Study Guide 4.txt

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DTJones2011
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70706
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Study Guide 4.txt
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2011-03-09 13:57:21
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CT Review Patient Handling Safety
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CT Review Patient Handling and Safety
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  1. Following the HIPPA guidelines, you may give a patient's medical information to another employee:
    a. if it is in plain sight on the CT console and the employee has already read it
    b. if the employee if related to the patient
    c. only if it is needed to do their job
    d. to joke about the patient's excessive weight
    c
  2. If the mA of a 2 second brain scan is doubled and all other parameters are not changed, the dose is:
    a. doubled
    b. unaffected
    c. halved
    d. quadrupled
    a
  3. Which of the following is the complete name of the laboratory test known at PTT?
    a. thromboplastin time
    b. prothrombin time
    c. partial thromboplastin time
    d. partial prothrombin time
    c
  4. Renal function refers to which of the following organs?
    a. gall bladder
    b. kidney
    c. liver
    d. spleen
    b
  5. In all states, patients are required by law to sign consent forms for the following reason:
    a. permission to administer contrast
    b. permission to perform a surgical procedure
    c. signed consent forms are not required by law in every state
    d. permission to administer sedation
    c
  6. Which of the following values for prothrombin time are considered outside the normal range?
    1. 12 seconds
    2. 20 seconds
    3. 30 seconds
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 3 only
    d. 2 and 3
    d
  7. _____ mm Hg is within the normal diastolic pressure range for adults.
    a. 40
    b. 80
    c. 120
    d. 140
    b
  8. The result of which of the following lab tests may impact the decision to administer IV contrast media?
    1. BUN
    2. creatinine
    3. PT
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 3 only
    d. 1, 2, and 3
    d
  9. On a multi-row detector scanner, a radiation penumbra may be found:
    a. on every other slice
    b. only on the trailing edges of the slices
    c. on every slice
    d. only on the first and last slices of the slice volume
    d
  10. On a single-row detector scanner, which of the following does NOT decrease the patient dose?
    a. decreasing the scan time while leaving the mA constant
    b. decreasing the slice thickness while covering the same anatomical region
    c. reformat the data instead of re-scanning
    d. increasing the pitch
    b
  11. Whcih of the following is the correct action to take if a patient arrives with obvious head trauma, expecting a CT of the brain, but the paperwork request a pelvic CT?
    a. perform only a scan of the pelvis
    b. request clarification from the ordering physician
    c. perform both exams
    d. perform only a scan of the brain
    b
  12. During a CT scan, the patient must be monitored:
    a. visually and verbally
    b. occasionally
    c. by a nurse
    d. by a pulse oximeter
    a
  13. Which of the following does NOT minimize the radiation dose to the patient?
    a. decreasing the distance from the x-ray tube to the patient
    b. filtration of the low energy photons from the x-ray beam
    c. increasing the pitch
    d. pre-patient collimation
    a
  14. For x-ray radiation, whcih of the following is TRUE?
    a. 1 rem = 1 rad
    b. 1 rem = 1 Gy
    c. 1 rad = 1 Gy
    d. 1 ray = 1 Sv
    a
  15. A normal pulse rate for an infant is _____ BPM.
    a. 140
    b. 85
    c. 60
    d. 30
    a
  16. The most important consideration in the care of an unconscious patient is to ensure that:
    a. air passages are clear
    b. the body temperature is decreased
    c. fluids are maintained
    d. no medication are administered
    a
  17. Which of the following statements is TRUE if the patient history was taken at the time of scheduling?
    1. a claustrophobic patient can arrive for the scan prepared with a perscription sedative
    2. time can be saved the day of the exam by skipping the screening process
    3. if it has been determined that hte patient has no prior illness or condition, monitoring is unnecessary
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 3 only
    d. 1, 2 and 3
    a
  18. The human embro/fetus is most sensitive to radiation:
    a. in the second trimester
    b. in the first trimester
    c. equally in all trimesters
    d. in the third trimester
    b
  19. Which of the following could be the dose experienced by the pituitary from a typical CT brain scan?
    a. 9 rads
    b. 5 mGy
    c. 2 rads
    d. 1mGy
    c
  20. If there is no overlap or gap between adjacent slices of a CT scan, CTDI ____ MSAD.
    a. is less than
    b. equals
    c. is much greater than
    d. is slightly greater than
    b
  21. A normal adult has _____ respiration per minute.
    a. 5-8
    b. 12-20
    c. 20-30
    d. 30-40
    b
  22. A blood urea nitrogen level of _____ mg/dl is considered outside the normal range.
    1. 10
    2. 18
    3. 32
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 3 only
    d. 2 and 3
    c
  23. Which of the following tests is NOT an indication of renal function?
    1. BUN
    2. creatinine
    3. PTT
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 3 only
    d. 2 and 3
    c
  24. Which of the following conditions may be an indication NOT to use IV contrast media?
    1. previous serious reaction to contrast media used during another diagnostic procedure
    2. allergy to iodine
    3. renal impairment
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 3 only
    d. 1, 2 and 3
    d
  25. Which of the following is NOT a typical indication of shock?
    a. grayish skin tone
    b. convulsive seizures
    c. hypotension
    d. tachycardia
    b
  26. Platelets are small:
    a. implants
    b. detector elements responsible for capturing attenuated photons
    c. cell fragments necessary for blood coagulation
    d. catheters used for administering contrast media
    c
  27. Which of the following reduces patient dose at the expense of increasing the apparent noise in the image?
    a. kVp
    b. pitch
    c. table increment
    d. mAs
    d
  28. A 25 year old female is scheduled for a CT scan of the sinuses. She is not absolutely certain that she is not pregnant and it has been three weeks since her last menstrual period. Which of the following is the best course of action?
    a. perform the exam immediately, which she is experiencing sinus problems
    b. postpone the procedure until she is more certain of her condition
    c. cancel the procedure indefinitely
    d. suggest she get an MRI instead
    b
  29. Which of the following is a possible long-term effect of repeated exposure to radiation?
    1. cataracts
    2. cancer
    3. decrease in life expectancy
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 3 only
    d. 1, 2 and 3
    d
  30. CPR must be administered to a cardiac arrest victim within a maximum of _____ minutes(s) before there is a risk of brain damage.
    a. 1
    b. 4
    c. 8
    d. 12
    b
  31. Which is NOT a standard infection control precaution to use with all patients?
    a. use of a N95 respirator
    b. wash hands after touching a patient
    c. disposal of needle in sharps onctainer
    d. wear gloves wiht starting an IV
    a
  32. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
    1. respirators are not allowed in the CT suite
    2. pulse oximeters are allowed in the CT suite
    3. the patient should be removed from the CT suite to treat cardiac arrest
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 3 only
    d. 1, 2 and 3
    b
  33. A patient about to get a scan of her sinuses may wear:
    a. eyeglasses so she can see the technologist
    b. a nose ring
    c. her new belt with a large silver buckle
    d. earrings, to look her best
    c
  34. Which of the following is TRUE regarding a radiation penumbra?
    1. it occurs because the collimator is broken
    2. it is radiation that extends outside of the imaging region
    3. it is accounted for in the calculation of the MSAD
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 2 and 3
    d. 3 only
    c
  35. A creatinine level of 3.1 mg/dl indicates the:
    1. kidneys are not removing waste products from the urine
    2. patient is not a good candidate to receive IV contrast media
    3. value is below the normal range
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 3 only
    d. 1, 2 and 3
    b
  36. Making up the ARRT Standard of Ethics are the Code of Ethics, which is _____, and the Rules of Ethics, which are _____.
    a. a law, varibale depending upon the state you're in
    b. a conduct guideline, variable depending upon the state you're in
    c. a conduct guideline, enforceable
    d. a law, recommended job descriptions
    c
  37. When reviewing the images from a helical CT scan, a subtle, suspicious area of possible pathology is noticed. What could be done to better visualize the suspicious area WITHOUT increasing the dose to the patient?
    1. re-scan the region using thinner slices
    2. re-scan the region using a lower pitch
    3. retrospectively reconstruct the slices so that they overlap
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 3 only
    d. 1, 2 and 3
    c
  38. Which of the following vital signs is considered abnormal?
    a. adult pulse of 75 BPM
    b. pediatric pulse of 110 BPM
    c. adult blood pressure of 160/100
    d. oral tempature of 97*
    c
  39. To modify a standard CT protocol so that is is appropriate for child, which of the following should be decreased?
    1. pitch
    2. kVp
    3. mAs
    a. 1 only
    b. 1 and 2
    c. 1 and 3
    d. 2 and 3
    d
  40. Which of the following may result from exposing an embryo to x-ray radiation?
    1. mental retardation
    2. miscarriage
    3. deformities
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 3 only
    d. 1, 2 and 3
    d
  41. What are the lab values for a patients BUN?
    A. 0.6 to 1.7 mg/dl
    B. 95 to 120 mL/min/1.72m2
    C. 5 to 25 mg/dl
    C. 5 to 25 mg/dl
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. What are the lab values for a patients creatine?
    A. 5 to 25 mg/dl
    B. 95 to 120 mL/min/1.72m2
    C. 0.6 to 1.7 mg/dl
    C. 0.6 to 1.7 mg/dl
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. What are the lab values for a patients GFR?
    A. 5 to 25 mg/dl
    B. 0.6 to 1.7 mg/dl
    C. 95 to 120 mL/min/1.73m2
    C. 95 to 120 mL/min/1.73m2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. What does GFR determine?
    flow rate of filtered fluid through the kidney
  45. What are the values for PT (prothrombin time)?
    A. 10 to 14 seconds
    B. 20 to 40 seconds
    C. 60 to 80 seconds
    A. 10 to 14 seconds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. What are the values for PTT (partial thromboplastin time)?
    A. 10 to 14 s
    B. 60 to 80 s
    C. 20 to 40 s
    C. 20 to 40 s
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. What does a high INR indicate?
    A. high chance of bleeding
    B. high chance of having a clot
    C. low chance of having a clot
    D. low chance of bleeding
    A. high chance of bleeding
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. What does having a low INR indicate?
    A. high chance of having a clot
    B. low chance of having a clot
    C. high chance of bleeding
    D. low chance of bleeding
    A. high chance of having a clot
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. What are the values for normal INR?
    0.9 to 1.3
  50. The CTDI represents the average dose along the what axis or direction?
    A. y
    B. x
    C. z
    C. z
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. What is the purpose of the MSAD?
    Helps correct the CTDI by factoring in gaps or overlaps between slices or helices due to the selected table or pitch.
  52. What is the normal oxygen saturation percentage?
    95 to 100 %
  53. Where is the Sinoatril (SA) node located and what does it do?
    • Right Atrium
    • Main control and source of each beat
  54. What is called the "natural pacemaker" of the heart?
    SA node
  55. What does the Atrioventricular (AV) node do?
    • Provides a pathway for impulses from the Atria to the Ventricles.
    • Creates a delay in conduction from the atria to the ventricles.
  56. What wave shows the Atrial Contractions?
    A. P
    B. QRS
    C. T
    A. P
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. What wave shows the Ventricular Contractions?
    A. QRS
    B. T
    C. P
    A. QRS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. What wave shows the Ventricular Relaxation?
    A. QRS
    B. P
    C. T
    C. T
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Where are the ECG leads placed at on the body?
    On each shoulder and at the apex of the heart
  60. What phase of the heart has the Atria and Ventricles relaxed?
    Diastole
  61. What phase of the Heart triggers both the Atria to contract?
    Atrial Systole
  62. What phase of the Heart triggers both the Ventricles to contract?
    Ventricular Systole
  63. What are the values for an Oral Temperature?
    97 to 99
  64. What are the values for an Axilla Temperature?
    96.5 to 98.5
  65. What are the values for Rectal Temperature?
    97.5 to 99.5
  66. Where is the most common site for taking a pulse?
    Radial
  67. What is the Average Adult Pulse?
    70 to 100 bpm
  68. What is an Athletic Adults Pulse?
    45 to 60 bpm
  69. What is a Childs Pulse?
    95 to 110 bpm
  70. What is an Infants Pulse?
    100 to 180 bpm
  71. What indicates the force of ventricular contraction?
    Systolic pressure
  72. What indicates the lowest pressure of the ventricle between heartbeats?
    Diastolic Pressure
  73. Where is the most common place for measuring blood pressure?
    Brachial Artery
  74. What is the normal systolic pressure for an Adult?
    90 to 140
  75. What is the normal diastolic pressure for an Adult?
    60 to 90
  76. What is the normal systolic and diastolic pressure for a Child?
    85-130 over 45-85
  77. Whats the average respiration rate for a child?
    15 to 30
  78. Whats the average respiration rate for an infant?
    25 to 50

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