Dental radiology

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Anonymous
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6867
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Dental radiology
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2010-02-14 03:01:48
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Dental radiology
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final exam for dental radiology
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  1. Identify which of the following processes occurs with ionization:
    A. cell death takes place
    B. photons penetrate matter
    C. radiant energy is converted to heat
    D. an electron is displaced from its orbit
  2. d. Correct. Ionization occurs when an atom gains or loses an electron.
  3. Identify the term used to describe an atom that has lost an electron from its orbit:
    A. ion
    B. photon
    C. neutron
    D. particle
    A. Correct. An ion refers to an atom that has gained or lost an electron
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Identify which of the following is not a property of x-rays:
    A. the ability to produce a latent image
    B. the ability to produce ionization of matter
    C. the ability to penetrate organic matter
    D. the ability to fluoresce all materials
    C. X-rays can penetrate organic matter.b. Correct. X-rays can cause certain substances to fluoresce.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Identify which of the following element(s) is/are located within the x-ray tube:
    A. anode
    B. cathode
    C. focusing cup
    D. all of the above
    d. Correct. The anode and cathode are the electrodes inside the x-ray tube, and the focusing cup is a part of the cathode.
  6. Identify which of the following is not a type of particulate radiation:
    A.alpha particles
    B.beta particles
    C. protons
    D. nucleons
    D. Correct. Nucleons are not a type of particulate radiation; a nucleon is a part of an atomic nucleus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Identify which of the following is not a type of electromagnetic radiation:
    A. x-rays
    B.microwaves
    C.radar waves
    D.electrons
    D. Correct. Electrons are not a type of electromagnetic radiation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Identify which of the following is false:
    A. x-rays have no charge
    B. x-rays travel at the speed of sound
    C.x-rays cannot be focused to a point
    D.x-rays cause ionization
    B. False. X-rays do not travel at the speed of sound. X-rays travel at the speed of light.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Identify the part of the x-ray tube that contains the focal spot:
    A. anode
    B. Cathode
    C. filament
    D. focusing cup
    A. Correct. The anode is the electrode that contains the focal spot.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Identify the part of the x-ray tube where x-rays are produced:
    A. at the positively charged anode
    B. at the positively charged cathode
    C. at the negatively charged cathode
    D. at the negatively charged anode
    A. Correct. X-rays are produced at the positively charged anode when the electrons are converted into x-ray photons.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Identify the unit of time used to measure x-ray exposure:
    A. volts
    B.amperes
    C. milliamperes
    D. impulses
    D. Correct. Exposure time is measured in impulses because x-rays are created in a series of bursts or pulses rather than a continuous stream.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Identify the function(s) of the milliamperage setting on the x-ray machine:
    A. controls quantity of x-rays produced
    B. controls heat of the tungsten filament
    C. a and b
    D.controls quality of the x-rays produced
    C. Correct. Milliamperage controls both the quantity of x-rays produced as well as the temperature of the tungsten filament.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Identify the characteristics of x-rays produced with a high kilovoltage: 1. more penetrating 2. less penetrating 3. of longer wavelength 4. of shorter wavelength
    A. 2 and 4
    B.2 and 3
    C. 1 and 3
    D. 1 and 4
    D.When kilovoltage peak settings are increased, a higher energy x-ray beam is produced with a more penetrating beam; more penetrating x-rays with greater energy also demonstrate shorter wavelengths
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Identify the function of the kilovoltage setting on the x-ray machine:
    A.controls the quantity of x-rays produced
    B. controls the number of photons available
    C.controls the penetrating power of the x-ray beam
    D. all of the above
    C. Correct. The kilovoltage setting controls the penetrating power of the beam.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Identify the term used to describe the overall blackness or darkness of a film:
    A. intensity
    B.contrast
    C. density
    D. overexposure
    C. Density is the overall blackness or darkness of a film.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Identify the exposure factor(s) that affect(s) contrast:
    A.milliamperage
    B. kilovoltage
    C. exposure time
    D. all of the above
  17. B.The only exposure factor that affects the contrast of the image is kilovoltage.
  18. Identify the density and contrast of a film produced using a high kilovoltage setting:
    A.increased density; low contrast
    B. increased density; high contrast
    C. decreased density; low contrast
    D. decreased density; high contrast
  19. A. high kilovoltage setting produces a darker image (which can be described as increased density), and a low contrast (which can be described as many shades of gray).
  20. Identify which of the following results when a film is exposed with a high milliamperage setting:
    A. decreased density
    B. low contrast
    C. increased density
    D. high contrast
    C. Correct. A high milliamperage setting produces an image of increased density, or a darker image.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Identify the kilovoltage peak (kVp) setting that produces the greatest contrast among images on a radiograph:
    A. 65 kVp
    B. 75 kVp
    C.80 kVp
    D.90 kVp
  22. A."Greatest" contrast refers to an image that has high contrast, or many black and white areas; this type of image is produced with lower kilovoltage peak settings.
  23. Identify the reduction in exposure time when changing from D-speed film to E-speed film:
    A.reduce exposure time by 1/8
    B.reduce exposure time by 1/4
    C.reduce exposure time by 1/3
    D. reduce exposure time by 1/2
  24. D.When film manufacturers produce a faster speed intraoral film, the newer film requires only half the exposure time of the previous film.
  25. Identify the periapical film size used for a maxillary premolar exposure in an adult patient:
    A.size 2
    B. size 4
    C.size 1
    D. size 3
    A. Correct. Size 2 film examines the anterior and posterior teeth in adults.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Identify the major advantage of using the paralleling technique versus the bisecting angle technique:
    A. more contrast
    B.decreased density
    C. decreased distortion
    D. increased density
    C. Correct. The major advantage of the paralleling technique over the bisecting technique is the decreased amount of distortion in the image.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Identify the positioning of the film in relation to the tooth when using the paralleling technique:
    A.the film is placed in direct contact with the tooth
    B. the film is placed parallel to the tooth
    C. the film is placed on the occlusal surface of the tooth
    D.the film is placed perpendicularly to the tooth
    B.To utilize the paralleling technique correctly, place the receptor or film parallel to the long axis of the tooth.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Identify which of the following is not an advantage of the paralleling technique:
    A.simplicity of use
    B. films are easily placed in the mouth
    C. patient comfort
    D. films are easily duplicated
    C. Correct. Patient comfort is not an advantage of the paralleling technique because the film-holding devices may impinge on the oral tissues.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Identify the benefit of using a long-cone (16") position-indicating device (PID) versus a short-cone (8") PID:
    A.less magnification occurs
    B. decreased definition occurs
    C.increased distortion occurs


    D.

    less resolution occurs
    A. Correct. When a longer PID is used, more parallel rays strike the object, which results in less image magnification.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Identify the error that causes teeth to appear foreshortened on a radiograph:
    A.insufficient horizontal angulation
    B. insufficient vertical angulation
    C.excessive horizontal angulation
    D. excessive vertical angulation
    D. Correct. Excessive vertical angulation causes foreshortening of the image.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Identify the angulation of the central ray when using the bisecting angle technique:
    A. 90 degrees to the imaginary bisector
    B. 90 degrees to the film
    C. 90 degrees to the long axis of the tooth
    D. 90 degrees to the contact area
  32. A. The bisecting angle technique describes an intraoral technique in which the radiographer must visualize an angle formed by the film and long axis of the tooth; the central ray of the x-ray beam is directed perpendicular to the imaginary bisector.
  33. Identify the result of using excessive finger pressure on the film with the bisecting angle technique:
    A. increased density
    B. a cone-cut
    C.a herringbone pattern
    D. increased image distortion
    D. Correct. Increased finger pressure on the film can cause the film to bend, and image distortion results
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Identify a likely cause of gagging during radiographic exposure:
    A.the film is held in place by the patient
    B. the film impinges on the floor of the mouth
    C.exposure of bite-wing radiographs
    D. the film is moved across the soft palate
    D. Correct. Moving the film across the soft palate often induces a gag reflex in patients.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Identify the film that is used to detect both interproximal caries and crestal bone levels:
    A. panoramic
    B. bite-wing
    C. periapical
    D. occlusal
    B. Correct. The bite-wing radiograph is the film of choice to examine interproximal caries and crestal bone levels.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Identify the cause of overlapped contacts on a bite-wing radiograph: A.
    A.incorrect horizontal angulation
    B.decreased vertical angulation
    C.increased vertical angulation
    D. incorrect vertical angulation
    A. Correct. Incorrect horizontal angulation causes overlapped contacts.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Identify the vertical angulation required for exposing a bite-wing radiograph:
    A.+20 degrees
    B. +10 degrees
    C. -20 degrees
    D. -10 degrees
  38. B. the vertical angulation recommended for exposing bite-wing radiographs is +10 degrees, which means the tubehead is angled downward slightly.
  39. Identify the error that results when the central x-ray is not centered on the film:
    A. cone-cut
    B. distortion
    C. elongation
    D. overlap
    A. Correct. A cone-cut results if the central x-ray beam is not centered on the film.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Identify one use for the occlusal radiograph:
    A. diagnose dental caries
    B. evaluate periodontal conditions
    C. Localize foreign bodies
    D. examine lesions of the mucosa
    C. Correct. The occlusal radiograph can be used to localize foreign bodies in the maxilla or mandible.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Identify the film size and vertical angulation required to expose a maxillary occlusal projection on a 5-year-old child:
    A. size 4 film; +90 degrees
    B. size 2 film; +60 degrees
    C. size 2 film; -60 degrees
    D. size 2 film; +90 degrees
    B. Correct. Because of the age of the child, size 2 film is recommended as well as an angulation of +60 degrees to view the maxillary arch.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Identify which instruction(s) should be given to the patient concerning exposure of a panoramic radiograph:
    A. swallow, then raise tongue to the roof of the mouth
    B. stand or sit as straight as possible
    C. remain still during the exposure
    D. all of the above
    d. Correct
  43. Identify the error that results when a patient is positioned for a panoramic exposure with the chin tipped up:
    A.a reverse smile line
    B. narrow, skinny mandibular incisors
    C. an exaggerated smile line
    D. excessive cervical spine on the film
    A. Correct. A reverse smile line occurs when the patient's chin is tipped up.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Identify which of the following is true concerning intensifying screens:
    A. used to magnify the amount of radiation produced
    B. used to help to absorb scatter radiation
    C. found in extraoral and intraoral film packets
    D. emit light when struck by x-radiation
  45. D. When struck by x-radiation, the intensifying screen used in extraoral radiography emits light.
  46. Identify the function of the intensifying screen:
    A. reduce exposure time
    B. increase exposure time
    C. increase processing time
    D. clarify periapical structures
  47. A The function of the intensifying screen used in extraoral radiography is to reduce exposure time for the patient.
  48. Identify the cause of a herringbone pattern on a processed radiograph:
    A. Film was underdeveloped
    B. exposure time was too short
    C. exposure time was too long
    D. film was placed backward in the mouth
  49. d. Correct. The herringbone pattern is the result of the film having been placed backward in the mouth. The radiation has penetrated the lead foil before reaching the film.
  50. Identify the appearance of a film exposed to light before processing:
    A. clear
    B. black
    C. normal
    D. fogged
    B. Correct. A film exposed to light before processing appears black.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Identify the likely cause of black lines on a processed film:
    A. improper safelight
    B. overdevelopment
    C. dirty rollers
    D. exposure time was too long
    C. Correct. Dirty rollers in the processor may cause black lines across the film.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Identify the radiopaque anatomic landmark:
    A. incisive foramen
    B. mandibular canal
    C. genial tubercles
    D. maxillary sinus
    C. Correct. The genial tubercles are ringlike radiopacities seen below the apices of the mandibular teeth.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Identify the radiolucent anatomic landmark:
    A. external oblique ridge
    B. maxillary tuberosity
    C. nasal septum
    D. canine fossa
    D. Correct. The canine fossa is a scooped-out area of the bone that appears as a radiolucency superior to the roots of the maxillary lateral incisor and canine.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. Identify the film that includes the mental foramen:
    A. mandibular premolar
    B. mandibular molar
    C. maxillary premolar
    D. maxillary molar
  55. A The mental foramen is a radiolucent landmark seen near the apices of the mandibular premolars and most often appears on the mandibular premolar film.
  56. Identify the film that includes the lingual foramen:
    A. mandibular incisor
    B. mandibular canine
    C. mandibular premolar
    D. maxillary canine
  57. a.The lingual foramen is a radiolucent landmark seen below the roots of the mandibular incisors and most often appears on the mandibular incisor film.
  58. Identify the film that includes the canine fossa:
    A. maxillary incisor
    B. maxillary canine
    C. mandibular incisor
    D. mandibular canine
  59. B.The canine fossa is a radiolucent landmark seen near the apices of the maxillary lateral incisor and maxillary canine and most often appears on the maxillary canine film.
  60. Identify which of the following affect(s) the life of the developer solution:
    A. size of films processed
    B. number of films processed
    C. cleanliness of processing tanks
    D. all of the above
    d. Correct. The size of the films, the number of films, and the cleanliness of the processing tanks all affect the life of the developer solution.
  61. Identify which of the following produce(s) a light radiographic image:
    A. developing in cool solutions
    B. accidental overexposure
    C. processing with exhausted chemicals
    D. a and b
    D. Correct. A cool developer solution produces a lighter image. Exhausted chemicals do not fully bring out the latent image and therefore a lighter, nondiagnostic image again results
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Identify which of the following produce(s) yellow or brown stains on a film:
    A. exhausted developer solution
    B. exhausted fixer solution
    C. insufficient washing
    D. all of the above
  63. d. Correct. Exhausted processing solutions and insufficient washing can all contribute to a yellow-brown stain on the film.
  64. Identify the appearance of a film left in the fixer for a long time:
    A. film demonstrates a decrease in density
    B. demonstrates an increase in density
    C. film demonstrates proper density
    D. film becomes discolored
    A. Correct. Leaving a film in the fixer causes a light image, or decreased density.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Identify the cause of light (white) spots on a processed radiograph:
    A. static electricity created with opening of film packet
    B. fixer contacts film prior to processing
    C. developer contacts film prior to processing
    D. processing solutions are too warm
    B. Correct. Contact with the fixing solution before processing causes light (white) spots.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Identify the cause of a radiograph that appears too dark:
    A. film was underexposed
    B. temperature of the developing solution is high
    C. insufficient washing
    D. film remained in the fixer too long
    B. Correct. If the temperature of the developing solution is high, the films appear darker.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Identify which of the following results in film fog: 1. improper safelighting 2. film exposed to chemical fumes 3. use of outdated film 4. placing the film backward in the mouth
    A. 1, 2
    B. 1, 2, 3
    C. 2, 3, 4
    D. 1, 3
    B. Correct. Improper safelighting, films exposed to chemical fumes in the darkroom, and the use of outdated films may all cause film fog.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Identify the likely cause if one or two films of a complete series appear simply clear after processing:
    A. overexposure of films
    B. processing solutions are too cool
    C. incorrect processing
    D. films were not exposed to radiation
    D. Correct. If only one or two processed radiographs of a complete series appear clear after processing, then these images were not exposed to radiation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. Identify the optimum temperature for the developer solution:
    A. 55° F
    B. 68° F
    C. 75° F
    D. 80° F
    B. Correct. 68° F is the optimum temperature for the developer solution when manually processing radiographs.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. Identify the appearance of a radiograph processed with exhausted developer:
    A. dark radiographic image
    B. thin, faded radiographic image
    C. yellow-brown radiographic image
    D. black image
    B. Correct. An exhausted developer cannot bring out the dark images; therefore, the processed radiograph will appear thin and faded.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Identify the recommended distance between the safelight and work surface:
    A. a minimum of 2 feet
    B. a minimum of 4 feet
    C. a minimum of 3 feet
    D. a minimum of 1 foot
    B. Correct. Four feet is the recommended distance from the safelight to the working surface in the darkroom
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Identify the reason(s) film should not be stored in the darkroom:
    A. processing solutions may splash on the boxes of film
    B. chemical fumes may fog film
    C. unopened boxes of film should not be exposed to the safelight
    D. all of the above
    B. Correct. Film should be stored in a cool, dry environment to protect against film fog.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. Identify which of the following does not affect the life of the processing solutions:
    A. age of the processing solutions
    B. number of films processed
    C. care in preparation of processing solutions
    D. type of safelight filter used
    D. Correct. The type of safelight filter used has no effect on the life of the processing solutions
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Identify the error that results when a film is subjected to sudden temperature change (e.g., between developer solution and water bath):
    A. yellow-brown stains
    B. fixer spots
    C. reticulation of emulsion
    C. Correct. Films that are subject to a sudden temperature change in processing solutions demonstrate reticulation of emulsion; the film appears cracked.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Identify the films placed in the following frames, using the labial mounting method.{Insert unn fig 1}Frame #1:
    A. maxillary left molar periapical
    B. left molar bite-wing
    C. right molar bite-wing
    D. maxillary right molar periapical
    D. Correct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. Identify which of the following is true concerning labial mounting:
    A. the teeth are mounted in reverse anatomic order
    B. the patient's left is on your right
    C. the patient's left is on your left
    D. the radiographs are viewed as if the operator were inside the patient's mouth looking out
    B. Correct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. Identify which of the following is true regarding duplicating film:
    A. exposure to light makes the film darker
    B. exposure to light makes the film lighter
    C. a and b
    D. emulsion is on one side only
    C. Correct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Identify which of the following is/are true regarding duplicating film:
    A. the duplicating film is placed on the duplicator with the emulsion side up
    B. the emulsion on the duplicating film must contact the original radiographs
    C. duplicating radiographs may be performed in the lab or operatory
    D. all of the above
    B. Correct. Adequate contact between the duplicating film and original radiographs is important.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. Identify the best description of primary radiation:
    A. the beam that exits the tubehead
    B. the beam that is deflected from its path by matter
    C. the beam that is created when x-rays contact matter
    D. the beam that is less penetrating
    A. Correct. Primary radiation is defined as the beam that exits the tubehead.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. Identify the radiation produced when matter is irradiated by x-rays:
    A. leakage radiation
    B. primary radiation
    C. diverging radiation
    D. secondary radiation
  81. d. Correct. Secondary radiation is produced when matter is irradiated by x-rays.
  82. Identify the x-rays that are most likely absorbed by the skin, thus causing x-ray injury:
    A. long-wavelength x-rays
    B. deep, penetrating x-rays
    C. short-wavelength x-rays
    D. aluminum-filtered x-rays
    A. Correct. Long-wavelength x-rays are lower in energy and are not useful in diagnostic radiography. Also, they are harmful to the patient.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. Identify the most dangerous time for a fetus to be exposed to ionizing radiation:
    A. third trimester
    B. second trimester
    C. first trimester
    D. all of the above
    C. Correct. The most dangerous time for a fetus to be exposed to ionizing radiation is during the first trimester because the fetal cells have high mitotic activity and cell differentiation, making them highly sensitive to radiation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. Identify which of the following are patient protection measures used to limit exposure to x-radiation: 1. use of lead apron and thyroid collar 2. use of film-holding devices 3. following the ALARA concept 4. use of E-speed film
    A. 1, 3
    B. 1, 2, 3
    C. 1, 2, 4
    D. 1, 2, 3, 4
    D. Correct. All of the choices listed are protection measures used to limit patient exposure to x-radiation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Identify the maximum permissible dose (MPD) of an occupationally exposed person:
    A. 0.03 Sv/year (3.0 rem/year)
    B. 0.02 Sv/year (2.0 rem/year)
    C. 0.05 Sv/year (5.0 rem/year)
    D. 0.01 Sv/year (1.0 rem/year)
    C. Correct. The maximum permissible dose of an occupationally exposed person is defined by the National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements and is set at the state and federal levels
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. Identify the maximum permissible dose (MPD) of a nonoccupationally exposed person:
    A. 0.005 Sv/year (0.5 rem/year)
    B. 0.002 Sv/year (0.2 rem/year)
    C. 0.003 Sv/year (0.3 rem/year)
    D. 0.001 Sv/year (0.1 rem/year)
    A. Correct. The maximum permissible dose of a nonoccupationally exposed person is defined by the National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements and is set at the state and federal levels.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. Identify the maximum diameter of the collimated x-ray beam as it exits the PID:
    A. 1.75 inches
    B. 2.75 inches
    C. 3.25 inches
    D. 2.25 inches
    B. Correct. Federal regulations require that the x-ray beam be collimated to a diameter of no more than 2.75 inches as it reaches the skin of the patient.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. Identify the function of the collimator:
    A. to remove the long wavelengths from the x-ray beam
    B. to increase scatter radiation
    C. to remove the low energy x-rays from the beam
    D. to restrict the size and shape of the x-ray beam
    D. Correct. The function of the collimator is to restrict the size and shape of the x-ray beam.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. Identify which of the following is used to make a collimator:
    A. lead
    B. tungsten
    C. copper
    D. aluminum
    A. Correct. Lead is used to make the collimator.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. Identify the function of filtration:
    A. b and c
    B. to remove the low energy x-rays from the beam
    C. to restrict the size and shape of the x-ray beam
    D. to remove the long wavelengths from the x-ray beam
    A. Correct. The function of the filter is to remove the long wavelengths, which are also lower-energy x-rays, from the beam.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. Identify which of the following is not a component of inherent filtration:
    A. the lead-lined cone
    B. unleaded glass window
    C. the tubehead seal
    D. oil
    A. Correct. The lead-lined cone is not a component of inherent filtration.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. Identify which of the following is used to make a filter:
    A. lead
    B. copper
    C. aluminum
    D. tungsten
    C. Correct. Aluminum is used to make the filter.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. Identify the term used to describe the x-ray beam that exits the PID:
    A. secondary radiation
    B. direct radiation
    C. scatter radiation
    D. primary radiation
    D. Correct. Primary radiation is defined as the x-ray beam that exits the PID.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. Identify the exposure factor adjustment used to produce a beam with greater penetrating power:
    A. increase the milliamperage
    B. increase the target-film distance
    C. increase the kilovoltage
    D. increase the time setting
    C. Correct. Increasing the kilovoltage peak creates a more penetrating beam with higher quality.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. Identify the intensity of the x-ray beam if the PID is increased from 8 inches to 16 inches:
    A. the beam will be one quarter as intense
    B. the beam will be half as intense
    C. the beam will be four times as intense
    D. the beam will be twice as intense
    A. Correct. Utilizing the inverse square law, the beam will be one quarter as intense.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Identify which of the following results in the greatest reduction of x-ray exposure:
    A. E-speed film
    B. a long PID
    C. low kilovoltage
    D. a short developing time
    A. Correct. Using the fastest film available is the most effective method of reducing a patient's exposure to x-radiation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. Identify which of the following is determined by the milliamperage and exposure time settings:
    A. penetrating ability of the x-ray beam
    B. energy of the radiation produced
    C. number of x-rays produced
    D. amount of film fog
    C. Correct. Both milliamperage and exposure time settings determine the number of x-rays produced
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  98. Identify the radiation effects that occur in the exposed person, not in the reproductive cells:
    A. direct effects
    B. somatic effects
    C. short-term effects
    D. genetic effects
    B. Correct. Somatic effects are seen in the person irradiated.
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  99. Identify which of the following is most effective in reducing x-radiation exposure:
    A. 8-inch, lead-lined, rectangular PID
    B. 8-inch, lead-lined, round PID
    C. 16-inch, lead-lined, rectangular PID
    D. 16-inch, lead-lined, round PID
    C. Correct. The addition of rectangular collimation makes this the most effective choice in reducing x-radiation exposure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. Identify the recommended positioning of the dental radiographer to the primary beam:
    A. 90 to 120 degrees
    B. 60 to 90 degrees
    C. 90 to 135 degrees
    D. 135 to 180 degrees
    C. Correct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. Identify the safest positioning for a radiographer during x-ray exposure:
    A. parallel to the tubehead
    B. at a 45-degree angle to the patient
    C. at least 6 feet behind the patient's head
    D. behind a lead barrier
    D. Correct. Standing behind a lead barrier is the safest position for the operator.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. Identify the safest positioning for a radiographer during an x-ray exposure in which no shielding is available:
    A. at least 6 feet behind the tubehead
    B. at a 45-degree angle to the patient
    C. at least 6 feet behind the patient's head
    D. none of the above
    A. Correct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. Identify the purpose of creating a reference radiograph:
    A. to determine whether the darkroom is "light-tight"
    B. to determine proper safelight distance and wattage
    C. to determine the strength of the developer solution
    D. to determine the strength of the fixer solution
    C. Correct. Reference radiographs are used to compare film densities, and the developer solution is responsible for creating the densities.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. Identify the purpose of the "coin test":
    A. to determine whether the darkroom is "light-tight"
    B. to determine the strength of the fixer solution
    C. to determine the strength of the developer solution
    D. to determine the proper safelight distance and wattage
    D. Correct. The coin test is used to determine proper safelight distance and wattage.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. Identify the appearance of a radiograph if the film is exposed to a small light leak in the darkroom:
    A. spotted
    B. fogged
    C. underexposed
    D. all of the above
    B. Correct. A small light leak may cause some fogging of the image.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. Identify the term used to describe the location of a lesion found around the crown of an impacted tooth:
    A. inter-radicular location
    B. periapical location
    C. pericoronal location
    D. edentulous zone
    C. Correct. Pericoronal refers to a location around the crown of an impacted tooth.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. Identify the term used to describe the location of a lesion found between the roots of adjacent teeth:
    A. pericoronal location
    B. inter-radicular location
    C. edentulous zone
    D. periapical location
    B. Correct. Inter-radicular refers to a location between the roots of adjacent teeth.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. Identify the term used to describe the location of a lesion found around the apex of a tooth:
    A. pericoronal location
    B. inter-radicular location
    C. periapical location
    D. edentulous zone
    C. Correct. Periapical refers to a location around the apex of a tooth.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. Radiolucent lesions with corticated borders exhibit a thin, well-demarcated radiopaque rim of bone at the periphery. These types of lesions are usually indicative of fast growing, malignant processes;
    A. both statements are false
    B. the first statement is false; the second statement is true
    C. both statements are true
    D. the first statement is true; the second statement is false
    D. Correct. The presence of a corticated border indicates that the radiolucent lesion will be surrounded by a thin, radiopaque rim of bone; this is usually indicative of a benign, slow-growing process.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. A well-defined, localized radiopaque area surrounded by a uniform, radiolucent halo can be described as:
    A. focal opacity
    B. ground glass
    C. multifocal confluent
    D. target lesion
    D. Correct. A target lesion is a well-defined, localized radiopaque area surrounded by a radiolucent halo.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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