board review

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drjenchiro
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board review
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2011-03-04 22:10:15
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board review part 1
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  1. Which of the following can be described as a change in tissue type from one adult form to another due to an adaptation to stress?
    A. transformation
    B. hyperplasia
    C. agenesis
    D. metaplasia
    Metaplasia
  2. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be present or associated with the early stage of accute inflammation?
    A. hyperemia
    B. fibroblastic proliferation
    C. increased neutrophils
    D. tissue exudates
    Fibroblastic proliferation
  3. Pedal edema is a prominent feature of which condition?
    A. cirrhosis
    B. nephritic syndrome
    C. kwashiorkor
    D. right heart failure
    Right heart failure
  4. Red infarcts are found in all of the tissues EXCEPT following:
    A. heart
    B. lung
    C. liver
    D. intestine
    Lung
  5. What is the pathogenetic mechanism of ischemia?
    A. anemia
    B. reduced arterial blood flow
    C. carbon monoxide poisoning
    D. cardiorespiratory failure
    Reduced arterial blood flow
  6. Which is characterized by localized area of tissue necrosis resulting from an immunologically induced, acute, necrotizing vasculitis?
    A. arthrus reaction
    B. serum sickness
    C. anaphylaxis
    D. tuberculin reaction
    Arthrus reaction
  7. Mask-like face, claw-like fingers, fibrosis of the esophagus, and hypertension characterize which condition?
    A. rheumatoid arthritis
    B. scleroderma
    C. systemic lupus erythematosus
    D. Sjogren's syndrome
    Scleroderma
  8. Which condition affects both arteries and veins?
    A. atheroslerosis
    B. Monckenberg's sclerosis
    C. varicosity
    D. Buerger's disease
    Buerger's disease
  9. Which is a functional vasospastic disorder which affects the small arteries of the extremities?
    A. carpal tunnel syndrome
    B. Raynaud's disease
    C. arteriosclerosis obliterans
    D. Buerger's disease
    Raynaud's disease
  10. Upper gastrointestinal bleeding manifested by either hematemesis or melena is most common caused by ________.
    A. hiatal hernia
    B. peptic ulcer
    C. espophageal trauma
    D. gastritis
    Peptic ulcer
  11. Which of the following is the joint disease in which the articular cartilage is the primary tissue involved?
    A. rheumatoid arthritis
    B. Lyme disease
    C. ochronosis
    D. osteoarthritis
    Osteoarthritis
  12. Periosteal reactive bone formation on the external surface is characteristically seen in:
    A. osteochondroma
    B. enchondroma
    C. osteosarcoma
    D. nonossifying fibroma
    Osteosarcoma
  13. Which of the following is the benign tumor of striated muscle?
    A. lipoma
    B. leyomyoma
    C. lymphoma
    D. rhabdomyoma
    Rhabdomyoma
  14. Which of the following is associated with Parkinson's disease?
    A. there is amyloid angiopathy with frontal and temporal cortical atrophy
    B. there is a spongiform vacuolar cortex with putamen degeneration
    C. there are senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles with astrogliosis
    D. Lewy's bodies are found in the substantia nigra with loss of pigmentation
    Lewy's bodies are found in the substantia nigra with loss of pigmentation
  15. Which of the following is NOT true regarding multiple sclerosis?
    A. it is an auto-immune disease
    B. it is a demyelinating disorder
    C. there are neurofibrillary tangles in the cytoplasm of neurons
    D. it is characterized by relapsing and remitting episodes involving the brain and spinal cord
    There are neurofibrillary tangles in the cytoplasm of neurons
  16. Postinfectious ascending paralysis and radiculoneuropathy are characteristics of what condition?
    A. Guillian-Barre sysndrome
    B. myasthenia gravis
    C. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
    D. multiple sclerosis
    Guillian-Barre syndrome
  17. In males, which of the following is the most common cause of both bilateral hydroureters and hydronephrosis?
    A. acute pylonephritis
    B. benign prostate hyperplasia
    C. stones in the renal pelvis
    D. hypospadias
    Benign prostate hyperplasia
  18. What is the characteristic pathological feature of malignant mesothelioma?
    A. primary related to smoking
    B. histologiacally, it is adenocarcinoma
    C. a localized focal lesion in pleura
    D. accompanied by pleural effusion
    Accompanied by pleural effusion
  19. The primary cause of endometrial hyperplasia is a high serum level of which hormone?
    A. progesterone
    B. dihydrotestosterone
    C. estrogen
    D. adrenocortocotrophic homone
    Estrogen
  20. What is the main cause of anemia in chronic renal failure?
    A. deficiency of vitamin B12
    B. deficiency of erythropoietin
    C. deficiency of folic acid
    D. deficiency of hematopoietic stem cells
    Deficiency of erythropoietin
  21. Which of the following is indicative of left heart failure?
    A. pitting pedal edema
    B. neck vein distention
    C. orthopnea
    D. ascites
    Orthopnea
  22. What is happmark of hypocalcemia?
    A. bone pain
    B. nephrolithiasis
    C. tetany
    D. peptic ulcers
    Tetany
  23. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency may lead to which of the following?
    A. chronic bronchitis
    B. bronchial asthma
    C. emphysema
    D. cystic fibrosis
    Emphysema
  24. Which of the following pathologies is responsible for left cardiac concentric hypertrophy?
    A. pulmonary emphysema secondary to smoking
    B. thrombus-induced pulmonary artery obstruction
    C. sustained diastolic pressure over 90 mm Hg
    D. myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valve
    Sustained diastolic pressure of 90 mm Hg
  25. Which is NOT true of giant cell arteritis?
    A. it is associated with polymyalgia rheumatica
    B. it involves inflammation of the temporal artery
    C.it may lead to visual loss
    D. the condition is unresponsive to anti-inflammatory drugs
    The condition is unresponsive to anti-inflammatory drugs
  26. In what form is most body fat stored? (Which form of energy has almost unlimited capacity for storage in teh body?)
    A. fatty acids
    B. triglycerides
    C. cholesterol
    D. phospholipids
    Triglycerides
  27. In order for fatty acids to be oxidized in the mitochondria they need to be converted to what compound?
    A. glycerol
    B. pyruvate
    C. acetyl-CoA
    D. triglyceride
    Acetyl-CoA
  28. Ketones are produced from
    A. cholesterol
    B. hormones
    C. amino groups
    D. acetly-CoA
    Cholesterol
  29. Which hormone is condsidered to be an antagonist of lipolysis (Which hormones below have similar functions regarding energy metabolism?)
    A. insulin
    B. epinephrine
    C. glucagon
    D. thyroxine
    Insulin
  30. What organ provides the major sites for lipprotein formation from exogenously derived lipids? (endogenously?)
    A. pancreas
    B. adipocytes
    C. intestine
    D. liver
    Liver
  31. Branched chain amino acids are metabolized mainly in:
    A. liver
    B. muscle
    C. kidney
    D. heart
    Muscle
  32. Extracellular amonia is transported to the liver by?
    L-glutamate
  33. What is the molecule that the enzymes work on called?
    Substrate
  34. Product of Pyruvate?
    Acetyl-CoA
  35. Where does the conversion of pyruvate to its product tak place?
    PDC=Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex
  36. What structure does the following represent:
    C-OOH
    /
    C=O
    /
    C
    /
    C
    /
    C-OOH
    Ketopentose
  37. Nitrogenous wastes are converted to urea in what organ?
    Liver
  38. Pantothenic acid is needed for the production of?
    Co Enzyme A
  39. A deficiency of B5 causes:
    Burning Foot Syndrome
  40. As the density of lipoproteins goes up, _________ goes down and __________ goes up.
    • down=Triglycerol
    • up=Protein
  41. What vitamin is responsible for carboxylation?
    B7 Biotin
  42. What vitamin is responsible for De-carboxylation?
    B1 Thiamine
  43. Most active form of folate?
    Tetrahydrofolate
  44. What is an important adjunct in the absorption of glucose?
    Achromion
  45. B-oxidation occurs in ___________ and is a _________process
    Mitochondia, oxidative
  46. What is needed for the uptake of lipoproteins in the small intestine?
    Vitamin K
  47. Megaloblastic anemia is a result from the deficiency of?
    B9
  48. Iron deficient anemia equals
    Hypochromic Microcytic
  49. What process forms D-oxyribose from RNA?
    Oxidation
  50. What kind of process is RNA to DNA?
    Reductive
  51. Which cycle contains CoEnzyme Q?
    ETC
  52. Anaerobic Glycolysis yields:
    2 ATP's
  53. Ketones result from:
    Incomplete oxidation of fats
  54. What are the 3 types of ketone bodies produced?
    Acetone, acetyl acetate, Beta Hydroxybuterate
  55. What are the Purines?
    Adenine and Guanine
  56. What are the Pyrimidines?
    Thymine, Uracil and Cytosin
  57. What type of bonds hold DNA strands together?
    Hydrogen bonds
  58. What type of bonds hold neucleotides of a single strand together?
    Ester bonds
  59. What type of bonds hold base pairs together?
    Hydrogen bonds
  60. What is the limiting enzymes in grains?
    Lysine
  61. What is the limiting enzyme in corn?
    Tryptophan
  62. What is the function of ascorbic acid?
    Increase iron absorption collagen formation
  63. What is the most active form of iron?
    Fe3+: Ferric
  64. What is the most easily absorbed form of iron?
    Fe2+:Ferris
  65. Malate is oxidized to:
    Oxaloacetate
  66. What is the most oxidized intermediate in the TCA cycle?
    Oxaloacetate
  67. What provides nicotinamide in the body?
    • Serotonin
    • *made by tryptophan
  68. What froms melanin
    Tyrosine
  69. An amino acid @pH 7 has its isoeletric point at pH 6, it is:
    Negatively charged
  70. Every 10 kg of body weight requires _____ g of dietary protein/day?
    8 grams
  71. Sucrose can be broken down into:
    Glucose and fructose
  72. Most active form of vitamin D?
    1,25 dihydroxychole-calciferol
  73. What is the most dominant form of vitamin D in the plasma?
    D3
  74. What is the regulating enzyme of cholesterol biosynthesis?
    HMG-CoA Reductase
  75. What is the regulating enzyme of cholemicron biosynthesis?
    Lipidprotein Lipase
  76. What is the specific for the elongation of fatty acids in fatty acid biosynthesis?
    NADPH
  77. Where is DANPH made?
    HMP Shunt
  78. What is the reducing agent in fatty acid biosynthesis?
    NADPH
  79. Oxidation of a fatty acid yielding CO2 and H2O also goes through:
    Krebb's Cycle and ETC
  80. Most cells can readily synthesize aspartate from:
    Oxaloacetate
  81. Branch chain amino acid =
    Leucine
  82. Derivatives of tyrosine include:
    Thyroxine, epinephrine, norepi and melanin
  83. Greatest source of pectin:
    Fruit
  84. A reaction uses glycerol dehydrogenase yields:
    Glycerol phosphate
  85. What is responsible for producing endogenous triglycerides?
    VLDL
  86. By which mechanism do we eliminate cholesterol?
    Feces
  87. What is a sulfur containing polypeptide hormone?
    Insulin
  88. What types of bonds are between amino acids?
    Peptide bonds
  89. What is a characteristic of spontaneous reactions?
    Gibb's Free Energy is negative
  90. How many bases make up a codon?
    Three
  91. Acetyl CoA carboxylase catylizes acetyl CoA into?
    Molanyl CoA (in fatty acid synthesis)
  92. What is the product of pyruvate that enters the TCA cycle?
    Acetyl CoA (from Krebb's cycle/TCA)
  93. Purine nitrogen is derived from ______ and excreted as ________?
    Amino acid and uric acid
  94. Protein metabolism is excreted as?
    Urea
  95. Muscle metabolism is excreted as?
    Creatine
  96. +RNA is responsible for?
    Supplying amino acids to complete a specific protein chain
  97. Amino acids are _________ molecules, making them the most powerful and abundant buffers in the body.
    Amphoteric
  98. What type of glycocidic bonds are found in glycogen?
    Alpha-1, 4 (also Alpha-1, 6 @ branches)
  99. Reverse transcriptase is:
    RNA to DNA
  100. Lack of B12 results in a deficiency of?
    Methionine
  101. Methionine is used for the remethylization of what?
    Homocysteine
  102. What amino acid is converted to indole in the intestines/
    Tryptophan (then serotonin)
  103. What carbon source provides a glycerol portion in triglycerides for lipogenesis?
    Glucose
  104. What is a 4-carbon glucose precursor?
    Fumarate
  105. What is not a product of the pentose phosphate pathway?
    ATP
  106. What are the products of the pentose phosphate pathway?
    Ribose sugars
  107. What are the products of fatty acid biosynthesis
    NADPH
  108. What are mucopholysaccharides?
    Glycoseaminoglycans
  109. What type of mucopolysaccharides are found in cartilage?
    Chondroitin sulfate
  110. What type of mucopholysaccharides are found in synovial joints?
    Hyaluronic Acid
  111. What distinguishes starch from cellulose?
    Starch is digestable, cellulose is not.
  112. The biosynthesis of cholesterol begins with?
    Acetyl CoA
  113. The reductive steps of fatty acid biosynthesis require?
    NADPH
  114. What is the final stage in the complete metabolism of fat?
    TCA Cycle
  115. What is the significant intermediate in the cytoplasmic biosynthesis of fatty acids?
    Malonyl CoA
  116. Free radicals are the highly reactive substances that result from?
    Peroxidation of lipids
  117. Components of triglycerides include?
    A glycerol back bone and 3 fatty acids
  118. Homocystine is a product of the demethylization of:
    Methionine
  119. How does hydrogenation of vegetable oils affect the melting point?
    Raises it
  120. To generate an unsaturated fatty acid, a saturated fatty acid must undergo?
    Oxidation
  121. Cholesterol is not a component of:
    A. bacon
    B. beef fat
    C. peanuts
    D. port
    Peanuts
  122. What is the intermediate in the formation of palmitic acid from Acetyl CoA?
    Malonyl CoA
  123. What is the secondary messenger for epinephrine?
    Cyclic ANP
  124. Name a sulfur containing amino acid.
    Cysteine
  125. What is initially involved in cholesterol synthesis?
    Acetyl CoA
  126. What is used with selenium?
    Glutathyinperoxidase
  127. Dietary intake of 10g of protein provides __________ kilocalories
    10
  128. Carbs provide ________ cals/g
    4
  129. Fats provide ________ cals/g
    9
  130. Alcohol provides __________cals/g
    7
  131. Fructose is a?
  132. The endproduct of anaerobic glycolysis is?
    Lactate
  133. Insulin contains?
    Sulfur
  134. An endogenously produced carbohydrate polymer comprised of repeating disaccharide units which contain glucosamine is?
    Hyaluronic acid/chondroitin sulfate
  135. UDP Glucase is a major intermediate in?
    Glycogen synthesis
  136. DNA replication is done in the?
    Nucleus
  137. RNA to DNA translation takes place in the?
    Cytoplasm
  138. The precursor to prostaglandin?
    Arachidonic acid
  139. Linoleic acid is an?
    Omega 6 EFA
  140. Arachidonic acid is an?
    Omega 6 EFA
  141. Oxidative phosphorylation generates about _____% of ATP produced from glycolysis.
    90%
  142. Alpha-ketoglutarate is an interrmediate of?
    TCA Cycle
  143. +RNA is part of?
    Translation
  144. Loss of lipoprotein lipase results in?
    High cylomicrons after a fatty meal
  145. Serotonin and niacin come from?
    Tryptophan
  146. Up to 90% of serotonin is made where?
    In the gut
  147. What binds to ATP and makes a negative complex?
    Magnesium
  148. Selenium is an?
    Antioxidant
  149. What helps insulin uptake of glucose?
    Chromium
  150. DNA polymerase is needed for?
    DNA synthesis
  151. DNA to mRNA is done in the _________, and needs __________ to take place.
    Nucleus and RNA polymerase
  152. What inhibits cholesterol biosynthesis?
    Cholesterol
  153. What is the enzyme that catalyzes the degradation of purines?
    Xanthine oxidase
  154. What process causes the formation of pyruvate and oxaloacetate from alanine and aspartate?
    Transamination
  155. Transamination requires what vitamin?
    B6
  156. What is a high energy compound?
    Creatine phosphate and glucose-6-phosphate
  157. Ornithine is an intermediate in which cycle?
    Urea cycle
  158. What inhibits fat metabolism?
    Insulin
  159. What type of bonds link nucleotides in a single strand?
    Ester bonds
  160. Maltose is produced by enzymatic hydrolysis of?
    Starch
  161. What carbohydrate by product is derived from the HMPshunt?
    Ribose-5-Phosphate
  162. What ion transmits impulses along an axon?
    Na+
  163. Vitamin D is important in the absorption and metabolism of?
    Ca++ and phosphorus
  164. Most amino acid metabolism requires a coenzyme provided by the bioactive form of?
    Pyridoxine
  165. What mechanism causes the greatest loss of sterols?
    Intestinal excretions (via feces)
  166. The hydrolysis of lactose yields?
    Glucose and galactose
  167. What coenzyme is used with glutathione peridoxase?
    Selenium
  168. A diet high in polyunsaturated fat needs ________ to combine to prevent free radicals.
    Tocopherol (vitamin E)
  169. Poor appetite, high pyruvic acid in the blood, irritability, tingling in the arms and legs with uncoordination is the definition of?
    Beri Beri
  170. Folate deficiencies result in?
    Neural tube defects and megoloblastic anemia
  171. Niacin deficiency causes?
    Pelegra and 4 D's
  172. A deficiency of riboflavin causes?
    Purple tongue and cracks at the corner of mouth
  173. What are the 2 types of Beri Beri?
    • Wet: Cardiovascular Sy
    • Dry: PNS
  174. NADH + H2O + 1/2O2 becomes NAD +?
    H2O
  175. Triglycerides contain what type of bonds?
    Ester
  176. What is responsible for glycogenolysis in the liver?
    Glucagon
  177. Phosphate groups are transferred to other compounds by?
    Kinase
  178. What is the funtion of phosphatase?
    Removes a phosphate group
  179. What is the function of phosphorylase?
    Add a phosphate group
  180. Cereal is low in?
    Lysine
  181. Corn is low in?
    Tryptophan
  182. Ingested cholesterol travels from the digestive tract to the liver in the form of?
    Chylomicrons
  183. Undigested cholesterol is carried from the periphery to the liver in the form of?
    HDL
  184. What type of bonds link nucleotides in DNA strands?
    H+ bonds
  185. The major product of Beta Oxidation is?
    Acetyl CoA
  186. The peptide linkage of any peptide bond is between?
    Carbon and nitrogen
  187. What are the constituents of a nucleotide?
    Nitrogenous base, pentose sugar and phosphate
  188. A nucleotide consists of?
    Nitrogen base and pentose sugar
  189. Km is the measure of?
    Affinity an enzyme has for a substrate
  190. Glycogen is monosaccharides held together by:
    Alpha 1,4 and alpha 1,6 glycoside bonds
  191. Epinephrine causes the hydolysis of glycogen. What causes the cessation of this process and return to the synthesis of glycogen?
    High glucose-6-phosphate
  192. What substance has the highest energy per gram?
    Fat
  193. GNG in the liver does not include:
    Citrate synthase
  194. The most highly oxidized TLA intermediate is?
    Oxaloacetate
  195. Dietary lipids usually circulate as?
    Chylomicrons through the lymphatics
  196. What base is in DNA but not RNA?
    Thiamine
  197. FAD comes from?
    Riboflavin
  198. NAD comes from?
    Niacin
  199. What are the three ketone bodies?
    • Acetone
    • Acedo acetate
    • Hydroxybutarate
  200. The amino acid precursor of carnitine is?
    Lysine
  201. The amino acid that is usually not active optically is?
    Glysine
  202. What nitrogen source provides the majority nitrogen in purines?
    Glutamine
  203. Glycerol is turned into glucose by?
    GNG
  204. Carbon atoms for fatty acid synthesis are transported across the mitochondrial membrane into the cytoplasm in the form of?
    Citrate
  205. What type of bonds are broken by ATPase?
    Anhydride bonds
  206. The stored form of iron is?
    Ferritin
  207. What transfers carbon atoms out of the mitochondria and into the cytoplasm for GNG
  208. What transfers carbon atoms out of the mitochondria and into the cytopasm for GNG?
    Malate
  209. What stimulates GNG?
    Glucagon and cortisol
  210. Ammonia is turned into urea in what organ(s)?
    Liver
  211. How many aromatic essential amino acids are there?
    2
  212. What is the link between anaerobic glycolysis and GNG?
    TCA cycle
  213. This enzyme is necessary for fatty acide biosynthesis?
    Malonyl CoA
  214. Fat souable vitamins get to the liver via?
    Chylomicrons
  215. What is the most common form of dietary lipids?
    TAG's (triaceyl-glycerides)
  216. What is the source of ribose for nucleotide formation?
    Hexose monophate shunt (HMS)
  217. What essential amino acid is not synthesized in the body?
    All of them!
  218. Louse-born epidemic typhus is produced by?
    Rickettsia prowazaki
  219. Rickettsia richettsia causes ___________ and is transmitted by __________?
    • Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever and
    • Tick
  220. R. typhi and R prowazaki are both transmitted by?
    Flea/louse
  221. Coxiella burnetti causes ________ and are transmitted by _________?
    Q fever and milk
  222. R. Quintana causes?
    Trench Fever/5 Day Fever
  223. Rickettsia Acari causes ________ and is transmitted by _________.
    Rickettsia pox and mites
  224. What blood test is used for Rickettes?
    Weil-Felix
  225. The phage phase of bacteria is related to what?
    Transportation
  226. A cause of exudative lesions of mycobacterium tuberculosis and absorbs caseous necrosis is?
    Ghons tubercule
  227. The most common agent of a typical pneumonia is?
    Mycoplasmic pneumonia
  228. 5 Common Staph Aureus infections:
    • S = scalded skin
    • T = toxic shock
    • O = osteomyolitis
    • I = impetigo (type 1)
    • C = carbuncles
  229. 6 Common Strep Pyogenes infections:
    • S = strep throat
    • E = erysipleas
    • R = rheumatic fever
    • G = glomerulonephritis
    • I = impetiga (type 2)
    • S = scarlet fever
    • * Also caused by:
    • Beta Hemolytic Strep.
    • Group A Lansfield
  230. Gram Staining:
    • 1. Primary Stain = crystal violet
    • 2. Fixer/Morchant = Iodine
    • 3. Wash/Decolorize = Alcohol
    • 4. Counter Stain = Saphrine

    • Gram+ = purple b/c peptidoglycans on wall (thick)
    • Gram- = pink b/c mucopolysaccharides on wall (thin)
  231. What is the most common cause of pneumonia?
    Strep pneumonia
  232. What is the second most common cause of pneumonia
    Legionella pneumonia
  233. What causes red currant jelly sputem?
    Klebsiella
  234. Herpes simplex produces a latent infection on?
    The nervous system
  235. Herpes Simplex I produces a latent infection on?
    The triggeminal ganglion
  236. Herpes Simplex I affects:
    Oral
  237. Herpes Simplex II produces a latent infection on?
    The sacral ganglion
  238. Herpes Simplex II affects?
    Genitals
  239. What is the purpose of iodine in gram staining?
    Mordant/Fixer
  240. A virus capsid is made of?
    Protein
  241. Coagulase + test means that the sample is?
    Staph aureus
  242. What test is used to differentiate strep from staph?
    Catalase Test
  243. What test is used to differentiate staph aureus from all other staphs?
    Coagulase test
  244. What is classified by way of locomotion?
    Protozoa
  245. What is the most common route for the transmission of polio?
    Oral-fecal
  246. What are the most common processes by which microbial pollution is eliminated?
    Sand filtration
  247. The most fatal form of malaria is?
    Plasmodium falciparum
  248. What causes black water fever?
    Plasmodium falciparum
  249. What is the most common cause of malaria? The second?
    • 1. Plasmodium falciparum
    • 2. Plasmodium vivax
  250. What is the best test to check the effectiveness of milk pasteurization?
    Phosphatase test
  251. A test to check for fecal contamination is?
    Coliform test
  252. What has an etiological agent called a spirochete?
    Syphilli (condylomat mata)
  253. What is the cause of Legionnaire's Disease?
    Bacteria
  254. What is the serology test for Rickettsia?
    Weil-Felix Test
  255. What antigen is used in a Weil-Felix Test?
    Proteus Vulgaris
  256. Body secretions like tears, breast mils and salive contain lg___?
    lgA
  257. A virus is most contagious during which stage?
    Latent stage
  258. What cuases a lower respirator tract infection?
    Chlamydia psittaci
  259. What is the cause of parrot fever?
    Chlamydia psittaci
  260. What can mimic a pulmonary infection like TB?
    Histoplasmosis
  261. What is the cause of Ohio Valley Fever?
    Histoplasmosis
  262. What makes up a virus cell wall?
    Peptidoglycan (protein)
  263. What is a common pre-operational disinfectant?
    Iodine
  264. What causes epidemic parotitis
    Mumps
  265. Mumps may lead to the impairment of wat nerve?
    Facial
  266. Cholera is characterized by?
    Rice water stool, vomitting, dehydration (no lymphatic involved)
  267. What is the heaviest and largest immunoglobin?
    1 gm or which one has less
  268. Which scientist discovered yellow fever?
    Reed
  269. Which scientist is accredited with (pox) vaccines?
    Jenner
  270. Who came up with the germ theory?
    Pasteur
  271. Who came up with antibiotics and discovered pennicillin?
    Flemming
  272. Ecchymosis is seen in what disease?
    Scurvy
  273. Sabin/Salk vaccines give immunity to?
    Polio
  274. A 71 y/o male presents with a sudden fever, productive cough, and a one time shiver episode. What is the diagnosis?
    Strep pneumonia
  275. a 71 y/o male presents with a sudden fever, neck stiffness and a productive cough. What is the diagnosis?
    H. influenza
  276. What type of immunity is a filled bacteria vaccine?
    Artificial Acquired Active Immunity
  277. What is the cause of black death?
    Yerseria pestis, aka Bubonic Plague
  278. What are bacteria that grow best at slightly lowered O2?
    Microaerophils
  279. How are bacteria that grow best at slightly lowered O2 levels cultured?
    In a candal jar/flask
  280. What is the largest health and safety organization that funds for research?
    NIH
  281. The persistent measles virus may cause?
    Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
  282. What blood cell type increases with a parasitic infection?
    Eosinophils
  283. What is most commonly found in unpasteruized milk?
    Brucella abortus
  284. What parasite is diagnosed by recovering eggs from the perianal fold?
    Enterobius vermicularis (pin worm)
  285. Why has the administration of influenza vaccines been so ineffective?
    There are many different strands
  286. Organisms that only use oxygen as the final acceptor of electrons are known as?
    Obligant aerobes
  287. All bacteriocides and clostridia are characterized as?
    Anaerobes
  288. A bullseye rash is caused by?
    Borellia burgdorfi (sp?)
  289. What type of pus is characteristic of staph aureus?
    Gold/yellow pus (it is also an active invasive opportunist)
  290. A zoonosis disease spread by spores is?
    Anthrax
  291. A gram negative bacteria characterized by blue-green pus is?
    Pseudomonus aeriginos
  292. Who is most susceptable to pseudomonus ariginosa?
    Burn victims, cystic fibrosis patients and patients with otitis externa
  293. Pyocyan and properdin are associated with?
    Blue-green pus and pseudomonus ariginosa
  294. What is the choise mode of transportation for German Measles?
    Respiratory (it is a virus)
  295. What causes a funal ball in the lungs?
    Aspirgillus
  296. What consumes inorganic material?
    Autotroph
  297. What do you call an organism that dwells in salty water?
    Halophyte
  298. What type of organism feeds on the matter of the dead/decaying?
    Saprophyte
  299. What is the best medium to identify Nisseria ghonnorrhea?
    Thayer-Martin Agar
  300. What is the best medium to identify staph?
    Salt Agar
  301. What is the best medium to identify protozoans and malaria?
    Glesma (or Giesma - couldn't read answer clearly)
  302. Alpha nemolysis will show up as?
    Green:partial nemolysis
  303. Beta hemolysis will show up as?
    Clear:complete
  304. Gamma hemolysis will show up as?
    Red:No hemolysis
  305. What causes weight loss, abdominal pain and mucous diarrhea for >3 day?
    Giardia Lamblia
  306. What causes childhood dysentary?
    Coxsackie virus
  307. What is most commonly going to affect patients with AIDS?
    • 1. Pneumocysis
    • 2. Toxoplasmosis
  308. What is the counter stain to gram stain?
    Safranin
  309. A gray pseudomembrane is seen with?
    Diptheria
  310. What is the most effective sterilization in a lab?
    Autoclaving
  311. Fecal contamination in water is determined by?
    Coliform count
  312. What is the cause of amoebic dysentary?
    Entamoeba histolysice (sp?)
  313. Consumption of raw fish may be related to?
    Diphyllobathrium Latum
  314. The hiatid is?
    Larval form of tapeworm
  315. What causes Weil's Disease?
    Leptospira ichtohemorragica
  316. What is the cause of syphillis?
    Trep. pallidum
  317. What is released by cells infected by viruses and protects the uninfected cells?
    Interferon
  318. What air pollutant will cause headaches, lassitude and dizziness?
    Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
  319. What test differentiates staph aureus from staph epidermis?
    Coagulase test
  320. Aluminum and chlorine are used in what steps of water treatment?
    Coagulation
  321. What is the etiological agent of YAWS?
    Treponema pertenue
  322. What is the etiological agen of malaria?
    Plasmodium
  323. What is the etiological agent of black death?
    Yersina pectis
  324. What transmits epidemic typhus to humans?
    Lice
  325. What is the term for the transfer of genetic material via viral agent?
    Transduction
  326. What is the term for the transfer of genetic material via direct uptake through the cell wall?
    Transformation
  327. What is the term for the transfer of genetic material via bacterial phage?
    Transduction
  328. What is the term for the transfer of genetic material via a pylus/sex pilus?
    Conjugation
  329. The incidence of a disease is defined as the total number of?
    New cases appearing in a given amount of time
  330. Sand flies transmit?
    Leishmaniasis
  331. What is most commonly seen with bladder infection?
    e. coli
  332. Opsonins, aglutinins, lysins and precipitans are?
    Partial antibodies
  333. What vitamin is decreased when milk is left standing in the light?
    Riboflavin
  334. What inhibits bacterial replication and when removed allows reproduction to continue?
    Bacteriostatic
  335. The addition of soap to a sterilizing agent will?
    Lower the surface tension
  336. What is the most common helminth in the U.S.?
    Enterobius veermiculaire (sp?) Pin Worms
  337. What is associated wtih pork?
    Thrichinella spirilis
  338. Soap is a ?
    Disinfectant and surfactant
  339. Pasteur is most known for?
    The Germ Theory
  340. When a chemical substance acts upon the body, the biological reation depends on the amount of substance received. This is known as?
    Dose-Response Relationship
  341. Water softeners increase what ion in the water?
    Na+ (Ca++ makes it harder)
  342. What will cause calcification of skeletal muscles on an x-ray and pain?
    Trichinella spiralis
  343. What is associated with roots and fixed nitrogen?
    Rhizobium japonium
  344. What causes severe bone marrow depression after chronic poisoning over a long period of time and low levels?
    Benzene
  345. Most circulating antibodies are produced by?
    Plasma cells
  346. Majority of antibody content of serum is contained in?
    Gammaglobulins
  347. The rapid formation of a specific antibody as a result of a second stimulation by the specific antigen is known as?
    Anamnestic Response
  348. A frequent cause of infant diarrhea is?
    Escherichia
  349. What is the major source of ionizing radiation contamination in the U.S.?
    Diagnostic Radiography
  350. What is the main health hazard resulting from atmospheric inversion?
    Pollutants are held closer to the Earth
  351. What ion causes infant methemoglobulinemia?
    • Nitrates
    • "Blue Baby Syndrome"
  352. The highest reported incidence of occupational induced high blood pressure comes from?
    Truck drivers
  353. Lung disease from iron dust is?
    Siderosis
  354. Lead poisoning is not a major hazard for workers in?
    Manufacturing fluorescent lamps
  355. What is a hazard for chicken farmers?
    Psitlacosis (sp?)
  356. What can cause lung cancer and is associated with mesothelioma?
    Asbestos
  357. Jock itch is causes by?
    Tinea cruris
  358. What results in passive, naturally acquired immunity?
    Breast feeding
  359. What is the first line of human cellular defense against viran conditions?
    Interferon Production
  360. Dorsalis pedis is a continuation of what artery?
    Anterior tibial artery
  361. The muscularis externa is made of what type of muscle?
    Smooth and skeletal muscle
  362. he white cover of male genitals is called?
    Tunica Albuguina
  363. What layer of the hypedermis contains adipocytes?
    Subque fascia
  364. What pouches make of the parathyroid?
    3rd and 4th pouches
  365. The larynx is mde of what arches?
    4th and 6th arches
  366. The spinous process is made from?
    Left and right lamina
  367. The suprascapular foramen is made from?
    Transvers scapular ligament
  368. A 2nd order neuron for proprioception synapses where?
    Ipsilateral thalamus
  369. Azygos vein is on the _________ side and drains into ________?
    • Right side
    • SVC
  370. What prevents the radial head from dislocating?
    Annular Ligament
  371. What is the superior boarder of the femoral triangle?
    Inguinal Ligament
  372. Wha innervates flexor oligitorum profundus?
    Medial and Ulnar
  373. Flexor carpi ulnaris is innervated by?
    Ulnar nerve
  374. The begma is at the crossing of the __________ and ________ sutures?
    Coronal and Sagittal
  375. What is on the left lung but not on the right?
    Lingula
  376. The right side of the lung has an indentation for the _______ (not found on the left)?
    Azygos vein
  377. What muscles are associated with TOS and put pressure on the brachial plexus?
    Anterior scalenes
  378. The mesosalphinx is also know as?
    Brood ligament
  379. The TFL is innervated by?
    Superior gluteal nerve
  380. What organ if found adjacent to the liver?
    Stomach
  381. Which part of the liver is palpable?
    Right lobe
  382. What separates the distal radio-ulnar joing (articulation)?
    DISC
  383. What type of joint is the stemoclavicular joint?
    Saddle
  384. The radiate ligament attaches to?
    Rib head
  385. The coxa joint is what type of joint?
    Spheroidal/Triaxial
  386. True/False:
    The corocaclavicular joint is not synovial.
    True
  387. The fibularis longus mm. has its origina on the?
    Fibula
  388. Papilla empty into?
    Descending duodenum
  389. What is found in the suspensory ligament of the ovary?
    Ovarian artery
  390. The reticular layer of the dermis is?
    Dense and irregular
  391. Seminepherous drain into?
    Epididymis
  392. The pelvic diaphragm is made of?
    Levator ani and coccygeus
  393. Which three mm make up the levator ani?
    • Pubococcygeus
    • Puborectalis
    • Iliococcygeus
  394. What separates the pelvis and perineum
    Levator ani
  395. The vertebral foramen is a result of what type of ossification?
    Endochondral
  396. Which bones go through membranous ossification?
    Panetal and clavical
  397. Which bone is the first to ossify?
    Clavical
  398. The glabella is part of?
    Frontal bone
  399. TP's are an attachment for?
    Levator scapula
  400. Meroiga parastrieria is a result of impairment to what nerve?
    Lateral femoral cutaneous
  401. The sup. mesenteric and splenic dump into?
    Portal vein
  402. The spinal nerves of L4-S3 form?
    Sciatic nerve
  403. The sclera is derived from?
    Dura Mater
  404. The carotid canal goes through?
    Temporal bone
  405. Fast conducting axons are made of ______ fibers with _______ diameters?
    Myelinated/Large
  406. Which type of nerves are small and unmyelinated and conduct pain?
    Type C
  407. Which type of nerve fibers are myelinated and conduct acute pain?
    Type A (A-delta)
  408. What ligament connects the EOP with the SP of C7?
    Nuchal ligament
  409. What type of articulation is found between vert. bodies?
    Symphysis (IVD's)
  410. What articulates with T2?
    Steinal angle aka Angle of Louis
  411. What cells form the BBB?
    Astrocytes
  412. CSF is formed by?
    • 1st Choroid plexus
    • 2nd Ependymal cells
  413. What are the macrophages of the brain?
    Microglia
  414. From the ant. 2/3 of the tongue are located on what ganglion?
    Geniculate ganglion
  415. What are the boundaries of the IVF?
    • Anterior = disc
    • Posterior = Facets
    • Superior = Pedicles (inf. notch of vertebral above)
    • Inferior - Pedicles (superior notch of vertebral below)
  416. The vertical notches are found on?
    The pedicles
  417. The costal groove of a typical rib lies along the _______ border of the _______ surface?f
    Inferior/Internal
  418. Axons of the oeptic nerve are formed by the _____ cells of the retina?
    Ganglion
  419. DRG, autonomic ganglia and schwann cells are derived from?
    Neural Crest Cells
  420. Name the suprahyoid muscles.
    • Digastric and mylo-, stylo-, genio-hyoid
    • (You will die if you eat MSG for supper.)
  421. What are the infrahyoid muscles?
    Toss IN (all except thyrohoid innervated by ansa cervicalis)
  422. What innervates thyrohyoid and geniohyoid mm?
    C1 nerve via CN XI
  423. What innervates the stylohyoid? Mylohyoid? Digastric?
    • Stylohyoid=CN7
    • Mylohyoid=CN5
    • Anterior Digastric=CN5
    • Posterior Digastric=CN7
  424. The long thoracic nerve innervates what muscle?
    Serratus anterior
  425. What supplies stimulation to z-joints?
    Dorsal Rami
  426. Are rami sensory or motor?
    Motor
  427. What is the post boundary of the IVF's?
    Facets
  428. The myelin of the CNS is formed by what cells?
    Oligodendrocytes
  429. The cerebellum and the Pons are part of what primitive structure?
    Metencephalon (then rhobencephalon)
  430. What muscle attaches to the articular processes of C3-C6?
    Splenium capitus and cervicis
  431. What is the anterior-superior aspect of the vertebral body of S1 called?
    Sacral promontory
  432. What ligaments attach C2 to the occiput?
    Tectoral, alar and apical ligaments
  433. Which suboccipital muscles rotate C1 on C2?
    Obliques capitus inferior
  434. Which suboccipital muscle is not part of the suboccipital triangle?
    RCP minor
  435. What is transmitted through the suboccipital triangle?
    Vert. arter and suboccipital nerve
  436. How many z-joints are in a typical thoracic vertebra?
    4
  437. How many total artiaculations are in the T-spine?
    12/segment
  438. Which are not sensory to the epidermis?
    A. Krause
    B. Merlel
    C. Meisseners
    D. Ruffini's
    Meisseners - light touch
  439. The carotid tubercle is found?
    C6
  440. Which spinal ligament has attachments to the discs?
    PLL
  441. What part of the PLL is the weakest?
    Post. lat.
  442. What structure forms the anterior boundary of the vertebral canal? The post boundary?
    • PLL=anterior
    • Lig. Flavium=posterior
  443. The embryoligic development of extensor muscles is derived from?
    Epimeric
  444. What's the embryologic derivation of splanchnic nerve?
    Visceral
  445. Which ribs are true?
    1-7 (connect to sternum)
  446. What is atypical about number 1 rib?
    It has no demi-facets - connects with full facets of T1
  447. The medullary pyramids contain which tract?
    Cervicospinal
  448. The parts of the brainstem from superior to inferior are?
    Mid brain to pons to medulla oblongata
  449. Atheromatous calcification of the aorta that occurs with normal calcium levels is?
    Dystrophic calcification
  450. What is deposition of Ca++ into necrotic tissue with normal Ca++ levels?
    Dystrophic calcification
  451. What is deposition of Ca++ into normal tissue with high Ca++ levels?
    Metastatic calcification
  452. Increased secretions from the anterior pituitary after closure of epiphyseal plates results in?
    Acromegaly
  453. Increased secretions from the anterior pituitary before closure of epiphyseal plates results in?
    Gigantism
  454. Decreased secretions from the anterior pituitary before closure of the epiphyseal plates results in?
    Dwarfism
  455. What are the 4 stages of Pagets?
    • 1. Lytic
    • 2. Mixed
    • 3. Blastic
    • 4. Osteosarcoma (malignant)
  456. Hypoparathyroid in kids is?
    Creatinism
  457. Deficiency in _______ results in tetan, similar to that which accompanies hypocalcemia?
    Magnesium (1st look for calcium)
  458. Who are the most infectious members of the family?
    School aged kids
  459. Cor pulmomale may be a result of ?
    Emphysema
  460. What is characterized by T-cell deficiency due to a lack of ...?
    DiGeorge's Syndrome
  461. What is characterized by a deficiency in T- and B-cells?
    S.C.I.D.
  462. Thrombocytopenia is seen in?
    Wischott-Aldrich
  463. Delayed Hypersensitivity is type______?
    Type IV
  464. The pigment found in regressive cells such as old age pigment is?
    Lipofusion
  465. Yellow pigment from the degradation of hematein is?
    Hemosiderin
  466. Heme + iron =
    Hematein
  467. What is a result of HPT?
    Osteopenia
  468. Wat type of collagen is found earliest in a wound?
    Type 3
  469. Type 1 collagen is found in?
    End of wound healing
  470. Type 2 collagen is found in?
    Discs
  471. Type 3 collagen is found in?
    Earliest in wound healing
  472. Type 4 collagen is found in?
    Basement membranes
  473. Who is most likely to have median nerve entrapment?
    Pregnant women
  474. Intracranial calcification occurs most commonly in?
    Oligodendroglioma
  475. Most common brain tumor?
    Astrocytoma
  476. What is the primary cerebellar tumor in children?
    Medulloblastoma
  477. What is cardiac tymponacle?
    Fluid in the pericardial space
  478. A primary immunodeficiency of B-cells is?
    Brutons agammaglobulinemia
  479. Autoimmune hypothyroidism is?
    Hashimotos
  480. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune attack against?
    Acetyl choline
  481. Almost all changes in SLF involve?
    Increased immune cells
  482. Autosomal recessive gluco-cerebral disease with hepato/splenomegaly is?
    Gaucher's
  483. Alcapneuria is a result of?
    PKU
  484. Neimann-Pick and Tasach's are seen higher in?
    Jews
  485. Lyme's Disease is caused by?
    Burelia
  486. Marphan's (aka Abe Lincoln's disease) is characterized by?
    Arachodactyly
  487. Kleinfelters is characterized by?
    47 xxy - Tall, thin, low I.Q., hypogonadism
  488. What is the most common DJD of joints?
    Osteoarthritis
  489. During pronation of the foot, the knee goes?
    In
  490. What is responsible for post infectiou glomerulonephritis?
    Strep Pyogene/beta-hemolytic strep
  491. Metastatic osteoblastic tumor in a malignancy usually originates from the?
    Prostate
  492. Metastatic osteolytic tumor in a malignancy usually originates from the?
    Lung
  493. A benign neoplasm is?
    Lipoma
  494. An example of a systemic immune complex reaction?
    R.A.
  495. A deficiency of vitamin C mosts often affects the?
    Connective tissue (scurvy)
  496. Wernicke-Korsikoff Syndrome is a result of a deficiency in?
    B1
  497. What is characterized by a lesion with caseous necrosis?
    TB
  498. The release of histamine into the skin following cutaneous trauma causes?
    Vasodilation of arterioles causing redness
  499. What are the 5 signs of inflammation?
    • 1. Rubor
    • 2. Dolor
    • 3.Tumor
    • 4. Calor
    • 5. Loss of Funtion
  500. What is the most common benign tumor of the spine?
    Hemangioma
  501. What occurs in a keloid?
    Hypertrophic enlargement of scar tissue
  502. What is the most common benign tumor of the skull?
    Osteoma
  503. What causes hoarsness associated with carcinoma in the apex of the lung?
    Laryngeal nerve damage
  504. What is produced in cells and increases inflammation due to tissue injury?
    Histamine
  505. What is the result in a cell as a consequence of thyroid goiter?
    Hyperplasia
  506. What type of thyrotoxicosis is most common under 40 y/o?
    Graves Disease
  507. What is characterized by recanalization?
    Thrombus
  508. The circulatory level of what kind of cells are higher in an acute inflammatory response to bacteria?
    Neutrophils
  509. Chronic Rheumatoid Arthritis and Spleenomegaly are characteristic of what?
    Felty's Syndrome
  510. What disease affects the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia?
    Parkinson's
  511. Megoblastic anemia is a result of a deficiency of what vitamin?
    B9
  512. What is the most likely diagnos for a child with projectile vomiting within the firt three weeks of life?
    Pylonic Stenosis
  513. What is the most common neoplasm found in AIDS patients?
    Kaposi's Sarcoma (and Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma)
  514. A periosteal encasement of necrotic tissue is called?
    Sequestra
  515. Patients with asbestosis are predisposed to?
    Mesothelioma
  516. A periosteal reaction described as sunburst radiographically?
    Osteosarcoma
  517. A periosteal reaction described radiographically as laminated or onion-skin would be?
    Ewing's Sarcoma
  518. A degenerative disease that affects cranial nerve nuclei?
    Progressive Bulbar Palsy
  519. Philadelphia chromosomus are a risk factor in what type of Leukemia?
    CML
  520. What type of leukemia is most likely to affect kids?
    ALL
  521. Elderly men are more likely to get what type of leukemia?
    CLL
  522. What is the most common adult leukemia?
    AML
  523. Dilation of the inner mammary and subscapular arteries, hypertension, and weakness of the upper limbs with low lower limb pulse is seen in?
    Coarctation of the aorta
  524. The substitution of one fully differentiated cell type to another type is known as?
    Metaplasia
  525. Which cell type goes up with viral infections?
    Lymphocytes
  526. What disease is characterized by congenital absence of parasympathetic ganglia in the colon, constipation and dilation of the colon?
    • Congenital Megacolon
    • aka Hirshsprung's Disease
  527. Chaga's Disease is spread by?
    The Kissing Bug
  528. What muscle disorder is pseudohypertrophy most common?
    Duchenne's Dystrophy
  529. Fatty liver, edema and atrophy of the small bowel are characteristic of?
    Kwashikor's
  530. Pannus formation is in?
    R.A.
  531. Cretinism is caused by?
    Hypothyroidism in kids
  532. Acromegally and gigantism are results of an increase of?
    Somatotopin
  533. Subacute panencephalitis is a sequel to?
    Measles
  534. Degeneration of lateral horn cells affects:
    Autonomic function, sympathetics
  535. Chronic passive congestion of the liver is typically seen in?
    Right sided heart failure
  536. Starry-sky appearance of lymphoid tissue is characteristic of?
    Burkett's Lymphoma
  537. What causes hypoxia without ischemia?
    Bronchopneumonia
  538. The loss of breaking skills, the lack of the ability to stop forward motion of the hand when reaching is indicative of a lesion to?
    Cerebellum
  539. What disease is most likely to cause secondary orchitis in post-pubescent males?
    Mumps
  540. Giant cell artereitis primarily affects?
    Temporary artery
  541. Hodgkin's Lymphoma is characterized by the presence of?
    Reed-Sternberg Cells
  542. A genetic defect of the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine will result in?
    PKU and mental retardation
  543. A tumor comprised of 3 germ layers is called?
    Teratoma
  544. What is characterized by the presence of caseous necrosis?
    TB
  545. What is characterized by calcification of the temporal artery?
    Giant Cell Arteritis
  546. What is the mechanism by which the herpes virus stays in the body long after a vericella infection?
    Sequestration (sp?) of the genome to a sensory ganglion (m/c trigeminal)
  547. A male with an expanding mass in the jaw/cheek area, from Central Africa probably has?
    Bukett's Lymphoma
  548. A pulmonary embolus usually arises from?
    Deep vein thrombosis
  549. Pitting edema is usually caused by?
    Congestive heart failure
  550. If the medial groove of the prostate cannot be palpated, what is most likely present?
    Prostatic carcinoma
  551. What produces exudative lesions caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis and contains caseous necrosis?
    Ghon's Lesions
  552. Tuberculosis of the spine is?
    Pott's Disease
  553. What type of disease is ankylosing spondylitis?
    Autoimmune
  554. Pyknosis is characterized as?
    Condensation
  555. A mask-like face, claw hands, hypertension and fibrosis of the esophagus is seen in?
    Scleroderma
  556. Functional vasospastic disorder affecting the small arteries and arterioles of the hands is?
    Raynaud's Disease
  557. The presence of right lower quadrant pain, diarrha, malabsorption and granulomatosus inflammation of the intestin indicates?
    IBD
  558. What are characteristics of Horner's Syndrome
    Ptosis, miosis and anhydrosis (also opthalmosis)
  559. A small cystic projection from a joint capsule or tendon is known as a?
    Ganglion
  560. Hemorrhage into the reticular formation of the brain is most likely to result in?
    Coma
  561. A localized area of tissue necrosis resulting from an immunologically induced necrotizing vasculitis is?
    Arthrus Phenomenon
  562. Subluxation of the lens, laxity of the ligaments and cystic medial necrosis is seen in?
    Marphan's Syndrome
  563. Antibody synthesis is a primary function of what type of cells?
    Plasma cells
  564. Epidural hemorrhage most likely results from?
    Middle Meningeal Artery
  565. Synovial thickening and 2nd degree inflammation with edema but NO pannus indicates?
    Gouty arthritis
  566. Ischemic necrosis as a consequence to cardiac muscle damage is?
    Coagulation
  567. What causes localized edema that accompanies fiariasis?
    Lymphatic obstruction
  568. Heberden's nodes are on?
    DIP's
  569. Thrombosis and embolism of what vessels can cause a transmural infarction of the small intestine?
    Superior mesentaric arteries
  570. What produces symptoms due primarily to de-myelination of peripheral nerve axons?
    Guillian-Barre (post-infectious poly-radiculitis)
  571. What may lead to megaloblastic anemia?
    B9 deficiency and atrophic gastric mucosa
  572. Generalized muscle weakness, poor intestinal tonus, and resultant bloating, heart anomalies and weak respiratory muscles is from a deficiency of?
    Calcium or magnesium
  573. What is the most common tumor of the large intestine?
    Endocarcinoma
  574. Coccidiomycosis most commonly affects the?
    Lungs

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