CT Mock Review2

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DTJones2011
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68693
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CT Mock Review2
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2011-02-25 11:24:28
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CT Ct Registry CT Review
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CT Registry Review
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  1. In the CT setting, which describes the concept of basic (or simple) consent?
    A. before CT exam the tech explains the procedure to the patient and asks them if they agree.
    B. consent that is inferred from signs or action. For example if a patient holds out his arms so that you can start an IV line, it can be implied that he gives his consent to the procedure.
    C. the requirement that, for minors, one or more parent must consent to the procedure
    D. a written document is given to the patient or gaurdian. The document lists all of the potential complications of the procedure. The patient must sign the form to acknowledge that they understand both the risks and benefits of the exam.
    A. before the CT exam the tech explains the procedure to the patient and asks them if they agree
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. A patient is being scheduled for a CT exam of the neck. The patient also needs a number of other diagnostic exams. Which of the following exams may affect the date scheduled for the CT study?
    A. upper GI
    B. nuclear medicine thyroid scan
    C. MR abdomen and pelvic exam
    D. doppler ultrasound of the lower extremity
    B. nuclear medicine thyroid scan
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. All of the following are reasons for obtaining a history before a CT exam is performed EXCEPT:
    A. to aide the radiologist in his or her interpretation of the CT exam
    B. to be sure the exam can be performed safely
    C. to verify that the patient has not exceded his radiation limit
    D. to select the appropriate protocol
    C. to verify that the patient has not exceded his radiation limit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. What is a general rule regarding the administration of IV contrast media to patients receiving dialysis?
    A. patients on dialysis should never get contrast media
    B. patients on dialysis who still have some residual kidney function should not be given contrast media, patients with end stage renal failure can get contrast media
    C. when contrast media is given, dialysis must be scheduled to be performed within 4 hours
    D. contrast media poses no risk to patients on dialysis
    B. patients on dialysis who still have some residual kidney function should not be given contrast media, patients with end stage renal failure can get contrast media
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. In many institutions a radiologist is consulted before IV contrast media is given to patients in whom the creatine value is greater than:
    A. 2.0 mg/dL
    B. 0.4 mg/dL
    C. 0.8 mg/dL
    D. 8.0 mg/dL
    A. 2.0 mg/dL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. You complete the CT exam and wll remove the IV catheter. Which of the following medications may necessitate holding pressure on the puncture site for a longer period?
    A. benadryl
    B. synthroid
    C. coumadin
    D. tylenol
    C. coumadin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. In what circumstances is it acceptable to use a large bore tunneled dialysis catheter for the injection of iodinated contrast media?
    A. when the patency of the line has been verified by flushing with saline
    B. whenever a standard peripheral IV access is not available
    C. when the contrast flow rate is 2 mL/sec or less
    D. a dialysis catheter should never be used for contrast media administration
    D. a dialysis catheter should never be used for contrast media administration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Documentation of IV contrast administration is:
    A. required on all patients and should include the name of the agent, the dose, the flow rate, and the injection site
    B. required on all patients and must cosigned by a radiologist
    C. only necessary when an adverse event occurs
    D. only necessary when routine injection parameters are modified
    A. required on all patients and should include the name of the agent, the dose, the flow rate, and the injection site
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Which is a TRUE statement regarding venipuncture in a peripheral vein for the placement of an IV line for a CT coronary angiogram?
    A. an 18 gauge straight needle should be used
    B. a 22 gauge butterfly infusion set should be used
    C. a huber needle should be used
    D. an indwelling catheter set with a flexible plastic cannula should be used, preferably 20 gauge or larger
    D. an indwelling catheter set with a flexible plastic cannula should be used, preferably 20 gauge or larger
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Automated injection triggering methods are used to:
    A. simplify the proces of contrast injection, so that assistants can perform the task and patient throughput can be increased
    B. effectively accommodate for individual differences in circulation time by adjusting scan delay
    C. improve patient safety by reducing contrast extravasations
    D. effectively accomodate for individual differences in circulation times by adjusting the contrast flow rate
    B. effectively accommodate for individual differences in circulation time by adjusting scan delay
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Which of the following is TRUE of an ionic contrast medium?
    A. ionic contrast agents have fewer particles in solution than nonionic agents
    B. ionic contrast media are typically more expensive than the non-ionic types
    C. all ionic contrast media have high osmolality
    D. the molecules in an ionic contrast solution dissociate to form ions in water
    D. the molecules in an ionic contrast solution dissociate to form ions in water
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. What property of IV contrast media is responsible for its capacity to increase a structures ability to attenuate the x-ray beam?
    A. viscosity
    B. osmolality
    C. iodine concentration
    D. ionic nature
    C. iodine concentration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. In performing CT colonography, which is an advantage of CO2 over room air?
    A. only CO2 can provide reliable colonic distention
    B. room air has been associated with infections of the colon
    C. CO2 induces less spastic response of the bowel wall and is therefore better tolerated by most patients
    D. CO2 provides a higher negative contrast on images
    C. CO2 induces less spastic response of the bowel wall and is therefore better tolerated by most patients
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. A CT of the abdomen and pelvis is ordered for a child weighing 18 kg. Using the standard pediatric formula, what dose of iodinated contrast medium is given?
    A. 54mL
    B. 36mL
    C. 9mL
    D. 18mL
    B. 36mL-----------18 kg x 2 = 36mL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Which is a TRUE statement regarding the risk of iodinated contrast media to the fetus?
    A. fetal abnormalities have been reported in pregnant patients who were given iodinated contrast media at the usual clinical doses
    B. many studies have been done on the effects of iodinated contrast media in pregnant women
    C. although no definite risk to the fetus has been identified, not enough studies have been done to conclude that there are no risk
    D. at the usual clinical doses, iodinated contrast media does not cross the human placenta and therefore will not enter the fetus
    C. although no definite risk to the fetus has been identified, not enough studies have been done to conclude that there are no risk
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Contrast media induced nephropathy can be defined as:
    A. any renal impairment, whether mild or severe, that occurs within a month of the intravenous administration of contrast material
    B. chronic renal failure that is associated with diabetes mellitus
    C. a short period of mildly reduced kidney function that does not produce symptoms
    D. an acute impairment of renal function that follows the intravascular administration of contrast material and for which alternative causes have been excluded
    D. an acute impairment of renal function that follows the intravascular administration of contrast material and for which alternative causes have been excluded
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which is an advantage of using higher concentration agents?
    A. they deliver the same amount of iodine at a lower flow rate
    B. they are of lower viscosity, so are less likely to remain in the venous injection path, and therefore, a saline flush is not nexessary
    C. they possess lower osmolality, so are associated with fewer adverse effects
    D. they produce fewer high-contrast artifacts in the injected veins
    A. they deliver the same amount of iodine at a lower flow rate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. When a mechanical injector is used, a large air embolism can result from?
    A. the use of butterfly infusion sets or straight needles
    B. tiny undetected bubbles in the contrast medium
    C. the incorrect preparation and inadequate connection of the injector syringe and tubing
    D. a malfunctioning pressure limit switch
    C. the incorrect preparation and inadequate connection of the injector syringe and tubing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. What causes barium peritonitis?
    A. the oral administration of a large volume of a barium sulfate solution in patients with an obstructed bowel
    B. barium leaking into the peritoneal cavity from a perforation of the GI tract
    C. aspiration of barium into the lungs
    D. the oral administration of a large volume of barium sulfate solution in patients with renal insufficiency
    B. barium leaking into the peritoneal cavity from a perforation of the GI tract
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. When the decision to premedicate is made by the radiologist, it is important that the steriods by started:
    A. at least 6 hrs before contrast administration
    B. 30 minutes before contrast administration
    C. 72 hours before contrast administration
    D. at least 2 hrs before contrast administration
    A. at least 6 hrs before contrast administration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Assuming all other factors are held constant, which of the following will increase the radiation dose to the patient for a CT exam of the abdomen?
    A. using a wider slice
    B. decreasing the pitch
    C. decreasing the mAs
    D. widening the window width, increasing the window level
    B. decreasing the pitch
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. If a single slice of the abdomen delivered a radiation dose of 8cGy, the entire exam dose from 40 contiguous slices could be estimated as:
    A. 0.2 to 0.8 cGy
    B. 320 cGy
    C. 10 to 11.2 cGy
    D. 8 cGy
    C. 10 to 11.2 cGy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. What type of radiation dose measurement is used when scanner manufacturers report to the Food and Drug Administration and prospective clients the doses typically delivered for the machine?
    A. rem
    B. DLP
    C. CTDI
    D. MSAD
    C. CTDI
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. How does object size and scan field diameter affect radiation does to the patient?
    A. smaller objects, which are scanned with a small scan field, always absorb a much higher dose than do larger objects, which are scanned with a large scan field
    B. changing from a small scan field, such as that used for a head scan, to a large scan field, such as that used for a body scan, will have a negligible effect of the radiation dose. It could either reduce or increase the dose slightly, depending on the patient factors
    C. scan field diameter has no effect, it is the display field diameter that has an impact on dose
    D. smaller objects, which are scanned with a small scan field, always absorb a much lower dose than do larger objects, which are scanned with a large scan field
    A. smaller objects, which are scanned with a small scan field, always absorb a much higher dose than do larger objects, which are scanned with a large scan field
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. The relastionship between _____ and radiation dose to the patient is linear.
    A. kVp
    B. pitch
    C. mAs
    D. display field of view
    C. mAs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. The radiosensitivity of a developing fetus is greatest:
    A. from 7 to 9 months gestation
    B. from 3 to 5 months gestation
    C. from 5 to 7 months gestation
    D. from conception to 3 months gestation
    D. from conception to 3 months gestation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Which of the following is TRUE concerning CT dose uniformity?
    A. uniformity of dose increases as the scan field of view and patient thickness increase
    B. the dose in body scans is more uniform than that of head scans
    C. the peripheral dose, or skin dose, of a body scan can be two to three times higher than the central dose
    D. compared with children, adults can be expected to receive a more uniform dose
    C. the peripheral dose, or skin dose, of a body scan can be two to three times higher than the central dose
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. The lifetime risk of an eventual cancer-related death as a result of pediatric CT is approximately 1 in:
    A. 1,000
    B. 100,000
    C. 100
    D. 10,000
    D. 1,000
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Why is lead shielding less beneficial in CT than it is in general radiography?
    A. because of the high kVp used in CT, photons will penetrate a lead shield
    B. scatter radiation is excessive in CT and is not controlled by shielding
    C. because of the narrow collimation used in CT, not much radiation is scattered to regions outside the selected scan area
    D. radiosensitive organs such as the thyroid gland can never be shielded without impairing the scans
    C. because of the narrow collimation used in CT, not much radiation is scattered to regions outside the selected scan area
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Which combination of factors is likely tp result in the lowest radiation dose to the patient?
    A. mAs= 180, kVp= 140, pitch = 0.8, 2mm slice thickness
    B. mAs= 200, kVp= 120, pitch = 1.8, 5mm slice thickness
    C. mAs= 280, kVp= 120, pitch = 1.5, 2mm slice thickness
    D. mAs= 300, kVp= 120, pitch = 1.0, 5 mm slice thickness
    B. mAs= 200, kVp= 120, pitch = 1.8, 5mm slice thickness
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. In CT the uncoupling effect:
    A. occurs only in CT and refers to the process of changing pitch
    B. refers to the process in conventional radiography in which the appropriate doses creates the proper film darkening; that is, too high a dose will create an image that is too dark, whereas too low a dose will result in an image that is too light
    C. refers to the lack of relationship, in CT, between patient size and radiation dose
    D. occurs with digital technology and refers to the fact that the relationship between dose and image quality is less direct than in film-screen radiopgraphy
    D. occurs with digital technology and refers to the fact that the relationship between dose and image quality is less direct than in film-screen radiopgraphy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Which of the following is a high-attenuation structure?
    A. petrous bone
    B. lung
    C. trachea
    D. renal cyst
    A. petrous bone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. The process of using raw data to create a new image after the initial image has been generated is typically referred to as:
    A. reformatting
    B. step-and-shoot scanning
    C. prospective reconstruction
    D. retrospective reconstruction
    D. retrospective reconstruction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. In a CT system, what is the function of the generator?
    A. it dissipates the heat built up during x-ray production
    B. it produces high voltage and transmits it to the x-ray tube
    C. it produces an electric current of very high amperage and transmits it to the filament
    D. it samples the detectors thousands of times per second
    B. it produces high voltage and transmits it to the x-ray tube
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. A detectors dynamic range is the:
    A. ratio of the maximum signal measured to the minimum signal the detector can measure
    B. time that is required for the signal from the detector to return to zero
    C. number of photons absorbed by the detector
    D. amount of afterglow exhibited
    A. ratio of the maximum signal measured to the minimum signal the detector can measure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. The part of the CT system referred to as the DAS is responsible for:
    A. converting the light emitted from the detector to an electric current
    B. projecting the data from the attenuation profile onto a matrix
    C. converting digital data to shades of gray to be displayed
    D. sampling each of the detector cells many times per second
    D. sampling each of the detector cells many times per second
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Increasing the kilovoltage results in an increase in the:
    A. speed of electrons as they travel from the anode through the patient
    B. number of electrons that "boil off" of the filament
    C. rate at which the system can rid itself of by-product heat
    D. speed of the electrons as they travel from filament to anode
    D. speed of the electrons as they travel from filament to anode
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. The configuration of the x-ray tube to the detectors determines a scanners:
    A. generation
    B. speed
    C. detector efficiency
    D. heat dissipation rate
    A. generation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Which are parts of the systems primary memory?
    A. MOD, thumb drive
    B. ROM, RAM
    C. DVD-R, magnetic tape
    D. SAM, CD-R
    B. ROM, RAM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. What is an example of a computer output device?
    A. CT detector mechanisms
    B. touch-sensitive plasma screen
    C. microprocessor
    D. monitor
    D. monitor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. What two factors control the slice thickness of an MDCT scanner?
    A. table speed and kVp setting
    B. collimation of the x-ray beam and width of the detectors in the z-axis
    C. gantry rotation time and mAs setting
    D. reconstruction algorithm and detector material
    B. collimation of the x-ray beam and width of the detectors in the z-axis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. What part of the CT system is responsible for converting the digitized data into shades of gray?
    A. display processor
    B. array processor
    C. photodiode
    D. analog-to-digital converter
    A. display processor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. A hardware component of a CT system that resembles small shutters with an opening that adjusts, dependent on the operators selection of slice thickness, is a:
    A. bow-tie filter
    B. source collimator
    C. reference detector
    D. slip ring
    B. source collimator
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. The fraction of a beam of x-rays that is absorbed or scattered per unit thickness of the absorber is referred to as the:
    A. spatial resolution
    B. contrast transfer function
    C. modulation transfer function
    D. attenuation coefficient
    D. attenuation coefficient
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. In the production of x-rays, approximately what percentage of the kinetic energy of the projectile electrons is converted to thermal energy?
    A. 99%
    B. 50%
    C. 2%
    D. 75%
    A. 99%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. The area of the anode where the electrons strike and the x-ray beam is produced is the:
    A. filament
    B. generator
    C. focal spot
    D. detector
    C. focal spot
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. MDCT systems that contain parallel rows of equal size detectors are called:
    A. uniform arrays
    B. hybrid arrays
    C. fourth generation arrays
    D. adaptive arrays
    A. uniform arrays
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Which of the following could be retrospectively reconstructed for MDCT data that requires four 2.5mm slices with each gantry rotation?
    A. slices can be divided to produce sixty four 0.15mm slices
    B. slices can be combined to produce two 5mm slices
    C. slices can be combined to produce eight 5mm slices
    D. slices can be divided to produce thrity two 0.31mm slices
    B. slices can be combined to produce two 5 mm slices
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Computer memory that is imprinted at the factory and is used to store frequently used instructions such as those required for starting the CT system is called:
    A. read-only memory (ROM)
    B. serial access memory (SAM)
    C. compact disk recordable (CD-R)
    D.write once ready many times (WORM) memory
    A. read-only memory (ROM)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Interpolation, as it is used in CT, is:
    A. the method used to convert the electric signal to a digital format
    B. a statistical measure of the spread or dispersion of a set of data; it is the positive square root of the variance
    C. a mathematical method to estimate a missing value by taking an average of known values at neighboring points
    D. the method used to convert light levels into an electric current
    C. a mathematical method to estimate a missing value by taking an average of known values at neighboring points
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Image data can be used for:
    A. changing the reconstruction algorithm
    B. creating multiplanar reformation
    C. creating overlapping slices from helical data
    D. changing the display field of view
    B. creating multiplanar reformation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Why is it necessary to apply a filter function to an attenuation profile to create a CT image?
    A. to minimize streaks
    B. to reduce radiation exposure to the patient
    C. to eliminate ring artifacts
    D. to increase the signal-to-noise ratio
    A. to minimize streaks
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. What type of filter accentuates the difference between neighboring pixels to enhance spatial resolution?
    A. a soft-tissue algorithm
    B. a bone algorithm
    C. a bow-tie filter
    D. a smoothing algorithm
    B. a bone algorithm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. The window width of a specific CT image is set at 120 and the level is set at 50. How is a structure with a measurement of -40 HU displayed?
    A. it is black
    B. it is a light shade of gray
    C. it is a dark shade of gray
    D. it is white
    A. it is black
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. A narrow window width is best for:
    A. reducing the appearance of streak artifact
    B. displaying the aerated lungs
    C. suppressing noise on an image
    D. displaying the white and gray matter of the brain
    D. displaying the white and gray matter of the brain
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. How is a cursor measurement different than obtaining a region of interested measurement?
    A. a cursor measurement uses raw data, whereas an ROI uses image data
    B. a cursor management shows what mAs was used to create the image, whereas an ROI obtains both mAs and kVp settings
    C. a cursor measurement is the HU measurement for a single pixel, whereas an ROI is the average HU for all pixels within the ROI
    D. a cursor measurement provides only the standard deviation, whereas an ROI provides an HU measurement
    C. a cursor measurement is the HU measurement for a single pixel, whereas an ROI is the average HU for all pixels within the ROI
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. Using a standard 512 matrix for all studies, which contains the largest pixels?
    A. a scan of the neck; DFOV= 30, slice thickness= 3mm
    B. a scan of the abdomen; DFOV= 44, slice thickness= 5mm
    C. an image of the knee; DFOV= 20, slice thickness= 1mm
    D. an image of the pituitary; DFOV=16, slice thickness= 2mm
    B. a scan of the abdomen; DFOV= 44, slice thickness= 5mm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Why is it more common pracice to manipulate the mAs, rather than the kVp, for a CT exam:
    A. scanners offer more mA options and the effect of mAs on image qualit is more predictable
    B. changing the mAs will not affect the quality of the images
    C. tube cooling is not affected by adjusting the mAs settings
    D. changing the mAs does not affect the radiation dose to the patient
    A. scanners offer more mA options and the effect of mAs on image qualit is more predictable
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. What scan parameter determines how the raw date are filtered in the reconstruction process?
    A. reconstruction algorithm
    B. window level
    C. window width
    D. kVp
    A. reconstruction algorithm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Which of the following is an imaging challenge that depends on spatial resolution?
    A. a large abdominal abscess
    B. distinguishing between the white matter and gray matter of the brain
    C. tiny, contrast filled arteries that are just 1mm apart
    D. a liver lesion that is surrounded by healthy liver tissue
    C. tiny, contrast filled arteries that are just 1mm apart
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. In-plane resolution refers to the resolution:
    A. related to the slice thickness
    B. resulting from helical data
    C. in the z direction
    D. in the xy direction
    D. in the xy direction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Which of the following parameters will produce near isotropic voxels?
    A. DFOV= 25, slice thickness= 5mm
    B. DFOV= 12, slice thickness= 1mm
    C. DFOV= 35, slice thickness=0.625mm
    D. DFOV= 44, slice thickness= 2mm
    C. DFOV= 35, slice thickness= 0.625mm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. Temporal Resolution refers to:
    A. the level of noise apparent on an image
    B. the spatial resolution measurable in images of the temporal bone
    C. how rapidly the data is acquired by the CT system
    D. the ability to differentiate between objects with very similar densities as their backgrounds
    C. how rapdily the data is acquired by the CT system
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. What two factors define the quantity of the x-rays energy?
    A. mA and scan time
    B. DFOV and x, y coordinates
    C. reconstruction algorithm and heat dissipation
    D. kVp and heat capacity
    A. mA and scan time
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Which of the following can be described as possessing high inherent contrast?
    A. soft tissue
    B. lungs
    C. kidneys
    D. liver
    B. lungs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. In the computing world, _____ is used to describe an arrangement in which two or more components perform the same task- if one element fails the duplication keeps the system functioning while the failed component is repaired.
    A. bandwidth
    B. overlapping
    C. redundancy
    D. protocol
    C. redundancy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Which is an example of an offline archiving device?
    A. optical jukebox
    B. compact disks
    C. RAID
    D. hard drive
    B. compact disks
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Spatial Resolution can be calculated from the analysis of the spread of information within the system using the modulation transfer function. What is a simpler and more direct way to measure spatial resolution?
    A. using the readout from the scanners display
    B. using a line / pairs phantom
    C. using a water phantom
    D. calculating it from the radiation dose delivered
    B. using a line / pairs phantom
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. Which aspect of the CT quality control program must be performed by a medical physicist?
    A. spatial resolution measurement
    B. dosimetric data
    C. all aspects of the CT quality control program must be performed by a medical physicist
    D. noise and uniformity
    B. dosimetric data
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. The process in CT by which different tissue attenuations are averaged to produce one less accurate pixel reading is called?
    A. ring artifacts
    B. the partial volume effect
    C. beam hardening
    D. photon deprivation
    B. the partial volume effect
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. The primary method of reducing beam-hardening artifacts is:
    A. filtering the x-ray beam
    B. using a helical technique
    C. increasing mAs
    D. decreasing slice thickness
    A. filtering the x-ray beam
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Effective slice thickness blooming is:
    A. the trend toward selecting a wider slice thickness to improve spatial resolution
    B. a disadvantage often associated with the interpolation of helical data
    C. an improvement to image resolution assocaited with helical scans
    D. the process in CT by which different tissue attenuations are averaged to produce one less accurate pixel reading
    B. a disadvantage often associated with the interpolation of helical data
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. If measurements taken around the perimeter if a water phantom are different from those taken at the center of the phantom, than there is a problem with the systems:
    A. slice-thickness accuracy
    B. cross-field uniformity
    C. linearity
    D. photon accuracy
    B. cross-field uniformity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Estimate the radiation dose for one CT exam versus the dose from one chest radiograph
    A. one CT exam is less than or equal to one chest radiograph
    B. one CT exam is greater than one chest radiograph but is less than 100 chest radiographs
    C. one CT exam is equal to or greater than 100 -250 chest radiographs
    D. one CT exam is equal to or greater than 500 chest radiographs
    C. one CT exam is equal to or greater than 100 -250 chest radiographs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Which image artifact can result from an improperly centered patient?
    A. undersampling artifact
    B. out-of-field artifact
    C. tube arc artifact
    D. edge gradient artifact
    B. out-of-field artifact
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. Which type of artifact is only present on images produced from MDCT systems?
    A. aliasing
    B. edge gradient
    C. cone-beam
    D. tube arcing
    C. cone-beam
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. What causes ring artifacts?
    A. irregularly shaped objects that have a pronounced difference in density from surrounding structures
    B. electrical surges within the x-ray tube
    C. imperfect detector elements either faulty or simply out of calibration
    D. involuntary patient motion
    C. imperfect detector elements either faulty or simply out of calibration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. The presence of noise on an image degrades its quality, particularly in:
    A. longitudinal resolution
    B. spatial resolution
    C. temoral resolution
    D. low-contrast resolution
    D. low-contrast resolution
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. An image of the abdomen is greatly degraded by quantum mottle. The scan parameters used are as follows: DFOV= 38 cm, slice thickness= 5mm, mA= 240, tube rotation= 0.5 seconds, kVp= 120. What action will have the best chance of reducing or eliminating the quantum mottle for subsequent scans?
    A. decrease mA to 125 and increase the tube rotation time to 1.o second
    B. decrease slice thickness to 2mm
    C. increase DFOV to 44cm
    D. increase the mA to 300 and increase tube rotation time to 0.8 seconds
    D. increase the mA to 300 and increase tube rotation time to 0.8 seconds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. A circular ROI is defined and placed on the image, and the resultant measurement is 3 HU. The standard deviation is 0. It can be surmissed that:
    A. the area measured is composed of a variety of very different tissue types
    B. all of the pixels within the region have identical values
    C. the area is likely a calcified nodule
    D. the patient is obese
    B. all of the pixels within the region have identical values
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. The display function that creates a bar graph to show how frequently a range of CT numbers occurs within a specified ROI is called a:
    A. localized image
    B. histogram
    C. gray scale
    D. beam attenuation chart
    B. histogram
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. Comparing the spatial resolution of CT to other modalities:
    A. CT is inferior to general radiography
    B. CT is comparable to all other modalities
    C. CT is superior to general radiography, but is inferior to MRI
    D. CT is superior to general radiography, MRI, and ultrasound
    A. CT is inferior to general radiography
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. Changing the slice incrementation is also referred to as:
    A. changing the zoom, target, or display field of view
    B. z-axis reconstruction or changing the reconstruction interval
    C. dynamic or cine scanning
    D. electron beam or fifth generation CT
    B. z-axis reconstruction or chaning the reconstruction interval
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using helical CT for the diagnosis of PE?
    A. it is less invasive than pulmonary angiography
    B. it is often helful in establishing an alternative diagnosis in the absence of PE
    C. it is cost effective
    D. quality images are produced even if the patient is uncoopertive
    D. quality images are produced even if the patient is uncoopertive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. High density contrast agents, such as barium sulfate, are referred to as:
    A. ionic agents
    B. negative agents
    C. positive agents
    D. neutral agents
    C. positive agents
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. What is the pitch in the following scenario: 64 detector channels used, 0.625mm slice thickness, table movement 55mm per rotation?
    a. 1
    b. 1.375
    c. 1.5
    d. 2
    • b. 1.375
    • rotation/slice thickness then divided by # of detectors
    • 55/.625= 88 88/64=1.375
  87. When do scan protocols incorporate the use of gapped slices?
    A. when the metallic objects are present in the area scanned
    B. when a survey of an area is needed
    C. when the object of interest is very small (>2mm)
    D. when the patient is unable to hold still for the duration of the scan
    B. when a survey of an area is needed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. Pitch is a parameter that is commonly used in helical CT to describe:
    A. different types of interpolation methods
    B. tube heat capacity
    C. table speed
    D. the number of detectorsin the z-axis
    C. table speed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. Compare 100mL of Ultravist (iopromide) 300 with 100mL of Ultravist (iopromide) 370.
    A. Ultravist 370 contains fewer grams of iodine
    B. Ultravist 370 has a lower osmolality
    C. Ultravist 370 is a better choice if the IV catheter is a 22 to 24 gauge
    D. Ultravist 370 has a higher viscosity
    D. Ultravist 370 has a higher viscosity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. In which of the following situations would an LOCM be beneficial when delivered orally?
    A. when patients are older than 70 years of age
    B. when oral contrast is needed for noenatal CT exam
    C. when patients have a hiatal hernia
    D. when a patient is unable to drink the full dose of oral contrast
    B. when oral contrast is needed for neonatal CT exam
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. The difference among the bolus phase, the non-equilibrium phase, and the equilibrium phase of contrast enhancement is primarily determined by the:
    A. injection rate and scan delay
    B. type of pathologic disease present
    C. film processing time
    D. brand of iodinated contrast agent that is used
    A. injection rate and scan delay
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. For routine CT if the chest, abdomen, or pelvis, the range of suggested IV contrast flow rate is:
    A. 6-12 mL/s
    B. 1.0-2.0 mL/s
    C. 0.2-0.5 mL/s
    D. 2.0-4.0 mL/s
    D. 2.0-4.0 mL/s
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. Which of the following might be an appropriate protocol for a CT study that is performed for suspected acoustic neuroma?
    A. 1mm contiguous slices, reconstructed using both standard and bone algorithm, with IV contrast, filmes in two separate window settings
    B. 10-mm contiguous slices, standard algorithm, with IV contrast, filmed with narrow window width
    C. 5-mm slice thickness, 3 mm table increment, without IV contrast, soft algorithm, filmed with a lung window
    D. 8-mm contiguous slices, bone algorithm, without IV contrast, filmed at two separate window settings
    A. 1mm contiguous slices, reconstructed using both standard and bone algorithm, with IV contrast, filmes in two separate window settings
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. Fresh blood in the brain, as in the case of a recent onset subdural hematoma, will measure approximately:
    A. 150 HU
    B. 20 HU
    C. -80 HU
    D. 70 HU
    D. 70 HU
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. Patients with metastasis to the brain are at greater risk for _____ after the administration of an IV contrast agent.
    A. pulmonary effects, such as bronchospasm
    B. contrast induced nephropathy
    C. anaphylactoid reaction
    D. seizures
    D. seizures
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Prospective ECG gatting methods for imaging the heart use a signal, usually derived from the ____ of the patients ECG, to trigger image acquisition.
    A. ST segment
    B. R wave
    C. T wave
    D. PR segment
    B. R wave
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. When imaging the heart, particularly when the structures of interest are small, such as the coronary arteries a regular heart rate of less than _____ is important.
    A. 50 bpm
    B. 90 bpm
    C. 70 bpm
    D. 110 bpm
    C. 70 bpm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. Airway imaging is routinely performed:
    A. using a representative technique in which only about 10% of the airway is imaged
    B. using a low contrast algorithm
    C. using a wide slice thickness (>8mm)
    D. at both inspiration and expiration
    D. at both inspiration and expiration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. In addition to imaging the pulmonary arterial system for patients with suspected PE, CT venography is sometimes performed to assess for venous thrombosis within the pelvis and lower extremities. How is this accomplished?
    A. a second scan series is obtained after most of the contrast has washed out of the venous structures (8 to 12 mins after IV contrast injection) from iliac crest through the knees
    B. a single helical scan is obtained in the cranisl-to-caudal direction extending from the lung apices to the knees while contrast is in the bolus phase (20-30 seconds after IV contrast injection)
    C. a second scan series is obtained in the non-equilibrium phase (appr. 45 seconds after injection) from the illiac crest through the knees
    D. a second series is obtained in a delayed venous phase (approx 180 seconds after IV contrast injected) from the iliac crest through the knees
    D. a second series is obtained in a delayed venous phase (approx 180 seconds after IV contrast injected) from the iliac crest through the knees
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. The use of a saline flush after the injection of the iodinated contrast is recommended for CTA pulmonary studies. Why?
    A. to hydrate the patient and reduce the risk of contrast induced nephropathy
    B. to flush any emboli out of the patients pulmonary emboli
    C. so that additional images can be acquired with a negative contrast agent
    D. to reduce or eliminate bean-hardening artifacts from dense contrast media within the superior vena cava that may obscure small emboli in adjacent vessels
    D. to reduce or eliminate bean-hardening artifacts from dense contrast media within the superior vena cava that may obscure small emboli in adjacent vessels
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. The formation, development, or existence of a clot within the vascular system is referred to as a(an)?
    A. thrombosis
    B. myocardial infarction
    C. ischemic-stroke
    D. embolus
    A. thrombosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. A CT study done for the screening, detecting, or exclusion of pulmonary nodules or infiltrates are typically done:
    A. using a wide slice thickness (>8mm) so the scan can be completed quickly, in one breath hold
    B. without IV contrast administration
    C. using multiple axial-mode scans, so that the patient must only hold their breath for a few seconds at a time
    D. first without IV contrast administration, followed by a repeat series with IV contrast administration
    B. without IV contrast administration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. A patient is being seen in the ER for acute respiratory distress. PEs are suspected and a CT is ordered. A review of the patients history reveals that he is allergic to shellfish. What action should be taken?
    A. the CT exam is cancelled, most likely it will be replaced by a nuc med VQ scan
    B. a CT exam of the chest without contrast is done
    C. a CT exam using PE protocol is done
    D. the patient is given steriods and the CT exam is delayed for 6 hours
    C. a CT exam using a PE protocol is done
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. A bolus injection of 125mL, of an iodinated contrast media with a concentration of 320mg of iodine/mL, is administered to a 150-pound patient, but becase of an unexpected equipment malfunction scan data could not be acquired. The decision must be made as to whether the patient should be moved to a functioning scanner within the department and the contrast injection repeated. What information will be particularly important for the radiologist making the decision?
    A. the patients history of allergy to any food or medication
    B. the brand of the contrast media being used
    C. evidence of renal impairment or dehydration
    D. the amount of radiation the patient received from the failed attempt
    C. evidence of renal impairment or dehydration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. On an UNENHANCED abdominal CT, what is the range of CT attenuation values of a normal liver?
    A. 85 to 132 HU
    B. -10 t0 30 HU
    C. 38 to 70 HU
    D. 147 to 165 HU
    C. 38 to 70 HU
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. In general, the pancreas is located between the areas of the:
    A. fifth and eighth thoracic vertebrae
    B. ninth and eleventh thoracic vertebrae
    C. second and forth lumbar vertebrae
    D. twelfth thoracic and the second lumbar vertebrae
    D. twelfth thoracic and the second lumbar vertebrae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. To scan in the nephrographic phase of contrast enhancement, scans should be acquired approximately ____ after a bolus contrast injection.
    A. 30 - 70 seconds
    B. 15 - 25 seconds
    C. 3 - 15 minutes
    D. 80 - 130 seconds
    D. 80 - 130 seconds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. The use of flow control mechanical pressure injectors are recommended for CT studies of the chest, abdomen and pelvis because:
    A. the risk of air embolus is eliminated
    B. contrast media dose and timing can be easily regulated and reproduced in subsequent studies
    C. side effects such as head and nausea are reduced
    D. there is a reduced risk of extravasation of the contrast media into the soft tissue
    B. contrast media dose and timing can be easily regulated and reproduced in subsequent studies
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. In scanning the abdomen, what can be done if the patient is unable to take fluids by mouth?
    A. the volume of IV contrast material is increased by 25% to compensate for the lack of oral contrast
    B. a NG tube may be inserted for the administration of an oral contrast agent
    C. 600mL of dilute water soluble agent is administered by enema
    D. a small volume of dilute water soluble contrast agent can be administered by an inhaler
    B. a NG tube may be inserted for the administration of an oral contrast agent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. It is important that all scans be completed before the equilibrium phase of contrast enhancement in studies of the:
    A. liver
    B. urinary tract
    C. postsurgical lumbar disk
    D. brain
    A. liver
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. Scanning to the adrenal glands in a CT study of the thorax is sometimes performed because:
    A. lung cancer may metatasize to the adrenal glands
    B. the adrenal glands are part of the respiratory system
    C. kidney function can be assessed
    D. it ensures that the technologist has scanned the entire lung field
    A. lung cancer may metatasize to the adrenal glands
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. As a general rule, this is set at a point that has roughly the same value as the average attenuation number of the tissue of interest. What is it?
    A. window level
    B. standard deviation
    C. sampling rate
    D. the x-axis in a histogram
    A. window level
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. The trachea bifurcates at the level of:
    A. T10-T11
    B. T4-T5
    C. T7-T8
    D. C6-C7
    B. T4-T5
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. An automatic trait that can help to differentiate an adenoma from a malignant adrenal mass on CT scans is its:
    A. calcium content
    B. location
    C. iron content
    D. intracellular lipid content
    D. intracellular lipid content
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. A set of ROIs, one placed within the liver and one placed with the spleen, is often used to document:
    A. fatty infiltration of the liver
    B. lymphoma
    C. sickel cell disease
    D. splenomegaly
    A. fatty infiltration of the iver
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. For a CT of the foot the patient is positioned supine, legs flat on the table, toes pointing straight up. There is no gantry tilt. Images acquired are in the direct _____ plane.
    A. coronal
    B. oblique
    C. axial
    D. sagittal
    C. axial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. In a preliminary scout view of a patient, the abdomen is determined to be 360mm in length. In this four-slice CT system, the gantry makes a 360 degree rotation each second. The protocol at the institution calls for a 5mm slice thickness. To cover the entire abdominal area in a single helical scans, which set of parameters could be selected?
    A. 10 second total acquisition time, 1.2 pitch
    B. 15 second total acquisition time, 1 pitch
    C. 15 second total acquisition time, 1.2 pitch
    D. 10 second total acquisition time, 1 pitch
    C. 15 second total acquisition time, 1.2 pitch
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. What technique is often used to differentiate the margins of the pancreas from the duodenum?
    A. unenhanced imaging, no oral or IV contrast is used
    B. water soluble contrast medium administered by enema
    C. scan approx. 2 hours after the patient ingests 600mL of a barium sulfate oral contrast media
    D. acquire scans while the patient is a right decubitus position
    D. acquire scans while the patient is a right decubitus position
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. What is the superior portion of the sternum?
    A. ensiform
    B. gladiolus
    C. manubrium
    D. xiphoid process
    C. manubrium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. Which of the following factors should be adjusted when slice thickness is decreased from 10 to 3 mm?
    A. increase mAs
    B. increase display field
    C. lower window level
    D. decrease matrix size
    A. increase mAs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. In scanning the brain, using which of the following reference lines reduces the radiation exposure to the lens of the eye?
    A. orbital meatal line
    B. infraorbital meatal line
    C. glabellomeatal line
    D. canthomeatal line
    C. glabellomeatal line
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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