MICROBIOLOGY LAB

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nickiabbott@hotmail.com
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71052
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MICROBIOLOGY LAB
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2011-03-06 15:07:58
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MICRO LAB FINAL
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LAB FINAL
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  1. What kind of stain is a gram stain?
    differential
  2. Gram staining was discovered by who:
    Hans Christian Gram in 1884
  3. Gram staining is used for the identification and classification of what?
    bacteria
  4. Gram negative bacteria will appear what color:
    red or pink
  5. Gram positive bacteria will appear what color?
    purple
  6. In the first step of gram staining, what dye is used and how long should it remain on the slide before washing?
    Crystal-violet; 30 seonds
  7. In the second step of gram staining, what is the mordant used and how long should itremain on the slide before washing?
    Gram's iodine; 10 seconds
  8. In the third step of gram staining, what is the decolorizing agent used and how long should it remain on the slide before washing?
    ethyl alcohol; 1-2 seconds
  9. In the final step of gram staining, what is the counter-stain used and how long should it remain on the slide before washing?
    Safranin; 30 seconds
  10. What are the three bacteria used in this lab?
    • Staphylococcus epidermidis
    • Escherichia coli
    • Bacillus subtilis
  11. In the first step of gram staining, what color will a gram positive bacteria appear?
    Purple
  12. In the first step of gra staining, what color will a gram negative bacteria appear?
    purple
  13. In the second step of gram staining, what color will a gram negative bacteria appear?
    purple
  14. In the second step of gram staining, what color will a gram positive bacteria appear?
    purple
  15. In the third step of gram staining, what color will a gram negative bacteria appear?
    clear
  16. In the third step of gram staining, what color will a gram positive bacteria appear?
    purple
  17. In the fourth step of gram staining, what color will a gram negative bacteria appear?
    pink
  18. In the fourth step of gram staining, what color will a gram positive bacteria appear?
    purple
  19. What is a pure culture?
    A culture containing only one kind of microbe.
  20. What is contamination?
    The presence of unwanted microorganisms.
  21. On an isolation plate, bacteria grows:
    into a visible colony that consists of one kind of bcterium.
  22. What is streak plate method?
    In which a loop is used to streak along the surface of several sections of solid agar, dragging from the first into the second and from the second into the third and from the third into the fourth.
  23. What were the agars used in Lab # 11: Isolation of Bacteria by Dilution Techniques?
    • 2 Petri plates with nutrient agar
    • 3 Test tubes with melted nutrient agar
    • 1 Nutrient agar slant
  24. What were the cultures used in Lab # 11: Isolation of Bacteria by Dilution Techniques?
    • Mixed broth
    • Turbid nutrient broth
  25. What is reduction?
    A gain of electrons or hydrogen atoms
  26. What acts as an electron acceptor in fermentative metabolism?
    organic molecules
  27. What act as electron acceptors in oxidative metabolism or respiration?
    Inorganic molecules
  28. What is the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration?
    molecular oxygen
  29. In aerobic bacteria, what carries electrons to oxygen?
    cytochromes
  30. What is used to determine the presence of cytochrome c and is useful in identifying bacteria?
    the oxidase test
  31. What agar was used in Lab # 13: Respiration?
    TSA (trypticase soy agar)
  32. What bacteria were used in Lab # 13: Respiration?
    • Strep
    • Staph
    • Bacillus
  33. What was the reaction of Strep in Lab # 13: Respiration?
    No change - negative catalase test
  34. What was the reaction of Staphin Lab # 13: Respiration?
    Bubbles - positive catalase test
  35. What was the reaction of Bacillus in Lab # 13: Respiration?
    Bubbles - positive catalase test
  36. In Lab # 14, what was the device used for the Rapid Identification test?
    Enterotube II
  37. What is the purpose of the Rapid Identification tests?
    to provide a large number of results from one inoculation
  38. How many compartments are in an Enterotube?
    12, each with a different substrate in agar
  39. All coliforms feed on what?
    glucose
  40. What are the four unknown bacteria used for Lab # 14?
    • Citrobacter freundii
    • Enterobacter aerogenes
    • Serratia marcescens
    • Proteus vulgaris
  41. What are coliforms?
    bacteria that grow in the intestines or colon
  42. What agents are used for the control of the growth of microbes?
    antimicrobial agents
  43. What are disinfectants?
    chemical agents used on inanimate objects to lower the level of microbes on their surface
  44. What are antiseptics?
    chemical agents used on living tissue to decrease the number of microbes
  45. What does bactericidal mean?
    results in death of bacteria
  46. What does bacteriostatic mean?
    temporarily inhibits the growth of bacteria
  47. What are the agars used for Lab # 17: Chemical Methods of Control?
    Petri plates with nutrient agar
  48. What is the bacteria used for Lab # 17: Chemical Methods of Control?
    Staphylococcus aureus
  49. The observation that some microbes inhibit others was first made in what year and by whom? (they observed that infecting an animal with Pseudomonas aeruginosa protected the animal from Bacillus anthracis)
    1874 by Pasteur and other scientists
  50. Antibiosis means:
    against life for its inhibition properties
  51. In 1928, Alexander Fleming observed what?
    antibiosis around a mold (Penicillium) growth on a culture of Staphylococci. He found that culture filtrates of Penicillium inhibited the growth of many gram positive cocci and Neisseria spp
  52. What are chemotherapeutic agents?
    antimicrobial cemicals absorbed or used internally, whether natural (antibiotics) or synthetic
  53. What us a pathogen?
    a disease causing organism
  54. What is MIC?
    the concentration of chemotherapeutic agent at the edge of the zone of inhibition and is determined by comparing the zone of inhibition with the MIC values on a standard table. The zone size is affected by such factors as the diffusion rate of the chemo. agent and the growth rate of the organism
  55. What test is used for Lab # 18: Chemical Methods of Control?
    Kirby-Bauer
  56. What agar is used with the Kirby-Bauer test?
    Mueller-Hinton agar because it allows the chemotherapeutic agent to diffuse freely
  57. What bacteria were used in Lab # 18?
    • Staphylococcus aureus (gram +)
    • Escherichia coli (gram -)
    • Pseudomonas aeruginosa (gram -)
  58. What are the five chemotherapeutic agents used in Lab # 18?
    • CIP5 - Ciprofloxacin (worked in all)
    • S10 - Streptomycin
    • TE30 - Tetracycline (ok on all)
    • VA30 - Vancomycin
    • P10 - Penicillin G (for growth on STap and other bacteria)
  59. To convert cm to mm, what do you need to do?
    multiply by 10
  60. Who noted that the lack of aseptic technique was directly related to the incidence of puerperal fever and other diseases?
    Ignas Semmelweis @ Vienna General Hospital in 1846 (the medical students wouldgo directly from autopsy of infected patients to delivering babies without washing their hands)
  61. According to the CDC (Center for Disease Control), what is the single most important procedure for preventing nosocomial infections?
    handwashing
  62. Surgical scrubbing removes what?
    transient microbiota and some resident microbiota
  63. In Lab # 19, what type of organisms where observed?
    only those capable of growing aerobically on nutrient agar
  64. In the Dental Caries Lab, what amount of saliva was needed for the Snyder test?
    0.25ml
  65. What are some of the ways to prevent Caries?
    • healthy diet
    • no tobacco use
    • regular dental visits
    • good oral hyggiene
    • cut out sweets
  66. What is the upper respiratory system?
    nose and throat
  67. What is the lower respiratory system?
    • larynx
    • trachea
    • bronchial tubes
    • alveoli
  68. Unlike the upper respiratory system, the lower respiratory system is usually sterile because of what feature?
    ciliary escalator
  69. What are the four normal microbiota usually found in the throat?
    Staphylococcus, Streptococcus (dominant organisms in throat cultures), Neisseria, and Haemophilus
  70. What agar was used for Lab # 22: Bacteria of the Respiratory Tract?
    BAP
  71. What are the chemotherapeutic agents used in Lab # 22?
    Bacitracin and Optochin
  72. What is the name for the area swabbed for Lab # 22?
    glossopalatine arches or Golden Arches
  73. What system is the antigenic characteristics of Strep identified by?
    Lancefield's
  74. Why is blood agar made with defibrinated sheep blood (5.0%), sodium chloride (0.5%), and nutrient agar?
    The sodium chloride minimizes spontaneous hemolysis
  75. What are the tree patterns of hemolysis?
    Alpha, Beta, and Gamma
  76. What is Alpha hemolysis?
    incomplete hemolysis, producing methemoglobinm and a green, cloudy zone around te colony (normal microbiota)
  77. What is Beta hemolysis?
    complete hemolysis, givig a clear zone with a clean edge around the colony (BAD PATHOGEN)
  78. What is Gamma hemolysis?
    no hemolysis, no change, normal microbiota
  79. 90% of streptococcal infections are caused by?
    Beta-hemolytic group A streptococci
  80. S. pyogenes is sensitive to what antibiotic?
    Bacitracin
  81. S. pneumoniae is sensitive to what antibiotic?
    Optichin
  82. The presence of bacteria in urine is not considered an indication of UTI unless?
    there are 1000 bacteria of one species or 100 coliforms per milliliter of urine
  83. True or Flase: Urine is normally sterile?
    True
  84. What is cystitis?
    inflammation of the urinary bladder
  85. What is pyelonephritis?
    inflammation of the kidney
  86. Cystitis and pyelonephritis are caused by?
    opportunistic pathogens and usually related to fecal contamination of the urethra and/or medical procedures
  87. Pseudomonas is what type of bacteria?
    gram negative aerobic rod
  88. P. aeruginosa infections are characterized by:
    blue-green pus and it produces an extracellular, water-soluble pigment called pyocyanin (blue pus) that diffuses into its growth medium
  89. What is the most commonly reported communicable disease in the US?
    gonorrhea (an STD caused by the gram negative diplococci Neisseria gonorrheae)
  90. What agar was used in Lab #24: Bacteria of the Urogenital Tract?
    • BAP
    • MacConkey (shows coliforms)
  91. What was the calibration fo the loop used to transfer the urine to the plates?
    10 microliters
  92. What type of catch was used?
    midstream
  93. What does light pink growth on the MacConkey agar mean?
    the presence of coliforms

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