RegReview

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lunchbox
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70888
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RegReview
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2011-03-28 16:53:39
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REVIEW BIG TEST
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Registry
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  1. Which of the following is a radiologic procedure that functions to dilate a stenotic vessel?
    A. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy
    B. Renal arteriography
    C. Surgical nephrostomy
    D. Percutaneous angioplasty
    D. Percutaneous angioplasty
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. The housing surrounding an x-ray tube functions to
    1. retain heat within the glass envelope.
    2. protect from electric shock.
    3. keep leakage radiation to a minimum.

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 2 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. To obtain an exact axial projection of the clavicle, place the patient

    A. in a lordotic position and direct the central ray at right angles to the coronal plane of the clavicle.
    B. supine and angle the central ray 15° cephalad.
    C. supine and angle the central ray 30° caudally.
    D. prone and angle the central ray 30° cephalad.
    A. in a lordotic position and direct the central ray at right angles to the coronal plane of the clavicle.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. What does the number 8 in Figure A identify?

    A. Medial malleolus
    B. Lateral malleolus
    C. Medial cuneiform
    D. Talus
    A. Medial malleolus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. A compensating filter is used to
    A. eliminate much of the scattered radiation.
    B. absorb the harmful photons that contribute only to patient dose.
    C. even out widely differing tissue densities.
    D. improve fluoroscopy.
    C. even out widely differing tissue densities.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Which of the following
    information is necessary to determine the maximum safe kVp, using the
    appropriate x-ray tube rating chart?
    1. mA and exposure time
    2. Focal spot size
    3. Imaging-system speed

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 1 only
    D. 2 and 3 only
    A. 1 and 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. High-kilovoltage exposure factors are usually required for radiographic examinations using
    1. water-soluble, iodinated media.
    2. a negative contrast agent.
    3. barium sulfate.

    A. 3 only
    B. 1 only
    C. 2 only
    D. 1 and 3 only
    A. 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. The first carpometacarpal joint is formed by the articulation of the base of the first metacarpal and the
    A. trapezium.
    B. scaphoid.
    C. distal radius.
    D. distal ulna.
    A. trapezium.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Late or long-term effects of radiation exposure are generally represented by which of the following dose-response curves?
    A. Linear nonthreshold
    B. Linear threshold
    C. Nonlinear nonthreshold
    D. Nonlinear threshold
    A. Linear nonthreshold
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. When comparing the male and female bony pelves, it is noted that the
    1. male pelvis is deeper.
    2. female pubic arch is greater than 90°.
    3. female greater sciatic notch is wider.

    A. 1 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. The roentgen, as a unit of measurement, expresses
    A. dose to biologic material.
    B. exposure in air.
    C. absorbed dose.
    D. dose equivalent.
    B. exposure in air.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. In the 15° medial oblique projection of the ankle, the
    1. tibiofibular joint is visualized.
    2. talotibial joint is visualized.
    3. plantar surface should be vertical.

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 2 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. In myelography, the contrast medium is generally injected into the
    A. cisterna magna.
    B. subarachnoid space between the first and second lumbar vertebrae.
    C. individual intervertebral disks.
    D. subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.
    D. subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. In classifying intravenous (IV) contrast agents, the total number of dissolved particles in solution per kilogram of water defines
    A. miscibility.
    B. viscosity.
    C. osmolality.
    D. toxicity.
    C. osmolality.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Which of the following radiologic examinations can demonstrate ureteral reflux?
    A. Nephrotomogram
    B. Retrograde pyelogram
    C. Voiding cystourethrogram
    D. IV urogram
    C. Voiding cystourethrogram
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. The rate of chemical replenishment in automatic processing is based on
    A. solution agitation.
    B. processor speed.
    C. amount of film processed.
    D. solution temperature.
    C. amount of film processed.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Patient dose increases as fluoroscopic
    A. FSS increases.
    B. FSS decreases.
    C. FOV increases.
    D. FOV decreases.
    D. FOV decreases.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the central ray should be directed
    A. 15° cephalad to C4.
    B. 15° caudad to C4.
    C. perpendicular to C4.
    D. parallel to C4.
    A. 15° cephalad to C4.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. The function of the 5-minute fluoroscopy timer is to
    A. terminate the procedure.
    B. signal completion of the examination.
    C. alert the fluoroscopist that 5 minutes has elapsed.
    D. alert the technologist to reload the camera.
    C. alert the fluoroscopist that 5 minutes has elapsed.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. If the radiographer
    performed a lumbar spine examination on a patient who was supposed to have an elbow examination, which of the following charges may be brought
    against the radiographer?
    A. False imprisonment
    B. Assault
    C. Defamation
    D. Battery
    D. Battery
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Medical and dental radiation accounts for what percentage of the general public's exposure to man-made radiation?
    A. 75%
    B. 50%
    C. 90%
    D. 10%
    C. 90%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. In which of the following positions was the radiograph in Figure A made?

    A. AP with perpendicular plantar surface
    B. 45° lateral oblique
    C. 20° medial oblique
    D. 45° medial oblique
    • D. 45° medial oblique
    • The fact that the distal tibiofibular articulation is visualized is evidence that this is a 45° medial (internal) oblique. A 15° to 20° oblique is performed for the ankle mortise (joint) and would demonstrate some superimposition of the distal tibia and fibula.
  23. Which of the following would be the safest interval of time for a fertile woman to undergo abdominal radiography without significant concern for irradiating a recently fertilized ovum?
    A. About 14 days before menstruation
    B. The 10 days preceding the onset of menstruation
    C. The first 10 days following the cessation of menstruation
    D. The first 10 days following the onset of menstruation
    D. The first 10 days following the onset of menstruation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Protective or "reverse" isolation is required in which of the following conditions?
    1. Tuberculosis
    2. Burns
    3. Leukemia

    A. 2 and 3 only
    B. 1 and 2 only
    C. 1 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    A. 2 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. A lateral radiograph of the cervical spine was made at 40 inches using 100 mA and -second exposure. If it is desired to increase the distance to 72 inches, what
    should be the new mA, all other factors remaining the same?
    A. 200
    B. 400
    C. 100
    D. 300
    D. 300
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. The carpal scaphoid may be demonstrated in the following projection(s) of the wrist:
    1. PA oblique
    2. PA with ulnar flexion/deviation
    3. PA with forearm elevated 20°

    A. 1, 2, and 3
    B. 1 and 2 only
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. 1 only
    A. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Early symptoms of acute radiation syndrome include
    1. leukopenia.
    2. nausea and vomiting.
    3. Cataracts.

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 2 only
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. 2 and 3 only
    A. 1 and 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which of the following is (are) located on the posterior aspect of the femur?
    1. Intercondyloid fossa
    2. Intertrochanteric crest
    3. Intertubercular groove

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1 only
    D. 1 and 3 only
    A. 1 and 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. The operation of personnel radiation monitoring devices depends on which of the following?
    1. Ionization
    2. Luminescence
    3. Thermoluminescence

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. All of the following have an effect on patient dose except
    A. inherent filtration.
    B. added filtration.
    C. SID.
    D. focal spot size.
    D. focal spot size.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. With the patient's head in a PA position and the central ray directed 20° cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?
    A. Rami
    B. Body
    C. Angle
    D. Symphysis
    A. Rami
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. A small bottle containing a single dose of medication is termed
    A. a bolus.
    B. a carafe.
    C. a vial.
    D. an ampule.
    D. an ampule.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the left apophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae?
    A. RPO
    B. PA
    C. LPO
    D. Left lateral
    C. LPO
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. What percentage of x-ray attenuation does a -mm lead equivalent apron at 100 kVp provide?
    A. 94%
    B. 66%
    C. 51%
    D. 75%
    D. 75%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the images seen below?

    1. Image A is positioned in internal rotation.
    2. Image B is positioned in internal rotation.
    3. The greater tubercle is better demonstrated in image A.

    A. 1 and 3 only
    B. 1 only
    C. 2 only
    D. 2 and 3 only
    D. 2 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Which of the following is the correct formula for determining heat units for a three-phase, 12-pulse x-ray machine?
    A. kVp x mA x time
    B. mA x kVp x mAs
    C. mA x time x kVp x 1.41
    D. kVp x mAs x 1.35
    C. mA x time x kVp x 1.41
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Which of the following structures is illustrated by the number 2 in Figure A?

    A. Zygomatic arch
    B. Coronoid process
    C. Coracoid process
    D. Maxillary sinus
    A. Zygomatic arch
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. A minor reaction to the intravenous (IV) administration of a contrast agent can include
    1. a few hives.
    2. nausea.
    3. flushed face.

    A. 1 and 3 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 1 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Which ethical principle is related to the theory that patients have the right to decide what will or will not be done to them?
    A. Fidelity
    B. Autonomy
    C. Veracity
    D. Beneficence
    B. Autonomy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Which of the following formulas would the radiographer use to determine the total number of HU
    produced with a given exposure using three-phase, six-pulse equipment?
    A. mA x time x kVp
    B. mA x time x kVp x 1.35
    C. mA x time x kVp x 3.0
    D. mA x time x kVp x 1.41
    B. mA x time x kVp x 1.35
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?
    A. tangential metatarsals/toes
    B. 30° medial oblique foot
    C. dorsoplantar metatarsals/toes
    D. 30° lateral oblique foot
    A. tangential metatarsals/toes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. A grid is usually employed
    1.when radiographing a large or dense body part.
    2.when using high kilovoltage.
    3.when less patient dose is required.

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 3 only
    C. 1 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    A. 1 and 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. The condition in which pulmonary alveoli lose their elasticity and become permanently inflated, causing the patient to consciously exhale, is
    A. bronchial asthma.
    B. tuberculosis.
    C. emphysema.
    D. bronchitis.
    C. emphysema.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Which of the following examinations might require the use of 120 kVp?
    1. AP abdomen
    2. Chest radiograph
    3. Barium-filled stomach

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 2 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. 1 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Which of the following body parts is (are) included in whole-body dose?
    1. Gonads
    2. Blood-forming organs
    3. Extremities

    A. 1, 2, and 3
    B. 1 and 2 only
    C. 1 only
    D. 1 and 3 only
    B. 1 and 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. The interaction between x-ray photons and tissue that is responsible for radiographic contrast but that also contributes significantly to patient dose is
    A. the photoelectric effect.
    B. coherent scatter.
    C. Compton scatter.
    D. pair production.
    A. the photoelectric effect.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Hemovac or Penrose drains are used for
    A. feeding patients who are unable to swallow food.
    B. tissue drainage of wounds or postoperative drainage.
    C. decompression of the gastrointestinal tract.
    D. bile duct drainage.
    B. tissue drainage of wounds or postoperative drainage.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. As the image intensifier's FOV is reduced, how is the resulting image affected?
    1. Magnification increases
    2. Brightness decreases
    3. Quality increases

    A. 1 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Underexposure of a radiograph can be caused by all of the following except insufficient
    A. mA.
    B. exposure time.
    C. SID.
    D. kVp.
    C. SID.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. The term that refers to parts closer to the source or beginning is
    A. proximal.
    B. cephalad.
    C. caudad.
    D. medial.
    A. proximal.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. To better demonstrate the ribs below the diaphragm,
    1. suspend respiration at the end of full exhalation.
    2. suspend respiration at the end of deep inhalation.
    3. perform the examination in the recumbent position.

    A. 2 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. 1 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. All of the following are related to recorded detail except
    A. motion.
    B. grid ratio.
    C. SID.
    D. film-screen contact.
    B. grid ratio.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. In radiography of a large abdomen, which of the following is (are) effective way(s) to minimize the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR?
    1. Use of close collimation
    2. Use of compression devices
    3. Use of a low-ratio grid

    A. 1, 2, and 3
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 1 only
    D. 1 and 2 only
    D. 1 and 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. The type of shock associated with pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels is classified as
    A. septic.
    B. cardiogenic.
    C. hypovolemic.
    D. neurogenic.
    D. neurogenic.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. A signed consent form is necessary prior to performing all of the following procedures, except
    A. interventional vascular procedure.
    B. myelogram.
    C. upper GI series.
    D. cardiac catheterization.
    C. upper GI series.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. A patient with an upper respiratory tract infection is transported to the radiology department for a chest examination. Who should be masked?
    1. Technologist
    2. Transporter
    3. Patient

    A. 3 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 1 only
    A. 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. The term used to describe expectoration of blood from the bronchi is
    A. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
    B. bronchitis.
    C. hematemesis.
    D. hemoptysis.
    D. hemoptysis.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Which of the following conditions describes a patient who is unable to breathe easily while in the recumbent position?
    A. Apnea
    B. Oligopnea
    C. Orthopnea
    D. Dyspnea
    C. Orthopnea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the carpal scaphoid?
    A. Radial flexion/deviation
    B. Ulnar flexion/deviation
    C. Lateral wrist
    D. Carpal tunnel
    B. Ulnar flexion/deviation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Symptoms of impending diabetic coma include
    1. increased urination.
    2. sweet-smelling breath.
    3. extreme thirst.

    A. 2 and 3 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 1, 2, and 3
    D. 1 and 2 only
    C. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include
    1. the joint closest to the injured site should be supported during movement of the limb
    2. both joints must be included in long bone studies
    3. two views, at 90° to each other, are required

    A. 1, 2, and 3
    B. 1 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. 1 and 2 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. CPR procedure for infants differs from that of adults with respect to
    1. hand placement.
    2. number of compressions.
    3. volume of air delivered.

    A. 1 and 3 only
    B. 1 and 2 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    A. 1 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. The procedure whose basic operation involves reciprocal motion of the x-ray tube and film is
    A. image intensification.
    B. cinefluorography.
    C. spot filming.
    D. tomography.
    D. tomography.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Which of the following will result as tube current increases?
    A. An increase in x-ray photon quality
    B. A decrease in x-ray photon quantity
    C. A decrease in x-ray photon quality
    D. An increase in x-ray photon quantity
    D. An increase in x-ray photon quantity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the
    A. position of the organ.
    B. gastric or bowel mucosa.
    C. size and shape of the organ.
    D. diverticula.
    B. gastric or bowel mucosa.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Ingestion of a gas-producing powder or crystals is usually preliminary to which of the following examinations?
    1. Double-contrast GI
    2. Oral cholecystogram
    3. IV urogram

    A. 2 only
    B. 1 and 2 only
    C. 1 only
    D. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. What is the minimum requirement for lead aprons, according to CFR 20?
    A. 0.50 mm Pb
    B. 0.25 mm Pb
    C. 1.0 mm Pb
    D. 0.05 mm Pb
    B. 0.25 mm Pb
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. The most commonly used method of low-flow oxygen delivery is the
    A. respirator.
    B. oxygen mask.
    C. nasal cannula.
    D. oxyhood.
    C. nasal cannula.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. Recorded detail is directly related to
    1.source-image distance (SID).
    2.tube current.
    3.focal spot size.

    A. 1 only
    B. 1 and 2 only
    C. 1, 2, and 3
    D. 2 and 3 only
    A. 1 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. Increased pain threshold, breakdown of skin, and atrophy of fat pads and sweat glands are all important considerations when working with which group of patients?
    A. Geriatric patients
    B. Infants
    C. Children
    D. Adolescents
    A. Geriatric patients
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Which of the following radiographic procedures requires an intrathecal injection?
    A. Computed tomography (CT)
    B. Lymphangiogram
    C. IV pyelogram
    D. Myelogram
    D. Myelogram
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Focal spot blur is greatest
    A. as the SID is increased.
    B. toward the cathode end of the x-ray beam.
    C. toward the anode end of the x-ray beam.
    D. directly along the course of the central ray.
    B. toward the cathode end of the x-ray beam.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. Which of the following must be included in the patient's medical record or chart?
    1. Diagnostic and therapeutic orders
    2. Medical history
    3. Informed consent

    A. 1 and 3 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 2 and 3 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Which of the following functions to increase the mA?
    A. Increase in charge of anode
    B. Increase in heat of the filament
    C. Increase in kVp
    D. Increase in focal spot size
    B. Increase in heat of the filament
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?
    1. Scapular Y projection
    2. Inferosuperior axial
    3. Transthoracic lateral

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. 1 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. The use of which of the following is (are) essential in magnification radiography?
    1. High-ratio grid
    2. Fractional focal spot
    3. Direct exposure film

    A. 2 only
    B. 1 only
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    A. 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?
    A. Medial oblique
    B. AP
    C. Lateral
    D. Lateral oblique
    A. Medial oblique
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. All of the following may be determined by oral cholecystography except
    A. ability of the gallbladder to concentrate bile.
    B. emptying power of the gallbladder.
    C. pancreatic function.
    D. liver function.
    C. pancreatic function.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. All the following positions may be used to demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations except
    A. LAO.
    B. RAO.
    C. weight bearing.
    D. PA.
    C. weight bearing.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. Which of the following cell types has the greatest radiosensitivity?
    A. Muscle cells
    B. Nerve cells
    C. Spermatids
    D. Lymphocytes
    D. Lymphocytes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the AP projection of the cervical spine?
    1. Intervertebral disk spaces
    2. C3–7 cervical bodies
    3. Apophyseal joints

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    A. 1 and 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. In which of the following ways can higher radiographic contrast be obtained in abdominal radiography?
    1.By using lower kilovoltage
    2.By using a contrast medium
    3.By limiting the field size

    A. 1, 2, and 3
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 1 only
    A. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. Fractional-focus tubes, with a 0.3-mm focal spot or smaller, have special application in
    A. tomography.
    B. magnification radiography.
    C. fluoroscopy.
    D. image intensification.
    B. magnification radiography.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. The photoelectric effect is an interaction between an x-ray photon and
    A. another photon.
    B. a nucleus.
    C. an inner-shell electron.
    D. an outer-shell electron.
    C. an inner-shell electron.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Proper body mechanics includes a wide base of support. The base of support is the portion of the body
    A. passing through the center of gravity.
    B. in the midportion of the pelvis or lower abdomen.
    C. in contact with the floor or other horizontal surface.
    D. none of the above.
    C. in contact with the floor or other horizontal surface.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. What is the effect on RBE as LET increases?
    A. As LET increases, RBE decreases.
    B. LET has no effect on RBE.
    C. As LET increases, RBE stabilizes.
    D. As LET increases, RBE increases.
    D. As LET increases, RBE increases.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. The focal spot-to-table distance, in mobile fluoroscopy, must be
    A. a maximum of 12 inches.
    B. a minimum of 15 inches.
    C. a maximum of 15 inches.
    D. a minimum of 12 inches.
    D. a minimum of 12 inches.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. A parallel-plate ionization
    chamber receives a particular charge as x-ray photons travel through
    it. This is the operating principle of which of the following devices?

    A. Image intensifier
    B. Spot film camera
    C. Cine film camera
    D. Automatic exposure control
    D. Automatic exposure control
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. The Bucky slot cover is in place to protect the
    1. patient.
    2. fluoroscopist.
    3. technologist.

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 1 only
    D. 2 and 3 only
    D. 2 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals could be found guilty of
    A. slander.
    B. defamation.
    C. invasion of privacy.
    D. libel.
    C. invasion of privacy.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. The following procedure can be employed to better demonstrate the carpal scaphoid:
    1. elevate hand and wrist 20°.
    2. place wrist in ulnar deviation.
    3. angle CR 20° distally (toward fingers).
    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 1, 2, and 3
    D. 1 only
    A. 1 and 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. The term spectral matching refers to the fact that film sensitivity must be matched with the
    A. correct kVp level.
    B. proper color screen fluorescence.
    C. correct mA level.
    D. proper developer concentration.
    B. proper color screen fluorescence.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. The ileocecal valve is normally located in which of the following body regions?
    A. Left iliac
    B. Right iliac
    C. Right lumbar
    D. Hypogastric
    B. Right iliac
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. Occupational exposure received by the radiographer is mostly from
    A. Compton scatter.
    B. pair production.
    C. coherent scatter.
    D. the photoelectric effect.
    A. Compton scatter.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. The AP Trendelenburg position is often used during an upper GI examination to demonstrate
    A. hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.
    B. the duodenal loop.
    C. filling of the duodenal bulb.
    D. hiatal hernia.
    D. hiatal hernia.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. A radiolucent contrast agent
    1.absorbs a high number of x-ray photons.
    2.causes anatomy to appear dark on the radiograph.
    3.is composed of elements with low atomic numbers.

    A. 1 and 3 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    B. 2 and 3 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. Which of the following developing agents has the biggest impact on the shoulder of the characteristic curve?
    A. Glutaraldehyde
    B. Phenidone
    C. Hydroquinone
    D. Sodium thiosulfate
    C. Hydroquinone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. Which of the following is likely to improve image quality and decrease patient dose?
    1. Beam restriction
    2. Low kV and high mAs factors
    3. Grids

    A. 2 and 3 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 1 only
    D. 1 and 3 only
    C. 1 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. The primary center of ossification in long bones is the
    A. epiphysis.
    B. diaphysis.
    C. metaphysis.
    D. apophysis.
    B. diaphysis.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. If 0.05 second was selected for a particular exposure, what mA would be necessary to produce 30 mAs?
    A. 600
    B. 300
    C. 500
    D. 900
    A. 600
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. SID affects recorded detail in which of the following ways?
    A. As SID increases, recorded detail decreases.
    B. SID is not a detail factor.
    C. Recorded detail is inversely related to SID.
    D. Recorded detail is directly related to SID.
    D. Recorded detail is directly related to SID.

    As the distance from focal spot to IR (SID) increases, so does recorded detail.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. A device used to ensure reproducible radiographs, regardless of tissue density variations, is the
    A. penetrometer.
    B. grid.
    C. rare earth screen.
    D. phototimer.
    D. phototimer.

    AEC devices (phototimers and ionization chambers) automatically terminate the x-ray exposure once a predetermined quantity of x-rays has penetrated the patient, thus ensuring consistent results.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. How is the mAs adjusted in an AEC system as the film–screen speed combination is decreased?
    A. The mAs decreases as film–screen speed decreases.
    B. Both the mAs and the kVp increase as film–screen speed decreases.
    C. The mAs remains unchanged as film–screen speed decreases.
    D. The mAs increases as film–screen speed decreases.
    C. The mAs remains unchanged as film–screen speed decreases.

    If a slower-speed screen cassette–image receptor is placed in the Bucky tray, the AEC has no way of recognizing it as different and will time the exposure for the system that it is programmed for.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. Cassette front material can be made of which of the following?
    1. Carbon fiber
    2. Magnesium
    3. Lead

    A. 1 and 3 only
    B. 1 and 2 only
    C. 1 only
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    B. 1 and 2 only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the
    A. epiphysis.
    B. diaphysis.
    C. endosteum.
    D. periosteum.
    A. epiphysis

    The secondary ossification center, the epiphysis, is separated from the diaphysis in early life by a layer of cartilage, the epiphyseal plate. As bone growth takes place, the epiphysis becomes part of the larger portion of bone and the epiphyseal plate disappears
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. The biologic effect on an individual is dependent on which of the following?
    1. Type of tissue interaction(s)
    2. Amount of interactions
    3. Biologic differences

    A. 2 and 3 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 1, 2, and 3
    D. 1 and 2 only
    C. 1, 2, and 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. The patient positioned for a T-tube cholangiography is in a
    A. 15° to 20° RPO.
    B. 45° LPO.
    C. 15° to 20° LPO.
    D. 45° RPO.
    A. 15° to 20° RPO.

    A slight oblique (15° to 20°) will allow visualization of the biliary tract free of superimposition from the vertebrae. The LPO would place the biliary vessels over the spine.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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