Percy and Barthold Mice Path

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Percy and Barthold Mice Path
2011-03-04 16:37:11
ACLAM Percy Barthold pathology mice

Questions from Chapter 1 of Percy and Barthold Pathology of Lab Rodents
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  1. Tissue mast cells are rarely seen in histologic sections from mice. T or F?
    False - they are commonly present.
  2. Mature male mice have significantly higher granulocyte counts than do female mice. T or F?
  3. What remains a major hematopoietic organ in adult mice?
  4. What is the predominant circulating leukocyte in mice?
  5. Rodents possess tonsils. T or F?
  6. Why are mice prone to rectal prolapse?
    They have a short rectum.
  7. What are Paneth cells? Where are they located? Are their granules larger in mice or rats?
    Paneth cells are specialized enterocytes having eosinophilic cytoplasmic granules, and are located in the intestinal crypts. The granules are larger in mice.
  8. Gram positive, segmented, filamentous bacteria are a common (normal) finding in the ileum of mice. T or F?
  9. Anisokaryosis, polykarya, karyomegaly and cytoplasmic invagination are common cytological findings in what organ of mice?
  10. Name 4 histologic (cytologic) examples of sexual dimorphism observed in mice.
    Salivary glands (increased secretory granules in males); higher peripheral granulocyte count in males than females; parietal surface of Bowman's capsule (cuboidal in males); X zone of adrenal medulla (surrounds medulla, does not involute in virgin females)
  11. Mice, rats and hamsters lack a Haversian canal system. T or F?
  12. How many liver lobes do mice have?
  13. How many lung lobes do mice have?
    One left, 4 right
  14. What is unique about the pulmonary veins of most rodents?
    Cardiac muscle surrounds major branches of the pulmonary veins and should not be confused with medial hypertrophy
  15. How many mammary glands to mice have?
    3 pairs of pectoral, 2 pairs of inguinal
  16. What type of placentation do mice have?
  17. What is another name for "knock in" mice? What strains of mice are used to create ""knock ins"?
    Transgenic, or gain of function mutations; FVB/N or F1 hybrids
  18. What strains of mice are used to create "knock outs"?
    (Loss of function mutations) Usually ES cells of 129 mice but into recipient B6 females
  19. Name 4 qualities of FVB/N mice
    Robust; large pronuclei; prone to epilepsy and pituitary adenomas
  20. What is a unique CNS feature of BABL/c and 129 mice?
    Often lack a corpus callosum
  21. What is a common tumor of 129 mice?
    Midline and testicular teratomas
  22. Name 7 qualities of C57/B6 mice
    Low incidence of neoplasia; late onset systemic amyloidosis; congenital ocular defects; hydrocephalus; early onset deafness; that whole alopecia/dermatitis thing; alveolar proteinosis
  23. What are 4 variables that fetal/embryonic viability depends on?
    Placentation; liver function; cardiovascular function; hematopoiesis
  24. Submaxillary salivary glands in sexually mature male mice reveal increased secretory granules in the cytoplasm of serous cells. T or F?
  25. Proteinuria is normal in mice with highest levels present in infant male mice. T or F?
    False - Mature male mice
  26. The thymus does not completely involute in adult mice and Hassall's corpuscles are indistinct. T or F?
  27. Respiratory bronchioles in mice are surrounded by cardiac muscle and are prominent. T or F?
    False - respiratory bronchioles are short or non-existent. Pulmonary veins are surrounded by cardiac muscle
  28. Melanosis in pigmented strains as C57BL mice occurs commonly in all of the following organs except: A. Anterior meninges of the olfactory bulbs, B. Liver, C. Optic nerves, D. Parathyroid glands, E. Spleen
  29. All of the following are DNA viruses that infect mice except: A. Mouse CMV, B. K virus, C. Minute virus of mice, D. Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis virus, E. Mouse Hepatitis Virus
    D, E
  30. All of the following are RNA viruses that infect mice except: A. Sendai virus, B. Murine leukemia virus, C. Ectromelia virus, D. Lactate dehydrogenase virus, E. Pneumonia virus of mice
  31. Adenoviruses are nonenveloped DNA viruses that replicate in the nucleus and produce characteristic intranuclear inclusions. T or F?
    True (INIB in intestines are pathognomonic in mice)
  32. MAV-1 and MAV-2 cause systemic infection in natural outbreaks in mice. T or F?
    False. MAV-1 has no disease or lesions in natural outbreaks (although produces systemic infection in experimental situations); MAV-2 is enterotropic
  33. Mice naturally infected with Adenovirus (K87) develop intranuclear inclusions in many different organs and tissues. T or F?
    False - within small intestine and cecum (MAV-2 is enterotropic).
  34. All of the following murine viruses produce intranuclear inclusion bodies except:,A. Mouse hepatitis virus, B. Polyoma virus, C. Cytomegalovirus, D. Adenovirus, E. Thymic necrosis virus
    A. (do produce syncytia however)
  35. MTV is a frequent contaminant of murine CMV stocks, which are prepared from salivary glands. T or F?
  36. Mouse thymic virus (MTV) has a primary tropism for what tissues?
    Salivary glands
  37. What are common synonyms for MTV?
    Thymic necrosis virus; thymic agent; mouse T lymphotrophic virus
  38. What age of mice are susceptible to thymic necrosis by MTV?
  39. The lung is preferentially infected by Murine CMV regardless of host age. T or F?
    False - salivary gland
  40. Murine CMV latency occurs in brain, thymus, liver, and kidney. T or F?
    False (will infect those tissues acutely, however)
  41. With murine CMV infection, eosinophilic intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in acinar epithelial cells of the submaxillary salivary gland with cytomegaly and lymphoplasmacytic infiltration of interstitium. T or F?
  42. Which of the following are true concerning the significance of Murine cytomegalovirus: A. Seldom causes overt disease in naturally infected mice., B. Persistent infections can lead to immune complex glomerulitis., C. It has a synergistic effect with Pseudomonas aeruginosa., D. Experimental or natural immunosuppression can precipitate disseminated disease.,
    All of the above,
  43. K virus is a synonym for Kilham rat virus. T or F?
    False - K virus is a mouse papovavirus and Kilham rat virus is a parvovirus.
  44. K virus is a persistent infection in mice. T or F?
  45. Gross lesions of K virus in neonatal mice are usually restricted to: A. Lungs B. Spleen C. Liver D. Intestinal tract E. All of the above
    A. Lesions induced in the lung include congestion, edema, hemorrhage, atelectasis, and septal thickening
  46. Microscopic lesions of K virus are commonly found in the vascular endothelium of the intestinal tract. T or F?
    True (INIB's)
  47. The oncogenic activity of polyomavirus requires parenteral inoculation of mice during the first 24 hours of life and results in tumors in multiple sites, particularly salivary glands. T or F?
    True. K virus is environmentally stable and shed in urine, so the route of infection in wild mice is exposure to infected urine in rodent nests that are used litter after litter.
  48. Minute Virus of Mice infection results in no lesions under natural conditions. T or F?
    True. Same for Mouse Parvovirus.
  49. Which viruses cross react with Minute Virus of Mice:
    Mouse Parvovirus
  50. What components of MVM allow it to cross react with Mouse Parvovirus?
    MVM and MPV share NS (nonstructural) proteins (although their capsid-encoding sequences are quite divergent)
  51. Mouse parvovirus is trophic for what type of cells? Is it a persistent virus? What age animal does it affect?
    MPV is trophic for lymphocytes and remains persistent in the host. Is more infectious for adults than neonates.
  52. Mouse poxvirus causes the disease Ectromelia. T or F?
    False - Ectromelia virus causes the disease Mouse pox.
  53. Ectromelia Virus is enzootic only in Europe and Japan. T or F?
    True; but this could always change
  54. Ectromelia virus is endemic in wild mice. T or F?
    False;origin of this disease is not known
  55. Natural infection by Ectromelia virus occurs by the oronasal route. T or F?
    False - Direct contact through cutaneous trauma.
  56. Immunologically competent mice recover completely from Ectromelia Virus infection and do not serve as carriers. T or F?
  57. List 5 susceptible and 1 resistant mouse strains to Mousepox.
    C3H, A, DBA, SWR, BALB/c are susceptible; C57 are resistant
  58. Name two pathognomonic lesions seen microscopically to confirm Ectromelia virus infection.
    Splenic fibrosis; triad of liver, spleen, and epithelial lesions bearing intracytoplasmic inclusions.
  59. How can infection with Mouse pox be confirmed?
    Immunohistochemistry, electron microscopy, serology, and histology
  60. Which species are susceptible to infection with Sendai virus:
    Mice, Rats, Hamsters, Guinea pigs seroconvert but this is due to a different parainfluenza 1 virus.
  61. Sendai virus is the most common virus to cause clinical disease in adult immunocompetent mice. T or F?
  62. Peak Sendai virus titers occur at 8-12 days and remain persistent for months. T or F?
    False - Peak titers occur at 3-6 days and virus is cleared by 8-12 days.
  63. The severe necrotizing and inflammatory lesions typical of Sendai virus infection are immune mediated and not due directly to viral infection. T or F?
    True, because of this, seroconversion occurs about the time clinical disease appears
  64. Microscopic changes during the acute phase of Sendai virus infection consists of focal interstitial pneumonia associated with terminal airways and do not cause significant lesions in the nasal passages or upper airways. T or F?
    False; A descending, segmental, necrotizing inflammation of nasal and airway epithelium occurs.
  65. During resolution of Sendai virus, terminal airways undergo a marked nonkeratinizing squamous metaplasia. T or F?
  66. Athymic nude and SCID mice develop a severe necrotizing pneumonia since they cannot mount an effective immune response. T or F?
    False - Necrosis is minimal since this disease is immune mediated (and they essentially lack an immune system). The main change is hypertrophic and hyperplastic epithelium.
  67. What other virus has similar histologic changes to Sendai virus in nude and SCID mice?
  68. Name a type of experimental study that Sendai virus can directly affect the results of.
    Incidence of pulmonary neoplasms in experimental carcinogenesis studies
  69. Pneumonia virus of mice is antigenically related to respiratory syncytial viruses. T or F?
    False; although they belong to the same family of paramyxoviruses
  70. What cell type does PVM have a tropism for?
    Type II pneumocytes (SCID mice)
  71. Pneumonia virus of mice naturally infects which of the following:
    Mice, Rats, Gerbils, Guinea Pigs, Rabbits
  72. Natural infection with Pneumonia Virus of Mice causes pneumonia in mice. T or F?
    False - It is subclinical under natural conditions and does not cause lesions in immunocompetent mice.
  73. Serology on sentinel mice may not adequately detect Mouse Pneumonia Virus in a colony. T or F?
    True - It is not highly contagious and number of seropositive mice can be small.
  74. What co-pathogen frequent complicates PVM infection in immunocompromised mice?
    Pneumocystis carinii
  75. The main lesion in mice naturally infected with LCMV is lymphocytic choriomeningitis. T or F?
    False; Only experimental inoculation of the cerebrum leads to this.
  76. Name two model systems/phenomenon that LCMV has been studied extensively and used for.
    Immune-mediated disease, virus persistence, and immune tolerance.
  77. LCMV can naturally infect which of the following:
    Mice, Hamsters, Humans, Canids, (neonatal rats appear to be resistant to infection)
  78. In utero infection is the major mode of LCMV infection in mice. T or F?
  79. Describe the pathogenesis of natural infection with LCMV in mice based on their age.
    Neonates: immune tolerance which progresses to late disease (chronic wasting) with age. Adults: infection is inconsequential (if not exposed as neonates)
  80. Diagnosis of LCMV can be made based on histopathology. T or F?
    False (there are no lesions! Serology is diagnostic test of choice)
  81. How is MAP testing used as a bioassay to diagnose LCMV in mice?
    Kills adults but not neonatal mice when inoculated intracerebrally.
  82. What is the significance of LCMV infection in mice?
    Zoonotic potential
  83. Infection with the enterotropic strain of MHV causes liver lesions in mice. T or F?
    False. The polytropic (pulmonary) strain was actually more of a liver pathogen.
  84. Describe the pathogenesis of the respiratory strain of MHV
    Infects nasal mucosa, replicates, then spreads systemically
  85. What is the key to the pathology induced by enterotropic strains of MHV?
    Disease is due to the proliferative kinetics of the intestinal epithelium, and not the immune response to the virus itself (destroys enterocytes faster than they can be replaced)
  86. Name two opportunistic pathogens that complicate enterotropic MHV infection.
    E. coli, Spironucleus muris
  87. Which of the following are true regarding MHV:
    Infection can occur at any age but disease usually occurs in mice less than 2 weeks of age., Passive immunity from immune dams readily protects infant mice from infection, Mouse genotypes resistant to one strain may be susceptible to others., Majority of MHV infections are sub-clinical. The virus that goes into the mouse is usually not the same as the virus that comes out of the mouse!
  88. Syncytial cell formation occurs in both respiratory and enterotropic strains of MHV. T or F?
  89. Name two lesions that may be present in mice recovered from MHV.
    Pulmonary perivascular infiltrates and hepatic microgranulomas
  90. What disease agent induces no clinical signs or histopathologic lesions but renders mice useless for immunology research?
    Lactate Dehydrogenase elevating Virus (LDV)
  91. What cell type does the above agent have a tropism for? Is infection cleared or persistent? How is it transmitted? What type of virus is it?
    LDV has tropism for macrophages and neural tissue. Infection is persistent, and infection is transmitted through bite wounds, sexual activity and biologics. Classified as an arterivirus.
  92. What does ADPM stand for, and why is it important? What strains of mice is it common in?
    ADPM = Age-dependent poliomyelitis. This disease develops in mice with suppressed immune function (often age), and expression of a specific ecotropic MuLV (again often age-related). Anterior horn neurons in these mice are then susceptible to lytic infection with LDV, which results in poliomyelitis. Common in C58 and AKR mice because they posses correct N-ecotropic MuLV and are homozygous at Fv-1 locus.
  93. How does LDV cause an elevation in plasma lactate dehydrogenase and other enzymes?
    Interferes with clearance functions of reticuloendothelial system due to infection of macrophages.
  94. What are some common names for Theiler's virus? What type of virus? What is it serologically related to?
    Mouse Encephalomyelitis Virus; TO (Theiler's Original); GDVII; FA; DA. Picornavirus; Encephalomyocarditis virus
  95. The main lesion in mice naturally infected with Theiler's virus is demyelination. T or F?
    False - lesions are not common and demyelination is rare when neurologic lesions are present
  96. Mouse encephalomyelitis virus is an enteric virus that produces no adverse intestinal affects. T or F?
    True. However, experimental infection can be induced, and lesions depend on virulence of strain used.
  97. In utero infection is the major route of infection by MEV in mice. T or F?
    False (Shed from GIT but transmission is ineffective)
  98. The overall significance of MEV is
    Low, It is nearly innocuous in immunocompetent mice (encephalomyelitis is greatly overrated in mice); disease can be observed in nudes, SCIDS
  99. EDIM and LIVIM are two strains of mouse rotaviruses. T or F?
    False - LIVIM is an old term for the enterotropic strain of MHV.
  100. Transmission of EDIM infection in mice is by the orofecal route. T or F?
  101. Mice under 2 weeks of age are susceptible to disease due to EDIM. T or F?
  102. What cells are selectively infected by EDIM in mice?
    Terminally differentiated enterocytes
  103. Describe the clinical signs of mice infected with EDIM.
    Runting, pot bellied, with loose mustard-colored feces staining the perineum.
  104. What are the gross and microscopic lesions in the GI tract in mice infected with EDIM?
    Flaccid bowel distended with gas and fluid. Hydropic change and vacuolation of terminal enterocytes.
  105. Severity of diarrhea correlates well with microscopic lesions of EDIM. T or F?
  106. What normal histologic findings in the GI tract of neonatal mice must be differentiated from EDIM infection?
    Absorption vacuoles within enterocytes of the neonatal bowel.
  107. What does Reovirus stand for?
    Respiratory Enteric Orphan virus
  108. What are the most common clinical signs and histopathologic lesions of reoviral infection in neonatal mice?
    Jaundice and steatorrhea; acute diffuse vascular encephalitis
  109. List 5 differentials for steatorrhea in neonatal mice.
    Reovirus; MHV; EDIM; salmonellosis; C. rodentium
  110. Which of the Reoviruses is most significant in mice?
    Reovirus 3
  111. What 2 viral agents owe their clinical signs to enterocyte kinetics?
  112. How are endogenous and exogenous murine leukemia viruses (MuLV) transmitted?
    By Mendelian genetics (endogenous) and conventionally (exogenous)
  113. +Endogenous and exogenous MuLV's are genetically, morphologically and antigenically homogenous. T or F?
  114. What are the three categories of endogenous MuLV's?
    Ecotropic-infect mouse cells only;
  115. Xenotropic-infect other animal cells but not mouse cells;
    Amphotropic (polytropic)-infect both mouse and other animal cells
  116. These tropisms are further restricted to specific tissue types and mouse strains.
    • What is the Bittner agent? How is it transmitted?
    • An exogenous murine mammary tumor (retrovirus) virus (MMTV) that is transmitted through the milk.
  117. Murine leukemia viruses are mouse strain-, age-, and tissue (or cell)-specific. T or F?
  118. Why is the diagnosis of Murine leukemia virus and Murine mammary tumor virus not necessary?
    Because all mice are infected.
  119. Which of the following Mycoplasma spp. are significant pathogens in mice:
    M. pulmonis
  120. Infection with M. pulmonis occurs by what route?
    Aerosol transmission
  121. Compared to rats, mice are relatively sensitive to disease from M. pulmonis. T or F?
  122. In natural outbreaks of disease due to M. pulmonis in mice, what clinical signs are seen?
    Weight loss, dyspnea, and a characteristic chattering sound.
  123. Mice infected with M. pulmonis do not develop peribronchial lymphocytic infiltrates and bronchiectasis as in rats. T or F?
  124. Culturing is the test of choice for Mycoplasma spp. in mice. T or F?
    False (are difficult to culture)
  125. Which species of salmonellosis is most commonly associated with mice?
    S. enteritidis
  126. What is the usual source of Salmonella infection in mice?
    Contaminated feed or bedding
  127. What's the best way to culture Salmonella?
    Selenite F broth enrichment --> streak on brilliant green agar
  128. The hepatic lesions associated with Salmonella are suppurative in nature with multifocal abscess formation. T or F?
    False (granulomatous)
  129. The histologic changes with salmonellosis in the mouse GI tract most commonly occur in
    Distal small intestine, Cecum
  130. When screening a mouse colony for carriers of salmonellosis, what is the best organ or location for culturing?
    Mesenteric lymph nodes
  131. Name two clinical manifestations of Pasteurella pneumotropica infection in mice
    Conjunctivitis, periorbital abscesses, panophthalmitis, rhinitis, lymphadenitis, other abscesses
  132. Serology is not helpful in diagnosis of subclinical infection of mice with P. pneumotropica. T or F?
    True (titers only seen in mice with overt disease)
  133. What type of pathogen is P. pneumotropica best described as?
    Opportunistic secondary invader
  134. Skin lesions are not usually accompanied by pruritis in Staphylococcus infection of mice. T or F?
  135. What are the microbiological characteristics used to diagnose Staphylococcus infection in mice and what must these be correlated with?
    Coagulase positive, beta hemolysis on blood agar. The presence of pathogenic staph must be correlated with the lesions present since the bacteria can be present in normal individuals.
  136. What is the "Nigg agent"? What is another synonym for this agent?
    Chlamydia trachomatis; also known as the mouse pneumonitis agent
  137. What cell type does this agent have a tropism for? What is a likely source of this agent for immunoincompetent mice?
    Macrophages; humans are a potential source of C. pneumoniae
  138. Mice are susceptible to infection with CAR bacillus. T or F?
  139. What is the best method to diagnose infection with CAR bacillus antemortem? Postmortem?
    • Antemortem: PCR on oral swabs
    • Postmortem: silver stain preparations of upper (ciliated) airways
  140. Eperythrozoon coccoides is classified as:
    Mycoplasmal agent
  141. Proteus mirabilis is commonly cultured from the intestinal lumen of healthy mice. T or F?
  142. Proteus mirabilis gains systemic entry primarily through the intestinal tract. T or F?
    False. Nasopharynx may be important portal of entry.
  143. What is the etiology of Tyzzer's Disease?
    Clostridium piliforme
  144. All of the following are true regarding Tyzzer's Disease:
    A. The causative agent is a gram-negative, spore-forming rod that propagates only in living cells. B. The organism may survive in the sporulated state in contaminated bedding for at least 1 year. C. Outbreaks in mice are usually characterized by low morbidity and high mortality. D. The organism invades intestinal mucosal epithelium and disseminates to other organs, particularly liver and heart, E. Nude mice are as resistant as immunocompetent mice, so resistance is due in part to B-lymphocyte function.
  145. What are the gross and histologic lesions in the liver with Tyzzer's disease?
    Multifocal pale miliary areas up to 5mm in diameter. Multifocal necrosis with PMN infiltration.
  146. What is the diagnostic method for Tyzzer's disease?
    Histology (Look for intracellular bundles of bacilli in tissue sections using Warthin-Starry, Giemsa, or PAS stains).
  147. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly cultured from the intestinal lumen of healthy mice. T or F?
  148. In general, mice with which type of immunodeficiency are more susceptible to P. aeruginosa infection:
    B. Neutropenia; however, most immunosuppressed mice can develop infection with this ubiquitous organism
  149. What is the usual source of opportunistic infections with Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Proteus mirabilis in mice?
    Drinking water
  150. Pseudomonas aeruginosa gains entrance into the body through which two sites?
    Cecum/colon (lower GIT) and the oral cavity (at the gingival/nasal epithelial junction)
  151. What is the etiology of pseudotuberculosis in mice and rats?
    Corynebacterium kutscheri
  152. What are the gross lesions in mice with pseudotuberculosis?
    Enlarged cervical lymph nodes, up to 1 cm grey-white nodules in liver and kidneys. Can also see suppurative arthritis
  153. What 3 sites of the body can C. kutscheri be cultured from in mice?
    Oral cavity; cecum and colon
  154. Corynebacterium bovis can be isolated from both haired and nude mice. T or F?
    True (although appears only transiently in haired mice)
  155. What mice are the most likely source of C. bovis in an outbreak; haired or nude mice?
    Nude mice (see above)
  156. Necrotizing dermatitis of nude mice is most likely due to which of the following pathogens?
    C. bovis causes a generalized hyperkeratotic dermatitis; P. aeruginosa and Streptobacillus moniliformis cause systemic disease
  157. What are the culture characteristics of Staphylococcus aureus?
    Coagulase positive; ?-hemolytic on blood agar
  158. What is the etiology of transmissible murine colonic hyperplasia?
    Citrobacter rodentium
  159. There is no carrier state with the etiology of murine colonic hyperplasia and recovered mice are refractory to reinfection. T or F?
  160. What external gross lesion is often present with murine colonic hyperplasia? What other infectious agent must be ruled out with this lesion?
    Rectal prolapse; Helicobacter infection
  161. Isolation of the causative agent of transmissible murine colonic hyperplasia corresponds to the appearance of clinical disease with this agent in mice. T or F?
    False. C. rodentium is long gone by the time diarrhea is noted in mice.
  162. Citrobacter rodentium is commonly cultured from the intestinal lumen of healthy mice. T or F?
  163. What other bacterial agent must be differentiated from Citrobacter rodentium on MacConkey agar?
    E. coli You can then distinguish between the two by plating on Malonate agar-C. rodentium will turn blue
  164. What is the common species of Leptospira that infects mice
    L. ballum
  165. What is the best method to diagnose leptospiral infection in mice?
    Kidney cultures in serial dilutions
  166. Lesions are absent in mice with leptospirosis. T or F?
  167. A major reason for not cohabitating mice and rats in the same room is Streptobacillus moniliformis. T or F?
  168. What are the lesions in aged mice associated with Klebsiella oxytoca infection?
    Suppurative endometritis, salpingitis, and perio-ophoritis
  169. Name 3 mouse strains susceptible to Helicobacter disease. Name 2 disease resistant strains.
    Susceptible: A, SCID, C3H/He Resistant: B6, B6C3F1
  170. Infection with Helicobacter is thought to cause a polarized immune response. What "type" is this response? What cytokines are typically produced with this response? What factor is thought ultimately responsible for inducing clinical disease?
    Th1 response, which tends to produce IL-12, INF-? and TNF-?. These cytokines result in the increase release of keratinocytes growth factor (KGF) which is thought responsible for mucosal hyperplasia and inflammation in the GIT
  171. In general, which Helicobacter strains produce hepatobiliary disease? Produce bowel disease?
    Hepatic: H. hepaticus and H. bilis GI:H. hepaticus, H. bilis, H. rodentium, and H. typhlonicus
  172. E. coli is commonly cultured from the intestinal lumen of healthy mice. T or F?
  173. How is pathogenic E. coli differentiated from nonpathogenic E. coli in immunocompetent mice?
    Pathogenic strains are non-lactose fermenting
  174. What is the name of the predominant dermatophyte affecting mice?
    Trichophyton mentagrophytes
  175. What is the name of the dermatomycotic lesion characterized by yellowish cuplike crusts on the muzzle, head, ears, face, tail, and extremities?
  176. Candida is commonly cultured from the gastrointestinal lumen of healthy mice. T or F?
  177. Candida is frequently cultured from what organ/tissue of immunocompromised mice?
    Stomach. These mice often have gastric candidiasis with intralesional fungal hyphae
  178. What is suspected to be a possible source for a variety of fungal agents in a mouse colony?
    Contaminated bedding
  179. Of the three most common mite infections of mice, which one is the most clinically significant? Which one is most common?
    Myobia musculi; Myocoptes musculinis (the third mite is Radfordia affinis)
  180. The following are true concerning Myobia infestations in mice:
    Larvae hatch in 7-8 days, and egg-laying adults may evolve as early as 16 days after the eggs are laid. Newborn mice are not susceptible until pelage erupts, and nude mice are resistant to experimental infestation. E.C57BL/6 mice are highly prone to hypersensitivity dermatitis. Eggs are laid on hair shafts. Mites apparently do not feed on blood.
  181. Mixed infections with Myobia and Myocoptes are rare in mouse colonies. T or F?
    False. Mixed infections are probably more common than diagnosed.
  182. In general, which body locations do Myobia and Myocoptes prefer to call home?
    Myobia: head and shoulders, Myocoptes: Inguinal region, ventral abdomen, dorsum
  183. Name two follicle mites of mice. How can you diagnose these infections?
    Demodex musculi; Psorergates simplex. Diagnose Demodex by deep skin scrapings; Psorergates can be identified by peeling back the skin and observed white follicles in the subdermis grossly.
  184. Name a murine louse. Historically, what has this agent been a vector of in mouse colonies?
    Polyplax serrata; vector of Eperythrozoon coccoides
  185. Name two coccidial agents of mice. What organs do they infect?
    Eimeria falciformis (colon), Klossiella muris (kidney)
  186. Name two flagellated protozoal agents of mice. What other rodent species can they be transmitted to? Are they better described as primary or opportunistic pathogens in mice?
    • Giardia muris, Spironucleus muris
    • Can be experimentally transmitted to hamsters; these protozoans are considered secondary or opportunistic pathogens. Are often identified incidentally.
  187. What is the microscopic lung lesion in mice with Pneumocystis carinii?
    Interstitial alveolitis with proteinaceous exudate into the alveolar lumens.
  188. What special stains are used to stain Pneumocystis carinii in tissue sections?
    PAS or GMS
  189. Syphacia obvelata and Aspicularis tetraptera are pinworms found in mice. What are the diagnostic methods of choice respectively?
    Cellophane tape test and fecal flotation.
  190. There are three major tapeworm species in mice. Two are not important in laboratory mice. Which one is important and why?
    Hymenolepis nana, because it can have a direct life cycle. The other two are H. diminuata (larger than H. nana) and H. microstoma (live in the biliary or pancreatic ducts)
  191. Name two strains of mice in which spontaneous amyloidosis is common; name a strain in which it is uncommon.
    Common: A, SJL, B6, CBA, Uncommon: BALB/c or C3H/He, SWR
  192. What special stain is used on histologic tissue section for amyloid?
    Congo red
  193. What are the 3 systemic forms of amyloid?
    Primary and myeloma-associated (amyloid AL); secondary amyloid (due to acute phase response in inflammation); and a prealbumin type amyloid commonly found in endocrine and ovarian tumors, and in Alzheimer's disease.
  194. How does amyloidosis in mice differ from that in hamsters?
    Tends to be a sex-related predisposition in hamsters (males) as opposed to mice.
  195. How does amyloid accumulation in the liver and spleen differ between primary and secondary amyloidosis?
    Liver and spleen tend to be mildly affected in primary amyloidosis; whereas these same organs are usually severely affected if amyloid accumulates due to chronic immune stimulation.
  196. What are common sequela due to amyloid accumulation?
    Glomerular disease and atrial thrombosis
  197. What strain of mouse is most commonly affected with cardiac calcinosis?
    DBA, BALB/c, C3H
  198. Cardiac calcinosis is usually a life limiting disease in mice. T or F?
    False; it is usually an incidental finding
  199. What is the difference between metastatic and dystrophic calcification?
    Metastatic calcification implies an elevation of serum calcium; with dystrophic calcification, serum calcium levels are normal
  200. What are the characteristics of Reye's-like syndrome in mice?
    Encephalopathy and fatty degeneration of viscera.
  201. What are the clinical symptoms in mice suspected of having Reye's like syndrome? Gross lesions?
    Stuperous to comatose and hyperventilating; at necropsy have swollen, greasy, pale liver and swollen kidneys.
  202. Low ambient humidity and low environmental temperature cause ringtail in mice. T or F?
  203. Describe a lesion in mice associated with cotton nesting material. What is a differential diagnosis for this condition?
    Infarction and sloughing of limbs. Ectromelia virus
  204. Which organ in mice manifests lesions with chloroform toxicity?
  205. Metastatic calcification of target tissues secondary to renal failure in mice is a commonly used animal model. T or F?
    False. It does not occur in mice.
  206. Cystic endometrial hyperplasia is a frequent finding in aged female mice. T or F?
  207. Necrotizing arteritis is frequently associated with vestibular disease in mice. T or F?
  208. Alveolar hemorrhage is a common postmortem finding in mice. T or F?
    True (regardless of the cause or method of death)
  209. What strain of mice is susceptible to pulmonary histiocytosis (aka crystal pneumonitis)? What immune deficient strains of mice?
    B6; "moth-eaten" and GM-CFS ko mice (both of which are on a B6 background)
  210. What strains of mice are commonly affected by retinal degeneration? What strains are "resistant"?
    C3H, CBA, Swiss have high incidence; A, AKR, BALB/c, B6 and DBA mice have much lower incidence
  211. What strain of mouse frequently has blood filled mesenteric lymph nodes at necropsy? What disease agent must this be differentiated from?
    C3H mice; salmonellosis
  212. There are several changes found incidentally in mouse livers commonly. Give an example of one of these changes.
    Increase in ploidy; intranuclear cytoplasmic invaginations, eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions.
  213. Name a mouse strain that develops nearly 100% incidence of lymphoma by 1 year of age.
  214. What mouse strain has a high incidence of thymic lymphomas? Of multicentric lymphomas?
    • SCID
    • BALB/c
  215. The occurrence of plasmacytomas is usually associated with what? What else has a similar morphology?
    Injection of mineral oil, pristine, plastics and other foreign material into the abdominal cavity. Transplantable hybridomas
  216. Follicular lymphomas in mice frequently affect what three tissues? What strain of mouse are these tumors common in?
    Mesenteric lymph node, spleen, and Peyer's patches. B6 mice
  217. What is the name for tumors of primitive mononuclear cell origin? What strains of mice are they common in?
    Histiocytic sarcoma; B6 and SJL
  218. Myelogenous leukemia is commonly associated with what infectious agents?
  219. Name a mouse strain with a low incidence of mammary tumors. With a high incidence.
    Low: BALB/c, High: C3H
  220. Most mouse mammary tumors can be broadly described as what type of tumors?
  221. Primary pulmonary tumors are common in aged mice. T or F?
  222. What are the 3 categories of pulmonary tumors in mice?
    Alveolar adenomas, pulmonary adenomas of bronchoalveolar origin, and pulmonary carcinomas
  223. What tumor type should be considered in an aged mouse that presents with unilateral ocular protrusion?
    Harderian gland tumor (adenoma, adenocarcinoma)
  224. Myoepitheliomas are associated with what organs? What strain of mouse is most frequently affected? What "paraneoplastic syndrome" has been associated with these tumors?
    Arise from submaxillary and parotid salivary glands; also mammary, Preputial and Harderian glands. Most often seen in female BALB/c mice. Myeloid hyperplasia of bone marrow and spleen commonly observed.
  225. Which have more susceptibility to viruses in general, mice or rats?