspnea
    C. dyslexia
    D. dysphagia
    B. dyspnea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Which of the following devices is used to measure the patient dose from a CT examination?
    A. proportional counter
    B. Geiger counter
    C. ionization chamber
    D. film badge
    C. ionization chamber
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Which of the following describes the situation in which an assumption is made that an unconscious or otherwise physically unable patient consents to medical treatment?
    A. informed consent
    B. patient proxy
    C. witnessed consent
    D. implied consent
    D. implied consent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Complete Cardiac diatole corresponds in which portion of the cardiac cycle on an electrocardiogram (ECG)?
    A. T wave
    B. Alpha wave
    C. P wave
    D. QRS complex
    A. T wave
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. During CT arthrography, iodinated contrast media is injected directly into the:
    A. venous bloodstream
    B. intrathecal space
    C. subarachnoid space
    D. joint space
    D. joint space
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which of the following is considered one of the iso-osmolar contrast media (IOCM)?
    A. ioversol
    B. iopamidol
    C. iohexol
    D. iodixanol
    D. iodixanol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. A common site for the IV administration of iodinated contrast media is the anterior recess of the elbow, otherwise known as:
    A. retro-ulnar space
    B. antecubital space
    C. brachial fossa
    D. olecranon fossa
    B. antecubital space
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. The potentially serious decline in renal function following the IV administration of contrast material is called:
    A. contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN)
    B. urticaria
    C. bronchospasm
    D. anaphylaxsis
    A. contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. The quantity of absorbed radiation dose based on the radiosensitivity of a particular tissue type is called:
    A. kerma
    B. CTDI
    C. stochasic dose
    D. effective dose
    D. effective dose
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Advantages of a saline flush immediately following the IV administration of iodinated contrast material include:
    1. reduction in required contrast agent dose
    2. reduction in the incidence of contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN)
    3. reduction of streaking artifact from dense contrast agent in the vasculature
    A. 2 and 3 only
    B. 1 only
    C. 1, 2, and 3
    D. 3 only
    C. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Which of the following medications may be administered to dialte the coronary vasculature prior to a cardiac CT examination?
    A. atropine
    B. a B-adrenergic receptor blocking agent
    C. albuterol
    D. sublingual nitroglycerine
    D. sublingual nitroglycerine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. A normal range for diastolic blood pressure in an adult:
    A. 40-60 mm Hg
    B. 95-140 mm Hg
    C. 80-120 mm Hg
    D. 60-90 mm Hg
    D. 60-90 mm Hg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Which of the following is a parental route of medication administration?
    A. oral
    B. transdermal
    C. sublingual
    D. intramuscular
    D. intramuscular
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Which of the following methods may be employed to reduce the radiation dose to the pediatric patient undergoing CT?
    1. reduced mA
    2. limit phases of acquistion
    3. increase pitch
    A. 1 and 3 only
    B. 1 and 2 only
    C. 1 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Radiation exposure and its potentially harmful effects have a relationship that is termed_______in nature?
    A. nonstochastic
    B. somatic
    C. stochastic
    D. negligible
    C. stochastic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Which of the following types of isolation techniques protects against infection transmitted through fecal material?
    A. drainage-secretion precautions
    B. contrast isolation
    C. enteric precautions
    D. acid-fast bacillus isolation
    C. enteric precautions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which of the following is considered one of the ionic radiopaque contrast media (RCM)?
    A. iohexol
    B. iothalamate meglumine
    C. iopamidol
    D. ioversol
    B. iothalamate meglumine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. The radiation dose index calculations that takes into account the variations in absorption across the field of view due to beam hardening is termed:
    A. CTDI100
    B. MSAD
    C. CTDIw
    D. CTDIvol
    C. CTDIw
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Direct contraindications to the administration of iodinated contrast material include:
    1. prior life threatening reaction to iodinated contrast material
    2. multiple myeloma
    3. diabetes
    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 1 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 1 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Which of the following units is used to express the total patient dose from a helically acquired CT examination?
    A. roentgens (R)
    B. curies (Ci)
    C. R-cm (roentgens per centimeter)
    D. mGy-cm (milligrays per centimeter)
    D. mGy-cm (milligrays per centimeter)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Components of a comprehensive CT stroke management protocol typically include:
    1. pre-contrast sequence of the brain
    2. CTA of the brain brain and carotids
    3. CT Perfusion (CTP) of the brain
    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1, 2, and 3
    D. 2 only
    C. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Simple cysts of the kidney have average attenuation values in the range of:
    A. +30 to +50 Hounsfield units
    B. -40 to 0 Hounsfield units
    C. 0 and +20 Hounsfield units
    d. above +60 Hounsfield units
    C. 0 to +20 Hounsfield units
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. After initiation of rapid bolus administration of an iodinated contrast agent, the arterial phase of hepatic contrast enhancement occurs at approximately:
    A. 120-180 seconds
    B. 15-20 seconds
    C. 25-35 seconds
    D. 60-70 seconds
    C. 25-35 seconds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. The Abdominal Aorta biforcates at the level of:
    A. T12
    B. T10
    C. L2
    D. L4
    D. L4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. On an ECG of the complete cardiac cycle, at which portion of the R-R interval is the heart muscle in diastole?
    A. 35%-50%
    B. 10%-20%
    C. 85%-95%
    D. 55%-75%
    D. 55%-75%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. The accumulation of gas within a degenerating intervertebral disc is called the:
    A. oxygen saturation point
    B. carbonization sign
    C. aeration effect
    D. vacuum phenomenon
    D. vacuum phenomenon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. During a spiral or helical CT examination, the scanner acquires data:
    1. continuously as the patient travels through the gantry
    2. one section at a time
    3. in the form of a computer volumetric data set
    A. 2 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. 1 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Which of the following CT studies of the head is typically performed without a contrast agent?
    A. CT of the brain to r/o metastatic disease
    B. CT angiogram for circle of willis
    C. CT of the brain to r/o subdural hematoma
    D. coronal scan to r/o pituitary tumor
    C. CT of the brain to r/o subdural hematoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Which of the following phases of renal contrast enhancement best demonstrates transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of the bladder?
    A. excretory
    B. early arterial
    C. nephrographic
    D. corticomedullary
    A. excretory
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. CT examinations of the abdomen in the right lateral decubitus are often performed in this position to demonstrate the relationship between the:
    A. liver and gallbladder
    B. duodenum and pancreatic head
    C. large and small colon
    D. ureters and renal collecting systems
    B. duodenum and pancreatic head
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Which of the following sets of section width and spacing would be most suitable for a general survey CT of the neck?
    A. 0.75 mm thick every 0.75 mm
    B. 3 mm thick every 3 mm
    C. 10 mm thick every 10 mm
    D. 3 mm thick every 5 mm
    B. 3mm thick every 3mm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. The still viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke is termed the:
    A. thrombolytic zone
    B. ischemic penumbra
    C. stroke volume
    D. hemorrhage focus
    B. ischemic penumbra
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Complex fractures of the wrist are most common in which of the following carpal bones?
    A. capitate
    B. scaphoid
    C. hamate
    D. triquetrium
    B. scaphoid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. A complete CT study of the orbits should include:
    A. 5mm x 5mm axial sections
    B. 3mm x 3mm coronal sections
    C. 10mm x 10mm axial and coronal sections
    D. 2.5mm x 2.5mm axial and coronal sections
    D. 2.5mm x 2.5mm axial and coronal sections
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. High-Resolution computed tomography (HRCT) is most commonly used for the evaluation of the:
    A. pelvis
    B. pancreas
    C. lungs
    D. brain
    C. lungs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Which of the following technical maneuvers may be used to remove unwanted pulsations artifacts from cardiac motion during a CTA of the chest for pulmonary embolism?
    A. automatic tube current modulation
    B. automated bolus tracking
    C. saline flush
    D. retrospective ECG gating
    D. retrospective ECG gating
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. During a general CT examination of the abdomen, an intravenous contrast agent is indicated and is administered with the aid of an automatic injector. Which of the following ranges of flow rate should be used?
    A. 7.0-10.0 mL/sec
    B. 1.0-3.0 mL/sec
    C. 4.0-6.0 mL/sec
    D. 0.2-1.0 mL/sec
    B. 1.0-3.0 mL/sec
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Diffuse fatty infiltration of the hepatic parenchyma may be referred to as:
    A. steatosis
    B. cirrhosis
    C. lipomatosis
    D. chromatosis
    A. steatosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. CT images of the chest should be acquired with the patient:
    A. at full expiration
    B. breathing quietly
    C. at full inspiration
    D. breathing normally
    C. at full inspiration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. During CT scanning of the head, the gantry should be angled:
    A. 10 degrees below the IOML
    B. 0 degrees
    C. 15 degrees above the infraorbital-meatal line (IOML)
    d. 20 degrees above the skull base
    C. 15 degrees above the IOML
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. During the CT examination of the larynx, the patient is often instructed to phonate the letter "E" in order to properly evaluate the:
    A. uvula
    B. vocal cords
    C. trachea
    D. epiglottis
    B. vocal cords
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. During the CT examination of a female pelvis for a suspected malignancy, ascites may be present in an area posterior to the uterus and ovaries known as:
    A. the space of retzius
    B. morisons pouch
    C. the cul-de-sac
    D. the prevesical compartment
    C. the cul-de-sac
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. Which of the following pathologic processes may be considered an interstitial disease of the lungs?
    A. bronchogenic carcinoma
    B. bronchiectasis
    C. mediastinal lymphadenopathy
    D. pulmonary metastasis
    B. bronchiectasis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. An enterovesical fistula is an abnormal communication between the bowel and the:
    A. uterus
    B. vagina
    C. bladder
    D. umbilicus
    C. bladder
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Prior to a CT colonography, the patient may undergo a process of bowel cleansing termed:
    A. fasting
    B. catharsis
    C. hydration
    D. purgation
    B. catharsis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. Positioning the patient with the knees flexed over a foam cushoin during a CT examination of the lumbar spine assists in:
    1. decreasing the kyphotic curvature of the lumbar spine
    2. making the patient more comfortable throughout the exam
    3. decreasing the lordoctic curvature of the lumbar spine
    A. 2 and 3 only
    B. 1 only
    C. 2 only
    D. 3 only
    A. 2 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. The imaging plane that is parallel to the foots plantar surface is called the:
    A. coronal plane
    B. oblique axial plane
    C. sagittal plane
    D. axial plane
    D. axial plane
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. The condition of intermittent cramping pain in the legs due to poor circulation is called:
    A. claudication
    B. thrombosis
    C. varices
    D. stenosis
    A. claudication
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. The HRCT images of the chest are most likely acquired with a section width of:
    A. 1mm
    B. 5mm
    C. 7mm
    D. 10mm
    A. 1mm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. The pituitary gland is best demonstrated during CT in which of the following imaging planes?
    A. axial
    B. transaxial
    C. sagittal
    D. coronal
    D. coronal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. The most common site of organ injury due to blunt abdominal trauma is the:
    A. pancreas
    B. spleen
    C. kidney
    D. liver
    B. spleen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. The adult spinal cord ends at what vertebral level?
    A. superior portion of the coccyx
    B. L1-L2
    C. L3-L4
    D. T11-T12
    B. L1-L2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Which of the following protocols would provide the best image quality for a 3D disarticulation study of the hips?
    A. 10mm x 15mm sections, standard algorithm
    B. 10mm x 10mm sections, bone algorithm
    C. 5mm x 7mm sections, standard algorithm
    D. 1.5mm x 1.0mm sections, bone algorithm
    D. 1.5mm x 1.0mm sections, bone algorithm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Which of the following terms is used to describe a fibroid tumor of the uterus?
    A. leiomyoma
    B. cystic teratoma
    C. endometriosis
    D. corpus luteum
    A. leiomyoma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. The section thickness that would best demonstrate the greatest detail of the paranasal sinuses is:
    A. 3mm
    B. 7mm
    C. 5mm
    D. 10mm
    A. 3mm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Which of the following anatomic organs is located within the peritoneal cavity?
    A. liver
    B. kidneys
    C. uterus
    D. pancreas
    A. liver
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Which of the following may be included as part of a routine preparation for a general contrast-enhanced CT examination of the abdomen and pelvis?
    1. instructing the patient to take nothing by mouth (NPO) for 4 hours prior to exam
    2. 1200mL of oral contrast agent administered 90 minutes prior to exam
    3. having the patient drink 4 liters of poly-ethylene glycol (PEG) 24 hours prior to exam
    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 2 only
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. 1 only
    A. 1 and 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. During a complete CT scan of the pelvis, sections should be obtained from the:
    A. iliac crests to the lesser trochanter
    B. kidneys through the bladder
    C. bottom of the kidneys to the symphysis pubis
    D. iliac crests to the pubic symphysis
    D. iliac crests to the pubic symphysis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. The recommended scan field of view (SFOV) for a CT examination of the cervical spine is:
    A. 9.6 cm
    B. 25.0 cm
    C. 50.0 cm
    D. 15.0 cm
    C. 50.0 cm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Because of its inherent iodine concentration, the thyroid gland appears________on CT images.
    A. isodense
    B. mottled
    C. hyperdense
    D. hypodense
    C. hyperdense
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Air trapping within the trachea and bronchial tree may be optimally demonstrated with multiplanar volume reconstruction (MPVRs) of the thorax known as:
    a. maximum intensity projection
    (MIPs)
    b. 3D volume rendering
    c. shaded-surface displays (SSDs)
    d. minimum intensity projections (min-IPs)
    d. minimum intensity projections (min-IPs)
  73. Which of the following is NOT a portion of the small bowel?
    A. ileum
    B. cecum
    C. jejunum
    D. duodenum
    B. cecum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Which of the following is used as the IV administered radiopharmaceutical during a PET-CT fusion examination?
    A. strontium chloride Sr 89
    B. fludeoxyglucose F 18 (FDG)
    C. technetium Tc 99m
    D. iodine I 131
    B. fludeoxyglucose F 18 (FDG)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. The specialized CT examination of the bladder in which an iodinated contrast-agent is directly administered under gravity into the bladder via foley catheter is termed:
    A. CT enteroclysis
    B. CT urogram
    C. CT cystography
    D. CT IVP
    C. CT cystography
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. Which of the following best describes the shape of the x-ray beam utilized in MDCT?
    A. electron beam
    B. fan-shaped
    C. pencil beam
    D. cone-shaped
    D. cone-shaped
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. Collimation of the CT x-ray beam occurs-
    1. at the x-ray tube, regulating slice thickness
    2. just beyond the patient, focusing off-axis transmitted radiation
    3. before the detectors, limiting the amount of scatter radiation absorbed
    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. 1 only
    C. 1 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. CT numbers are usually provided in the form of:
    A. Hounsfield units
    B. u
    C. EMI numbers
    D. Cormacks
    A. Hounsfield units
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. The mathematical technique allowing the reconstruction of the motion-free images from helically acquired CT data is called:
    A. convultion
    B. radon transformation
    C. Fourier reconstruction
    D. interpolation
    D. interpolation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. The full width at half maximum (FWHM) of a CT scanner is used to describe:
    A. contrast resolution
    B. calibration accuracy
    C. spatial resolution
    D. noise
    C. spatial resolution
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. A first generation CT scanner consists of an x-ray tube and two detectors that translate across the patients head while rotating in 1-degree increments for a total of:
    A. 360 degrees
    B. 45 degrees
    C. 180 degrees
    D. 90 degrees
    C. 180 degrees
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. Which of the following abbreviations is used to identify a computerized network that stores, retrieves, communicates, and displays digital medical images?
    A. DICOM
    B. PACS
    C. HIPAA
    D. WORM
    B. PACS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. The CT "window" controls the _____ of the CT image as it appears to the viewer.
    A. spatial and contrast resolution
    B. density and detail
    C. attenuation coefficient and Hounsfield value
    D. contrast and brightness
    D. contrast and brightness
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. Voxels with equal dimensions along the x-, y- and z- axes are referred to as:
    A. isotropic
    B. prospective
    C. retrospective
    D. anisotropic
    A. isotropic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Which of the following artifacts is not affected by the CT technologist?
    A. partial volume
    B. ring
    C. edge gradient
    D. motion
    B. ring
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. When one is viewing a multiplanar reformation (MPR) image, each voxel represents:
    A. the average attenuation occurring within the voxel
    B. the maximum attenuation occurring within the voxel
    C. the minimum attenuation occurring within the voxel
    d. all attenuation occurring within the voxel above a set threshold value
    A. the average attenuation occurring within the voxel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. Statistial noise appears as _____ on a CT image.
    A. graininess
    B. concentric circles
    C. decreased contrast
    D. increased brightness
    A. graininess
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. An acquisition is made on a 64-slice MSCT system in which each detector element has a z-axis dimension of 0.625 mm. With a selected beam width of 40 mm and the beam pitch is set at 1.50, how much will the table move with each rotation of the gantry?
    A. 80mm
    B. 40mm
    C. 20mm
    D. 60mm
    D. 60mm------40 mm x 1.5 = 60 mm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. The component of the CT computer system responsible for the data processing of image reconstuction is the:
    A. hard disk drive
    B. array processor
    C. RAM microprocessor
    D. pipeline memory
    B. array processor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. For single-slice CT (SSCT) systems, which of the following statements regarding retrospective image reconstruction is FALSE?
    A. the slice thickness and SFOV may be changed
    B. retrospective image reconstruction may be used to adjust the center of the image
    C. the algorithm, matrix size, and DFOV may all be changed
    D. scan (raw) date must be available
    A. the slice thickness and SFOV may be changed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. The loss of anatomic information between contiguous sections due to inconsistent patient breathing is called:
    A. out-of-field artifact
    B. misregistration
    C. overshoot artifact
    D. cupping artifact
    B. misregistration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. Before a CT image can be reconstructed by a computer, the transmission signal produced by the detectors must be converted into numerical information by an:
    A. analog-to-digital converter (ADC)
    B. digital-to-analog convertor (DAC)
    C. array processor
    D. kernel
    A. analog-to-digital converter (ADC)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. A CT image is formed in part by projecting back all of the attenuation values recorded during data acquisition onto a:
    A. matrix
    B. voxel
    C. reformat
    D. pixel
    A. matrix
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. Which of the following archival media is capable of storing the largest number of CT images?
    A. magnetic tape
    B. VHS tape
    C. optical disk
    D. floppy disk
    C. optical disk
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. Areas of a CT image that contain abrupt changes in tissue density are electronically represented by which of the following?
    A. low spatial frequencies
    B. high spatial frequencies
    C. positive CT numbers
    D. negative CT numbers
    B. high spatial frequencies
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Which of the following terms is used to describe a set of rules for solving a mathematical problem?
    A. array
    B. reconstruction
    C. function
    D. algorithm
    D. algorithm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. Which of the following factors does not affect the dimensions of a voxel?
    A. display field of view
    B. matrix size
    C. slice thickness
    D. kernel
    D. kernel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. The size of the CT image displayed on a computer monitor can be enlarged by increasing the:
    1. DFOV
    2. SFOV
    3. image magnification
    A. 1 and 3 only
    B. 3 only
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 1 only
    B. 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. The average photon energy of the primary beam of a CT scanner operating at a tube potential of 120 kVp is approximately?
    A. 50 keV
    B. 100 keV
    C. 120 keV
    D. 70 keV
    D. 70 keV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. MSCT systems typically employ which of the following detector geometries?
    A. first generation
    B. third generation
    C. second generation
    D. fourth generation
    B. third generation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. The acquisition of a series of CT images at a single anatomic location over a set period is referred to as:
    A. temporal CT
    B. conventional CT
    C. cine CT
    D. ultrafast CT
    C. cine CT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. The rate at which a quantity of x-radiation emitted from a CT tube passes through a unit area over a unit of time is called the:
    A. photon fluence
    B. effective mAs
    C. photon flux
    D. constant mAs
    C. photon flux
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. An average CT number value for bone is:
    A. +500 HU
    B. +3000 HU
    C. +1000 HU
    D. +100 HU
    C. +1000 HU
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. A standard CT image reconstructed on a 512 squared matrix has a digital size of appoximately:
    A. 3.0 MB
    B. 10.0 MB
    C. 5.0 MB
    D. 0.5 MB
    D. 0.5 MB
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. The term used to describe the relationship between the linear attenuation coefficient of an object and the calculated CT numbers is:
    A. mottle
    B. quanrum noise
    C. linearity
    D. spatial resolution
    C. linearity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. Quality control measurements to test the accuracy of the CT scanners calibration should be performed:
    A. monthly
    B. weekly
    C. daily
    D. annually
    C. daily
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. The 3D CT technique that includes all of the acquired voxel information in the recontructed model with adjustments to its opacity is termed:
    A. maximum intensity projection (MIP)
    B. volume rendering
    C. curved multiplanar reformation
    D. surface rendering
    B. volume rendering
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. Where is the high-frequency generator often located in a modern CT scanner?
    A. beneath the CT table
    B. inside the gantry
    C. just outside the scan room
    D. inside the operators console
    B. inside the gantry
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. The smallest unit of information used in the binary language of computers is the:
    A. bit
    B. chip
    C. byte
    D. base
    A. bit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. The continuous gantry rotation required by helical CT acquisition is made possible by the application of:
    A. titanium bearins
    B. electromagnetic bushings
    C. oil-coated couplings
    D. slip-rings
    D. slip-rings
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. The process of applying a mathematical filter to remove blurring from the reconstructed CT image is termed:
    A. z-filtration
    B. iteration
    C. interpolation
    D. convolution
    D. convolution
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. Which of the following acquisitions may be characterized as contiguous?
    A. 2.5mm sections reconstructed every 1.25mm
    B. 3.75mm sections reconstructed every 3.75mm
    C. 5.0mm sections reconstructed every 7.5mm
    D. 20 second cine acquisition with 1.25mm sections
    B. 3.75mm sections reconstructed every 3.75mm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. Pixels representing tissues with average attenuation coefficients greater than that of water have which of the following types of values?
    A. negative
    B. positive
    C. low contrast
    D. extremely small
    B. positive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. For a single slice CT system, which of the following statements regarding pre-patient collimation is true?
    1. an increase if pre-patient collimation increased patient dose
    2. pre-patient collimation is used to focus radiation through the section of interest
    3. pre-patient collimation directly controls slice thickness
    A. 2 and 3 only
    B. 1 and 2 only
    C. 3 only
    D. 2 only
    C. 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. Digital CT images are networked and archived in accordance with a standardized computer protocol identified by which of the following abbreviationgs?
    A. DICOM
    B. HTTP
    C. TCP/IP
    D. HIPAA
    A. DICOM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. The contrast resolution of a CT scanner is NOT related to which of the following?
    A. signal-to-noise ratio
    B. section width
    C. reconstruction algorithm
    D. focal spot size
    D. focal spot size
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. The average photon energy of the CT x-ray beam can be increased by:
    A. increasing filtration
    B. increasing collimation
    C. increasing mAs
    d. all of the above
    A. increasing filtration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. Which of the following is a solid-state device used to record the light flashes given off by a scintillation crystal?
    A. photodiode
    B. photomultiplier tube
    C. input phospor
    D. anode
    A. photodiode
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. Automatic tube current modulation (ATCM) software is used in current MDT systems to control:
    A. tissue perfusion assessment
    B. patient radiation dose
    C. cardiac motion
    D. timing of the contrast agent bolus
    B. patient radiation dose
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. The type of MSCT detector array that contains multiple rows of detector elements, each of the same lengths, is called a(n):
    A. hybrid array
    B. stationary array
    C. adaptive array
    D. uniform matrix array
    D. uniform matrix array
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. A CT image is displayed in a window with a level of 0 and a width of 500. Which of the following statements is correct?
    A. pixels with values less than 0 HU will appear white
    B. pixels with values between 0 HU and 500 HU will appear white
    C. pixels with values greater than +500 HU will be black
    D. pixels with values between -250 HU and +250 HU will be assigned shades of gray
    D. pixels with values between -250 HU and + 250 HU will be assigned shades of gray
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. Reformatted CT image planes that lie perpendicular to the original plane of acquisition may be decribed as:
    A. oblique
    B. orthogonal
    C. obtuse
    D. orthographic
    B. orthogonal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. Segmenting the data acquisition process into separate components of smaller rotation angles may improve which of the following components of CT image quality?
    A. longitudinal spatial resolution
    B. temporal resolution
    C. in-plane spatial resolution
    D. contrast resolution
    B. temporal resolution
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. Which of the following image artifacts is unique to multislice CT systems?
    A. step artifact
    B. aliasing artifact
    C. cone beam artifact
    D. out-of-field artifact
    C. cone beam artifact
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. Which of the following is considered an analytic form of image reconstruction?
    1. iterative technique
    2. Fourier reconstruction
    3. filtered back projection
    A. 1, 2, and 3
    B. 1 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. 1 and 2 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. A 16-slice MSCT system utilizes an adaptive array of 24 detectors, each ranging in size from 0.625 to 1.25 mm. What is the maximum number of sections the system can acquire with each rotation of the gantry?
    A. 32
    B. 16
    C. 64
    D. 8
    A. 16
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. The measurements of transmitted radiation made by an individual detector is called an:
    A. ray sum
    B. attenuation coefficient
    C. Hounsfield unit
    D. CT number
    A. ray sum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. The information included during the 3D reconstruction of a CT scan is controlled by the:
    A. gray-scale map
    B. algorithm
    C. threshold setting
    D. window setting
    C. threshold setting
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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