CT Mock Boards 3

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  1. During CT exams of the chest and abdomen, the highly radiosensitive breast tissue can be protected with minimal image artifact with the use of specialized shielding composed of:
    A. aluminum
    B. lead
    C. barium
    D. bismuth
    D. bismuth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. The use of water as an oral contrast material for CT of the abdomen and/or pelvis has several potential advantages, including:
    1. increased palatability and improved patient comfort
    2. better demonstration of enhancing bowel wall
    3. no interference with 3D application
    A. 1 and 3 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 1 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. If all other technical factors remain constant, which of the following would serve to decrease patient radiation dose during a helical exam?
    A. decreased filtration
    B. decreased scan field of view
    C. increased matrix size
    D. increased pitch
    D. increased pitch
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. A patients blood pressure is measured as 140/70 mm Hg. The number 140 represents:
    A. the pressure within the arterial vessels during contraction of the heart
    B. the pressure exerted on the chambers of the heart during a contraction
    C. the pressure exerted on the chambers of the heart while relaxed
    D. the pressure within the arterial vessels while the heart is relaxed
    A. the pressure within the arterial vessels during contraction of the heart
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. A(n) ______ contrast material may be described as one that does not dissociate into charged particles in solution.
    A. osmolar
    B. non-ionic
    C. ionic
    D. neutral
    B. non-ionic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Which of the following radiation dose indices is a measure of the total radiation exposure for an entire series of CT images?
    A. multiple scan average dose (MSAD)
    B. dose length product (DLP)
    C. CTDIvol
    D. CTDI100
    B. dose length product (DLP)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Proper immobilization during a CT procedure a CT procedure may involve the use of:
    1. soft, hook-and-loop (velco) immobilization straps
    2. adhesive medical tape
    3. good patient communication
    A. 1, 2, and 3
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 1 only
    D. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. The normal range of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) for men is:
    A. 50 _+ 14mL/min/m2
    B. 70 _+ 14mL/min/m2
    C. 60 _+ 10mL/min/m2
    D. 80 _+ 10mL/min/m2
    B. 70 _+ 14mL/min/m2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Effective dose is a relative radiation dose measurement term that accounts for the:
    A. collimation
    B. detector pitch
    C. tissue radiosensitvity
    D. beam pitch
    C. tissue radiosensitivity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Risk factors for contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN) include:
    1. diabetes
    2. advanced age
    3. hematuria
    A. 1 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 3 only
    D. 1 and 2 only
    D. 1 and 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. The reduction in number of infectious organisms without a complex elimination is termed.
    A. medical asepsis
    B. immunization
    C. surgical asepsis
    D. sterilization
    A. medical asepsis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Which of the following is the preferred range for [atient heart rate for optimal cardiac CT studies?
    A. > 100 bpm
    B. 65-75 bpm
    C. 85-95 bpm
    D. 75-85 bpm
    B. 65-75 bpm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Late effects of radiation, such as genetic mutations, may occur with even small doses of radiation and are termed:
    A. stochastic
    B. somatic
    C. nonstochastic
    D. chronic
    A. stochastic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Uriticaria is which of the following:
    A. urinary tract infection
    B. hives
    C. severe nausea with associated vomiting
    D. bronchospasm
    B. hives
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Which of the following type(s) of oral contrast material could cause peritonitis if leakage from the digestive tract occurs from perforation?
    A. iopamidol (gastrografin)
    B. barium sulfate
    C. effervescent granules
    D. diatrizoate (hypaque)
    B. barium sulfate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Which of the following is not an advantage of an automatic power injector over the manuel bolus method of IV contrast agent administration?
    A. decreased risk of contrast induced nephrotoxicity
    B. uniform contrast enhancement throughout the exam
    C. consistent contrast agent of administration for all patients
    D. shorter injection times
    A. decreased risk of contrast induced nephrotoxicity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which of the following is/are severe adverse reaction(s) to iodinated IV contrast media?
    1. anaphylaxsis
    2. urticaria
    3. vomiting
    A. 1 and 3 only
    B. 1 only
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    B. 1 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Which of the following laboratory values is the most dependable measure of renal failure?
    A. PTT
    B. PT
    C. BUN
    D. creatine
    D. creatine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Which of the following angiocatheter sizes may be safely used for the automated power injection of iodinated contrast agents at flow rates higher than 3 mL/sec?
    1. 18 gauge
    2. 20 gauge
    3. 22 gauge
    A. 1, 2, and 3
    B. 1 and 2 only
    C. 1 only
    D. 3 only
    B. 1 and 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Which of the following portions of the electrocardiogram (ECG) corresponds to the period of atrial systole?
    A. T wave
    B. QRS complex
    C. alpha wave
    D. P wave
    D. P wave
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between multiple scan average dose (MSAD) and image spacing during axial (step-and-shoot) scanning?
    A. MSAD decreases with overlapping scans
    B. MSAD equals the product of image spacing and pitch
    C. MSAD increases with overlapping scans
    D. MSAD increases with noncontiguous scans
    C. MSAD increases with overlapping scans
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Which of the following terms is used to describe the IV injection of medication or contrast agent in one compete dose over a short time?
    A. infus-a-port
    B. infusion
    C. IV drip
    D. bolus
    D. bolus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. Used in determining the biologic effect of iodinated contrast media, the term ____ refers to the number of ions formed when a substance dissociated in solution.
    A. osmolality
    B. concentration
    C. solubility
    D. iodination
    A. osmolality
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. The dosimetry index used to approximate the radiation dose for CT sections acquired during a helical scan is called the:
    A. CTDIvol
    B. CTDIw
    C. equivalent dose
    D. effective dose
    A. CTDI vol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. The injection rate of an automatic injector is set at 1.5mL/sec. What is the injection time for a contrast agent volume of 150mL?
    a. 60 seconds
    b. 90 seconds
    c. 100 seconds
    d. 120 seconds
    • c. 100 seconds
    • 150ml of contrast divided by 1.5mL/sec = 100 seconds
  26. Which of the following must be included when one is obtaining informed consent for an invasive procedure?
    1. explanation of the exam technique
    2. the possible risks and benefits of the exam
    3. alternatives to the procedure involved
    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. 1 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Which of the following techniques may be employed to reduce patient radiation dose during a cardiac CT exam?
    A. retrospective ECG gating
    B. z-axis interpolation
    C. prospective ECG gating
    D. multisegment reconstruction
    C. prospective ECG gating
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which of the following may be considered a low osmolar contrast medium?
    1. iothalamte meglumine
    2. diatrizoate sodium
    3. iohexol
    A. 3 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 1 only
    D. 1 and 2 only
    A. 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Following the intrathecal injection of an iodinated contast agent for a post-myelography CT study of the lumbar spine, the patient should be instructed to:
    A. take a cleansing enema
    B. rest for 8-24 hours in the trendelenburg position
    C. resume normal activity
    D. rest for 8-24 hours with the head slightly elevated
    D. rest for 8-24 hours with the head slightly elevated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Compared with single slice CT (SSCT), patient radiation dose during a multidetector CT study may be higher because of:
    1. use of a cone beam of radiation
    2. acquisition at thinner sections widths
    3. higher powered x-ray tubes
    A. 1 only
    B. 1 and 2 only
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    B. 1 and 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Which of the following pharmaceuticals ma be administered prior to a cardiac CT procedure in an effort to improve visualization of the coronary vessels?
    1. B-blocker
    2. nitoglycerin
    3. metformin
    A. 1, 2, and 3
    B. 1 and 2 only
    C. 1 only
    D. 2 only
    B. 1 and 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. A _____ is a benign, highly vascular mass commonly found in the liver.
    A. hematoid
    B. hemogenic carcinoma
    C. vasculoma
    D. hemangioma
    D. hemangioma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Which of the following is the preferred contrast enhancement phase for CT acquision of the spleen?
    A. portal venous phase
    B. pre-contrast phase
    C. arterial phase
    D. equilibrium phase
    A. portal venous phase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Which of the following terms describes the appearance of an acute subdural hematoma on a CT image of the brain?
    A. hypodense
    B. radiolucent
    C. isodense
    D. hyperdense
    D. hyperdense
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. The angiographic assessment known as a "CT run-off" evaluates the peripheral arterial tree from the renal arteries through the:
    A. superior mesenteric artery
    B. aortic bifurcation
    C. distal lower extremity
    D. aortic arch
    C. distal lower extremity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. During a PET-CT exam, the amount of FDG uptake in an anatomic region is directly proportional to the areas:
    A. metabolic activity
    B. central vs peripheral location
    C. radiosensitivity
    D. size
    A. metabolic acitivity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Accurate demonstration of _____ would most likely require the IV injection of an iodinated contrast agent during a CT study of the chest.
    A. pneumonia
    B. a dissection aortic aneurysm
    C. asbestosis
    D. a solitary pulmonary nodule
    B. a dissection aortic aneurysm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Vascular components of the brains blood supply known as the Circle of Willis include the:
    1. internal carotid arteries
    2. basilar artery
    3. anterior communication artery
    A. 2 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    B. 1 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. The benign mass of the eighth cranial nerce known as a vestibule schwannoma may be also termed a(n):
    A. optic nerve glioma
    B. hypoglossal adenoma
    C. olfactory neuroblastoma
    D. acoustic neuroma
    D. acoustic neuroma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. The thick, layered portion of the peritoneum responsible for attaching portions of the intestines to the bowel wall is called the:
    A. falciform ligament
    B. ligamentum teres
    C. mesentery
    D. gerota fascia
    C. mesentery
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. After initiation of rapid bolus administration of an iodinated contrast agent, the nephrographic phase of renal contrast enhancement occurs at approximately:
    A. 30-40 seconds
    B. 70-90 seconds
    C. 3 - 5 minutes
    D. 20-25 seconds
    B. 70-90 seconds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Retrospective ECG gating utilizes which of the following portions of the cardiac cycle for image reconstruction?
    1. atrial systole
    2. ventricular systole
    3. cardiac diastole
    A. 3 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 2 only
    D. 1 and 2 only
    A. 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Which of the following is a common complication of CT-guided biopsy of the lung?
    A. pneumoconiosis
    B. aspiration
    C. pneumothorax
    D. pulmonary embolism
    C. pneumothorax
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. An enema is indicated prior to a CT exam of the pelvis to administer positive contrast material into the large bowel. Which of the following dosages would be sufficient to opacify the rectosigmoid region?
    A. 300-500 mL
    B. 150-250 mL
    C. 900-1100 mL
    D. 500-750 mL
    B. 150-250 mL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. A CT exam of the lumbar spine reveals a herniated disc at the level of L2-L3. Which of the following reformation planes would best demonstrate posterior compression of the disc material onto the spinal cord?
    A. oblique
    B. coronal
    C. axial
    D. sagittal
    D. sagittal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. A common formula used to calculate the maximum dosage of IV iodinated contrast material used in any CT exam is:
    A. 2mL per kg of body weight
    B. 1mL per lb of body weight
    C. 5mL per lb of body weight
    D. 5mg per kg of body weight
    A. 2mL per kg of body weight
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Which of the following MDCT exams may include endobrachial views?
    A. virtual colonoscopy
    B.HRCT of the lungs
    C. CTA of the aorta
    D. virtual bronchoscopy
    D. virtual bronchoscopy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. The stanford type A dissection aneurysm affects which portion of the aorta?
    a. ascending thoracic
    d. descending thoracic
    c. abdominal
    d. bifurcation
    a. ascending thoracic
  49. During the HRCT of the lungs, edematous changes in the posterior lungs may be differentiated by positioning of the patient in the ____ position.
    A. prone
    B. left lateral decubitus
    C. right lateral decubitus
    D. supine
    A. prone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. The firm, outer portion of each intervertebral disc is called the:
    A. anulus stapedius
    B. anulus fibrosis
    C. nucleus prepositus
    D. nucleus pulppsus
    B. anulus fibrosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Which of the following refers to the surgical resection of the pancreas and duodenum for treatment of pancreatic carcinoma?
    A. Roux-en-Y anastomosia
    B. Whipple procedure
    C. endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
    D. cholecystectomy
    B. Whipple procedure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. During which of the following IV contrast phases does the bladder wall enhance?
    A. corticomedullary
    B. excretory
    C. nephrographic
    D. early arterial
    C. nephrographic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Coronary artery calcium (CAC) quantitation by MDCT exam is used primarily to assess:
    A. atherosclerotic disease
    B. ejection fraction
    C. aortic aneurysm
    D. coronary artery stenosis
    A. atherosclerotic disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. A specialized CT exam involving the administration of an enteral contrast agent directly into the small bowel via nasogastric tube is called:
    A. CT colonoscopy
    B. CT enteroclysis
    C. CT colonography
    D. CT enterography
    B. CT enteroclysis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. The epithelial lining of the urinary tract is called the:
    A. urothelium
    B. pyelocalyx
    C. omentum
    D. haustrum
    A. urothelium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. A common area for inflammation, the primary drainage opening within the sinus cavities is referred to as the:
    A. adenovestibular complex
    B. external olfactory canal
    C. ostiomeatal complex
    D. mucosal fossa
    C. ostiomeatal complex
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. During a CT exam of the chest, the administration of a saline flush following the bolus injection of iodinated IV contrast media helps alleviate artifact from dense contrast in the:
    A. inferior vena cava
    B. descending aorta
    C. superior vena cava
    D. ascending aorta
    C. superor vena cava
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Delayed post-contrast acquisition of the lower extremities following a CTA of the pulmonary arteries is termed:
    A. iliac CTA
    B. femoral CTA
    C. CT perfusion
    D. CT venography
    D. CT venography
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. The overall quality of MPR and volume-rendered 3D images for a carotid artery CTA may be improved by:
    1. reducing the kVp for an increase in displayed vessel opacification and contrast
    2. retrospective reconstruction with a 50% overlap in section increment
    3. bolus-tracking software to maximize contrast enhancement
    A. 2 and 3 only
    B. 1 and 2 only
    C. 1, 2, and 3
    D. 2 only
    C. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Which of the following is the most common sign of GI pathology on CT images?
    A. air distention
    B. fluid collection
    C. dense fecal matter
    D. wall thickening
    D. wall thickening
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Often evaluated during body CTA exam, the branches of the celiac axis are the:
    1. left gastric artery
    2. common hepatic artery
    3. splenic artery
    A. 1, 2, and 3
    B. 1 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. 3 only
    A. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Vital components of a CT urogram (CT-IVP) protocol include:
    1. administration of 1200 to 1500mL of a positive oral contast agent 90 minutes prior to exam
    2. thin-section excretory phase of imaging of the entire urinary tract
    3. volume-rendered 3D and maximum intensity projection (MIP) imaging of the urinary tract
    A. 2 and 3 only
    B. 2 only
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    A. 2 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. Arterial phase CT imaging of the liver is used to optimally demonstrate which of the following?
    A. hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
    B. portal vein thrombosis
    C. hepatic cyst
    D. fatty infiltration
    A. hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Non-contrast CT of the urinary tract is a valuable tool in the investigation of:
    A. transitional cell carcinoma
    B. ureteral duplication
    C. renal artery stenosis
    D. urinary tract lithiasis
    D. urinary tract lithiasis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Which of the following techniques may be used to improve visualization of the vocal cords during a CT exam of the neck?
    1. oral administration of thick barium paste
    2. CT acquisition with the mouth open as widely as tolerable
    3. scanning while the patient phonates the letter "e"
    A. 2 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 3 only
    D. 1 and 3 only
    C. 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Percutaneous drainage under CT guidance may be used for the aspiration of which of the following pathologic process?
    A. chronic sudbural hematoma
    B. hydrocephalus
    C. abdominal abscess
    D. dissecting aortic aneurysm
    C. abdominal abscess
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. The device contructed to house the x-ray tube and date acquisition system (DAS) for a CT scanner is called the:
    A. generator
    B. CPU
    C. gantry
    D. array processor
    C. gantry
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Third generation CT scanners use which of the following scan geometries?
    A. rotate-stationary
    B. translate-rotate
    C. rotate-rotate
    D. transaxial
    C. rotate-rotate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. A quality control procedure determines that the low contrast resolution of a CT scanner is extremely poor. Likely causes are:
    1. tube arcing
    2. increased electronic noise
    3. decreased tube current
    A. 1 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 2 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. When one is viewing a maximum intensity projection (MIP) image, each pixel represents:
    A. the minimum attenuation occuring within the voxel
    B. the average attenuation occuring within the voxel
    C. the maximum attenuation occuring within the voxel
    d. all attenuation occuring within the voxel above a set threshold value
    C. the maximum attenuation occuring within the voxel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. A CT image is reconstructed using a 512 squared matix and a display field of view of 40cm. What is the linear dimension of each pixel?
    A. 1.28cm
    B. 0.78cm
    C. 0.08cm
    D. 0.0015cm
    B. 0.78cm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Which of the following statements about collimation of the CT x-ray beam is FALSE?
    A. increases in collimation increase the intensity of the primary beam
    B. collimation of the x-ray beam occurs both before and after the patient
    C. collimation of the beam occurs in the z-axis, thus affecting slice thickness
    D. collimation of the CT x-ray beam is used to limit the detection of scatter radiation
    A. increases in collimation increase the intensity of the primary beam
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. Which of the following terms may be used to describe the quantity of radiation emitted from the CT x-ray tube toward the patient?
    A. photon flux
    B. effective mAs
    C. constant mAs
    D. photon fluence
    D. photon fluence
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Which of the following mathematical techniques is used exclusively for image reconstruction with helical CT scanners?
    A. back-projection
    B. convolution
    C. iterative techniques
    D. interpolation
    D. interpolation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Which of the following is the most common type of noise found in the CT image?
    A. artifactual noise
    B. electronic noise
    C. quantum noise
    D. filter noise
    C. quantum noise
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. PACS is connected with imaging modalities and other peripheral devices on a computerized communication system called a:
    A. hospital information system (HIS)
    B. radiology information system (RIS)
    C. web
    D. network
    D. network
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. The major disadvantage of the back-projection method of image reconstruction is the appearance of the:
    A. partial volume effect
    B. star artifact
    C. ring artifact
    D. Gibb phenomenon
    B. star artifact
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. The most evident method of reducing involuntary motion of a ct image is:
    A. reduced scan times
    B. thorough explanation of the exam to the patient
    C. immobilization
    D. physical restraints
    A. reduced scan times
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. Soft copies of CT images are stored on which of the following media:
    1. hard drives
    2. magnetic optical disk
    3. laser film
    A. 3 only
    B. 1 and 2 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. 1 and 3 only
    B. 1 and 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. The process of displaying CT images in a different orientation from the one used in the original reconstruction process is called:
    A. multiplanar reformation
    B. retropective reconstruction
    C. prospective reconstruction
    D. multisegment reconstruction
    A. multiplanar reformation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. The process of gray-scale mapping of the CT image may be referred to as:
    A. prospective reconstruction
    B. analog-to-digita conversion
    C. windowing
    D. retrospective reconstruction
    C. windowing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. In the formula used to calculate the linear attenuation coefficient, I=Ioe (with a little -ux, used like a squared number), the symbol Io identifies:
    A. Euler constant
    B. transmitted intensity
    C. absorber thickness
    D. incident intensity
    D. incident intensity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. First generation CT scanners possess which of the following characteristics?
    A. nutating detector array
    B. pencil thin x-ray beam
    C. rotate-rotate detectors
    D. silver halide detectors
    B. pencil thin x-ray beam
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. The intensity of the x-ray beam after it passed through an object to a detector is called the:
    A. ray
    B. primary beam
    C. transmitted intensity
    D. incident intensity
    C. transmitted intensity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. An accurate, modern CT scanner possesses a spatial resolution up to:
    A. 25 lp/cm
    B. 10 lp/cm
    C. 25 lp/mm
    D. 10 lp/mm
    A. 25 lp/cm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. A high-resolution comb is utilized by an MSCT detector array in an effort to reduce:
    A. patient radiation dose
    B. scatter radiation
    C. high spatial frequency signal
    D. low spatial frequency signal
    B. scatter radiation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. The distance between the centers of two adjacent reconstructed images is termed the:
    A. sampling rate
    B. section width
    C. interpolation edge
    D. section interval
    D. section interval
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. The maximum number of simultaneous sections an MSCT system can acquire per gantry rotation is controlled by the number of:
    A. focal spots
    B. data channels
    C. detector rows
    D. x-ray tubes
    B. data channels
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. Matrix size describes which of the following?
    A. the number of data channels available
    B. number of pixels used to display image
    C. relationship between the field of view and the algorithm
    D.aperature size used during data acquisition
    B. number of pixels used to display the image
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. An ROI measurement with an average CT number of zero is:
    A. blood
    B. fat
    C. air
    D. water
    D. water
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. The implementation of corrective actions to improve any identified performance inadequacies of the CT system is referred to as:
    A. uniformity
    B. quality assurance
    C. linearity
    D. quality control
    D. quality control
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. The major disadvantage of the fan- or cone-shaped x-ray beams used in modern CT units in comparison with the "pencil-thin" beams of older units is:
    A. greater patient radiation dose
    B. increased transmission measurements
    C. decreased transmission measurements
    D. excess tube wear
    A. greater patient radiation dose
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. When choosing a scan field of view, the CT Tech is controlling the:
    1. diameter of data acquisition
    2. number of activated detectors within the array
    3. correction of factors for the specfic area of anatomic interest
    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 2 only
    D. 1 and 3 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. As the attenuation of a volume of tissue decreases, the transmitted intensity of a CT x-ray beam:
    A. remains unchanged
    B. increases
    C. decreases
    D. increases to a peak value and then rapidly decreases
    B. increases
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. Which of the following parameters or factors is improved by the selection of a smaller x-ray tube filament?
    A. spatial resolution
    B. heat rating
    C. signal-to-noise ratio
    D. scan time
    A. spatial resolution
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. The geometric efficiency of a CT detector is influenced primarily by the:
    A. size of the detector material
    B. size of the tube filament
    C. atomic number of the detector material
    D. amount of interspace material between detectors
    D. amount of interspace material between detectors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. Which of the following factors may affect the attenuation of an object during CT data acquisition?
    A. mA
    B. algorithm
    C. kVp
    D. beam pitch
    C. kVp
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. An image that is reconstructed a second time with some change in technical factor is said to be:
    A. retrospective
    B. reformatted
    C. post-processed
    D. reiterated
    A. retrospective
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. The Feldkamp-Davis-Kress (FDK) algorithm may be applied to MSCT acquisition data to overcome image artifacts from:
    A. partial volume averaging
    B. beam hardening
    C. patient motion
    D. beam divergence
    D. beam divergence
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. MSCT systems are typically capable of differeniating adjacent objects with attenuation differences as small as:
    A. 10 HU
    B. 25 HU
    C. 60 HU
    D. 3 HU
    D. 3 HU
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. The ability of an MSCT system to freeze motion and provide an image free of blurring is called:
    A. contrast resolution
    B. in-plane spatial resolution
    C. longitudinal spatial resolution
    D. temporal resolution
    D. temporal resolution
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. Ring artifacts on the CT image are associated with which of the following tube-detector geometries?
    A. rotate-nutate
    B. rotate-stationary
    C. rotate-rotate
    D. translate-rotate
    C. rotate-rotate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. What is the maximum beam collimation for an MSCT system with 16 rows of 1.25mm detectors?
    a. 2.5mm
    b. 5.0mm
    c. 20.0mm
    d. 40.0mm
    • c. 20.0 mm
    • 16 rows x 1.25mm= 20.0mm
  104. The polyenergetic x-ray beam emitted from a CT x-ray tube is susceptible to artifacts due to the phenomenom known as:
    A. kerma
    B. partial volume
    C. beam hardening
    D. density bleem
    C. beam hardening
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. In an MSCT System, which of the following technical parameters determines the reconstructed section width?
    A. beam collimation
    B. number of data channels
    C. detector collimation
    D. detector pitch
    C. detector collimation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. Daily air or water calibration of the CT system is performed to evaluate which of the following components of image quality?
    A. contrast resolution
    B. linearity
    C. temporal resolution
    D. uniformity
    B. linearity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. The reduction in intensity of an x-ray beam as it interacts with matter is called:
    A. attenuation
    B. luminescence
    C. transmission
    D. scatter
    A. attenuation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. Pixels whose average attenuation coefficients are less than the coefficient of water have which of the following types of CT number values?
    A. negative
    B. extremely large
    C. high positive
    D. high contrast
    A. negative
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. Which of the following actions would serve to magnify the CT image on the display monitor?
    A. decrease matrix size
    B. increase display field of view
    C. increase scan field of view
    D. decrease display field of view
    D. decrease display field of view
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. The bit depth of a digital imaging system defines the number of information bits contained within each:
    A. matrix
    B. multiplanar reformation (MPR)
    C. pixel
    D. axial image
    C. pixel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. The technical factor(s) necessary for the acquistion of an isotropic data set is/are:
    1. thin detector collimation
    2. high mA setting
    3. small DFOV
    A. 1, 2, and 3
    B. 1 only
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. In multislice CT (MSCT), the combined thicknesses of all of the sections simultaneously acquired with each gantry rotation are called the:
    A. total collimation
    B. detector pitch
    C. detector configuration
    D. beam pitch
    A. total collimation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. MSCT systems typically employ which of the following types of detectors?
    A. charged-couple device (CCD)
    B. tungsten ring
    C. gas ionization
    D. solid state scintillation
    D. solid state scintillation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. Which of the following technical adjustments may be employed to reduce step artifact in a multiplanar reformation of an image?
    1. acquisition of an isotropic data set
    2. overlapping section increment
    3. increase in effective mA
    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1, 2, and 3
    D. 1 only
    A. 1 and 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. Which of the following is a manifestation of the partial volume artifact?
    A. Hounsfield Bar
    B. streaking
    C. cupping
    D. aliasing
    C. cupping
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. During volumetric CT acquisition, the slice sensitivity profile graphically represents the:
    A. effective section width
    B. detector collimation
    C. dose profile
    D. beam width
    A. effective section width
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. An increase in the sampling rate during the CT data acquisition corresponds to an increase in:
    A. views per rotation
    B. matrix size
    C. image noise
    D. patient radiation dose
    A. views per rotation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
Author
ID
69593
Card Set
CT Mock Boards 3
Description
CT Mock Boards 3
Updated
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