MicroLectureFinal.txt

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nickiabbott@hotmail.com
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MicroLectureFinal.txt
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2011-03-09 07:29:16
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Microbiology
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Final Lacture Exam
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  1. Ringworm is:
    A fungal infection caused by dermatophytes
  2. Tinea pedis:
    can cause itching and cracking between the toes and is commonly known as Athlete's Foot
  3. If a patient were complaining of itching of the scalp, pus-filled lesions on the scalp, and bald patches, you could conclude that the patient has:
    Tinea capitis
  4. How can ringworm be prevented?
    keep the skin clean and dry; good hygiene, such as regular hand washing; avoid sharing towels, hats, clothinng, and other personal items with infected individuals
  5. Microscopic organisms that live off the dead tissues of your skin, hair, and nails are:
    dermatophytes
  6. Hantavirus belongs to which family?
    Bunyaviridae
  7. Hantavirus contains which type of genetic material?
    three segments of RNA
  8. Hantavirus is spread via:
    rodent saliva, urine, and feces
  9. Hantavirus Pulmonary Disease has which diagnostic symptom?
    difficulty breathing
  10. Hantavirus Pulmonary Disease has roughly what mortality rate?
    one third (1/3)
  11. How many children will be infected with RSV by the age of 2?
    almost all children will be infected by age 2
  12. RSV is:
    the number one cause of hospitalization in children under 1 year of age
  13. RSV is transmitted by which of the following?
    direct and indirect contact and droplet
  14. The most common symptoms of RSV are:
    fever, runny nose, cough, and decreased appetite
  15. The best prevention method for RSV is:
    frequent hand washing
  16. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) is:
    a non-motile rod-shaped bacterium; an obligate aerobe; an acid-fast bacteria; and a faculatative intracellular parasite
  17. The signs and symptoms of Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) are all of the above except:
    bloody diarrhea
  18. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) spreads when a person with the untreated disease?
    speaks, coughs, and sneezes
  19. People who have a higher risk of getting Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) are?
    healthcare workers in close contact with an active TB patient
  20. Whooping cough was named by:
    Thomas Sydenham
  21. Whooping cough is caused by:
    Bordetella pertussis
  22. The scientists who developed the first vaccine against Whooping cough are:
    Jules Bordet and Octacve Gengou
  23. Bordetella pertussis, the bacterium that causes Whooping cough is:
    gram negative
  24. All of the following statements are true, except:
    Pertussis is an epidemic disease in the US (it is endemic)
  25. What is the causative agent of the STD, Trichomoniasis?
    Trichomonas vaginalis
  26. Men frequently develop which of the following symptoms?
    none
  27. Trichomoniasis is transmitted by which of the following?
    direct or indirect contact
  28. What is the best method of prevention for Trichomoniasis?
    Abstinence
  29. Women most commonly mistake Trichomoniasis for a ___.
    yeast infection
  30. The rubella virus is?
    one serotype and has an envelop and the rubella virus is non-segmented
  31. What are the symptoms of rubella?
    red or pink rash; runny nose; headaches; and joint pain
  32. What is the blood test that is done to determine if you have rubella or if you have had the vaccine?
    the number of AB to determine if you have rubella now or in the past or if you have had the vaccine
  33. What are the problems that are caused by CRS (Congenital Rubella Syndrome)?
    hearing and vision loss; neurological problems; and congenital heart defects
  34. What is true about the rubella virus?
    it is more common in the spring months in the northern hemisphere
  35. What childhood virus puts you at risk for shingles?
    chickenpox
  36. The shingles vaccine, Zostavax, is for people:
    over the age of 60
  37. A person with shingles:
    can give another person chickenpox and is highly contagious
  38. Postherpetic Neuralgia (PHN) occurs in what percentage of people over the age of 60?
    50%
  39. The causative agent of shingles is:
    chickenpox and Varicella-Zoster virus
  40. Clostridium difficile is:
    an anaerobic bacillus
  41. The main symptom of Clostridium difficile is:
    watery diarrhea
  42. Clostridium difficile is diagnosed by:
    a stool culture
  43. After being diagnosed with a mild case of Clostridium difficile, doctors will begin treatment with:
    Metronidazole (Flagyl)
  44. To prevent the spread of Clostridium difficile after caring for an infected patient, you should:
    wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water after disposing of your protective gloves and gown
  45. MRSA stabds for___?
    Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus
  46. MRSA is spread by:
    contact
  47. What is the single most important measure for preventing the spread of MRSA?
    hand washing
  48. How is MRSA most commonly diagnosed?
    culture
  49. Which of these is a common symptom of an MRSA infection?
    a red, swollen pimpl or boil
  50. What does HA-MRSA stand for?
    Hospital Acquired - Methicillin S. aureus; Hospital Acquired - Multidrug resistant S. aureus; Healthcare associated Methicillin S. aureus; and Healthcare associated Multidrug resistant S. aureus
  51. When was HA-MRSA first discovered?
    1961
  52. Where can you contract HA-MRSA?
    healthcare facility
  53. HA-MRSA can be transmitted by direct contact. Which one of these would be direct contact?
    intravenous catheter
  54. Which test can be used to diagnose HA-MRSA?
    Nucleic Acid Amplification Test
  55. Pinworms that affect humans only are:
    Enterobius Vermicularis
  56. How are pinworms transmitted?
    direct contact; exposure to eggs; and contamination of bedding, clothes, etc.
  57. Pinworms are most common in whom?
    children
  58. The most common symptoms of pinworms are:
    Pruritus ani
  59. What does retroinfection mean?
    larvae hatch and migrate back inside the anus
  60. What is the number one line of defense to avoid getting tapeworm?
    thoroughly cook meats and freshwater fish
  61. The anatomy of a tapeworm consists of all parts except:
    brain (worm has a head - scolex, body system, and proglottids)
  62. The head of the tapeworm may be called:
    scolex
  63. Where do most tapeworms live in the human body?
    intestinal tract
  64. How do tapeworms exit the human body?
    in feces
  65. The term "peridontal" means:
    around the tooth
  66. What is the primary cause of peridontal disease?
    plaque
  67. What microbe is known to be the main culprit for peridontal disease?
    Porphyromonas gingivalis
  68. Which of the following diseases is possibloy linked with peridontal disease?
    cardiovascular disease
  69. Who said, "A person can't have good general health without good oral health"?
    Former US Surgeon General C. Everett Koop
  70. E. coli 0157:H7 is:
    gram negative bacillus
  71. Common symptoms of E. coli:
    usually begin 3-4 days after exposure; usually subside in a week in adults; can include nausea and vomiting; and can include watery or bloody diarrhea
  72. E. coli is normally tested with:
    laboratory testing of stool sample
  73. Risk factors for E. coli include:
    weakened immune system and eating undercooked hamburger
  74. How is E. coli transmitted?
    person to person; contaminated water source; fresh produce, and at petting zoos
  75. Baby, baby, baby! To the dismay of 13 yr old girls across the world, Justin Bieber is suddenly infected with Ebola! What are his symptoms?
    Fever, diarrhea, vomiting, and possible internal and external bleeding
  76. The Rock is starring in a blockbuster action movie where he plays a former Marine-turned doctor who is hired by WHO to lead a group of fierce, yet compassionate, mercinaries in a search to find the natural reservoir for the most deadly strain of Ebole. Which strain is he searching for?
    Ebole Zaire
  77. Our favorite lab teacher, Mrs. Whitmire, is from the Philippines. Which strain of Ebole is she most likely to have?
    Ebola Reston
  78. The Ebola virus is also commonly known as EHF. What does EHF stand for?
    Ebola Hemorrhagic fever
  79. On his recent crazed hiatus from "Two-AND-A-HALF-MEN," Charlie Sheen travels to Africa for some R&R. While there, he contracts Ebola. Which of the following is why?
    he comes in direct contact with infected animals; he received it as a nosocomial infection; he received it via person to person contact
  80. Dental Caries is caused by:
    gram positive Streptococcus mutans
  81. What structure of the S. mutans allows it to attach to the tooth surface?
    glycocalyx
  82. What are the 3 factors that contribute to the formation of dental caries?
    Streptococcus mutans, dextran, and Actinomycetes
  83. Which of the following is not considered part of the restoritive treatment for dental caries?
    implant
  84. Which of the following statements is true about dental caries?
    it is an epidemic disease, an endemic disease, can become a systemic infection, and can cause death
  85. What is the causative agent for CJD?
    prion
  86. What is the cure for CJD?
    none
  87. How many cases of CJD are there worldwide each year?
    1/1,000,000
  88. What is the main CJD type?
    sporadic
  89. Who is most at risk to contract CJD?
    healthcare workers in contact with a CJD patient
  90. The bacteria responsible for Tetanus is:
    Clostridium tetani
  91. What is the exotoxin that is responsible for the symptoms of Tetanus?
    tetanopasmin
  92. Which type of Tetanus involves infants?
    neonatal
  93. Clostridium tetani is:
    rod-shpaed anaerobic endospore-forming gram positive bacteria
  94. All of the following are examples of treatment for Tetanus except:
    ritual dancing (antibiotics, immunoglobulin, antitoxin, and bed rest are treatment options)
  95. How often do you need a booster for Tetanus?
    every ten years
  96. What type of "bug" is Pneumococcal Meningitis:
    bacterial
  97. Whay is the causative agent of Pneumococcal Meningitis?
    Streptococcus pneumoniae
  98. Pneumococcal Meningitis causes swelling and inflammation where?
    spinal cord & brain
  99. What is a sign or symptom of meningitis?
    altered mental status, photophobia, and nausea
  100. How many vaccinations, if any, work for Pneumoncoccal Meningitis?
    Two
  101. Scarlet Fever is caused by what?
    bacteria and droplet transmission
  102. Who is the most likely to contract Scarlet Fever?
    African-American Child & Caucasian Child
  103. Streptococcus pyogenes is:
    a gram positive bacteria
  104. Just given the bacteria name, Streptococcus pyogenes, what can you say about the morphology?
    round chains
  105. What is Scarlet Fever?
    an acute childhood disease
  106. In March - April of 2009, over _____ cases of Swine Flu were detected in Mexico?
    1,000
  107. What is not a symptom of Swine Flu?
    Pink eye
  108. Swine flu spreads from person to person through coughing or sneezing. What best describes this?
    droplet transmission
  109. What are the goldeb arches?
    the area in the back of the throat where nurse gather samples to do rapid flu test (also called glossopalatine arches)
  110. Can you get Swine Flu from eating pork?
    NO
  111. The symptoms of Avian Influenza (H5N1) include all of the following except:
    Hiccups (it includes fever, muscle aches, sore throat, and cough)
  112. Avain Flu can be diagnosed through:
    samples from the nose or throat
  113. Avian Flu can be transmitted to humans by:
    contact with infected birds and contact with surfaces contaminated by the droppings of infected birds
  114. The first documanted human case of Avian Flu occurred in:
    Hong Kong
  115. How soon should treatment be administered after the appearance of symptoms of Avian Flu?
    within 2 days
  116. Rheumatic Fever is caused by:
    asn untreated group A Streptococcal infection
  117. Who discovered the link between group A Streptococcus and Rheumatic Fever?
    Rebecca Lancefield
  118. A proper diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever:
    uses a throat culture for Streptococcus pyogenes
  119. The incidence of Rheumatic Fever is affected by:
    overcrowded living spaces
  120. The use of antibiotic prophylaxis has been revised to regard the following:
    it is only necessary for those who are at a very high risk of infection because of heart damage

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