Electrical Systems

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Author:
tonytee
ID:
72097
Filename:
Electrical Systems
Updated:
2012-11-14 16:47:32
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Technical Core Fundamentals Electricity
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Description:
Electrical Systems 1. Electricity Fundamentals 2. Electrical Distribution Systems for Normal Power 3. Emergency Power Supply Systems 4. Protective Devices 5. Electrical Grounding 6. Electric Motors 7. Basics of Lighting
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  1. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals


    1. Which of the following is not part of an atom?

    a. Electron

    b. Proton

    c. Neutron

    d. Coulomb
    d. Coulomb
  2. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals

    2. The innermost shell of an atom is known as the valence shell
    .


    True or False
    False
  3. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals

    3. Which statement best describes electrostatic force?


    a. A quantity of moving electrons

    b. The tendency for charged particles to repel or attract

    c. Displacement of electrons caused by friction

    d. None of the above
    b. The tendency for charged particles to repel or attract
  4. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals

    4. Which statement best describes electricity as defined in this course?


    a. A type of energy that results from the flow of electrons inside an electron cloud

    b. A type of energy that results from the flow of protons from the nucleus to the valence shell

    c. The movement of an electon cloud from a positively charged pole to a negatively charged pole

    d. The changing of electrical energy into mechanical energy
    a. A type of enerty that results from the flow of electrons inside an electron cloud
  5. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals

    5. Potential difference must exist for electrons to produce electrical current.


    True or False
    True
  6. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals

    6. Which of the following can be used to produce electricity?


    a. Friction

    b. Pressure

    c. Light

    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  7. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals

    7. Most electricity provided by utility companies is produced by magnetism.


    True or False
    True
  8. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals

    8. What is the difference between direct current and alternating current electricity?


    a. Direction of current flow

    b. Voltages

    c. The way they are produced

    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  9. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals


    9. Which type of energy do batteries produce?


    a. Static electricity

    b. Piezoelectricity

    c. Direct current electricity

    d. Alternating current electricity





    c. Direct current electricity





























  10. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals

    10. Generally, DC electricity is produced at much higher voltages than AC electricity.

    True or False
    b. False
  11. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals

    11. Often represented by the letter I ________ is a measure of electrons passing a point in a conductor.


    a. Resistance

    b. Voltage

    c. Current

    d. None of the above
    c. Current
  12. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals

    12. Measured in ohms, ________ is a measure of how well a material prevents the flow of electrons.


    a. Temperature

    b. Voltage

    c. Current

    d. None of the above
    d. None of the above
  13. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals


    13. What is the umit of measurement for electrical resistance?

    a. Coulomb

    b. Ohm

    c. Amperage

    d. Volt
    b. Ohm
  14. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals


    13. What is the umit of measurement for electrical resistance?

    a. Coulomb

    b. Ohm

    c. Amperage

    d. Volt
    False
  15. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals

    15. The sum of the potential differences of all charged particles in an electrostatic field is referred to as _________.

    a. Electromotive force

    b. Electrostatic force

    c. Friction

    d. None of the above






    a. Electromotive force
  16. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals

    16. The force of free electons is ________.


    a. Current

    b. Resistance

    c. Voltage

    d. Coulomb
    c. Voltage
  17. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals

    17. Which formula represents Ohm's law?


    a. Voltage=current x resistance

    b. E = I x R

    c. Volts = amps x ohms

    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  18. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals

    18. A(n)________ contains three or fewer electrons in its valence shell.


    a. Conductor

    b. Insulator

    c. Semiconductor

    d. Resistor
    a. Conductor
  19. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals

    19. A(n)________ contains three or fewer electrons in its valence shell.


    a. Conductor

    b. Insulator

    c. Semiconductor

    d. Resistor
    d. All of the above
  20. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals

    20. Materials with four electronics in the valence shells are ________.

    a. Used primarily in electonic devices

    b. Resistors

    c. Semiconductors

    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  21. Module 1: Electricity Fundamentals

    21. Silicon is a semiconductor.


    True or False
    True
  22. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    1. Which type of feed arrangement offers the least amount of resiliency?

    a. Loop

    b. Network

    c. Radial

    d. They offer the same amount of resiliency


    c. Radial
  23. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    2. Which type of feed arrangement is most likely to supply a property in an urban central business district?

    a. Loop

    b. Network

    c. Radial

    d. None of the above


    b. Network
  24. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    3. The location of the connection between the facilities of the utility provider and the building's wiring is referred to as the _______.


    a. Loop feeder

    b. Network arrangement

    c. Service entrance

    d. None of the above

    c. Service entrance
  25. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    4. The most common type of electrical service distributed throughout commercial office buildings is 480-volt, 60-hertz power.

    True or False

    True
  26. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    5. Switchgear is not present at every property, particularly those properties that receive electricity below 600 volts.

    True or False
    True
  27. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    6. Draw-out circuit breakers are typically found in________.

    a. Switchgear

    b. Switchboards

    c. Distribution panelboards

    d. None of the above
    a. Switchgear
  28. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    7. Which instrument measures power consumption at the switchgear?

    a. Voltmeter

    b. Ammeter

    c. Watt-hour meter

    d. Demand meter
    c. Watt-hour meter
  29. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    8. A Step-down transformer ________.

    a. Reduces the voltage of the electricity that supplies the building

    b. Reduces the voltage of the electricity that supplies equipment not rated for 480-volt electrical service

    c. Decreases the voltage by a factor equal to the ratio of the number of qraps in each coil

    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  30. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    9. Bothe delta and wye power systems distribute three-phase electical current.

    True or False
    True
  31. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    10. A delta transformer has three sets of coils radiating outward from a central neutral point.

    True or False
    False
  32. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    11. If a ground fault occurs on one phase, a delta transformer will continue to transfer electrical current.

    True or False
    True
  33. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    12. A phase-to-phase connection on a wye transformer typically produces 240 VAC or 480 VAC.

    True or False
    True
  34. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    13. A phase-to-neutral connection on a delta transformer typically producess 277 VAC.

    True or False
    False
  35. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    14. Wye transformers are typically found in modern office buildings and delta transformers are typically found in manufacturing plants and some older office buildings.

    True or False
    True
  36. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    15. The tendency of metal to expand when it heats up and contract when it cools down is known as ________.

    a. Meggering

    b. overcurrent

    c. Thermal loading

    d. Infrared loading
    c. Thermal loading
  37. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    16. Vertical busway is referred to as the ______.


    a. Under-floor raceway

    b. Main vertical wireway

    c. Conduit riser

    d. Bus riser
    d. Bus riser
  38. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    17. Tap boxes for three-phase systems can supple enough power for a large switchboard.

    True or False
    True
  39. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    18. Cabling is typically housed in _______.

    a. Busway

    b. Conduit

    c. Tap boxes

    d. All of the above
    b. Conduit
  40. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    19. If the switchboard is used as service entrance equipment, there must be a way to _______.

    a. Disconnect the service intrance con

    b. Ground the neutral service conductor at the service entrance

    c. Isolate the neutral service throughout the rest of the system

    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  41. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    20. Panelboards can be used as servfice entrance equipment if thery________.

    a. Are rated for that use

    b. Have main disconnection means

    c. have a grounded neutral service conductor
    d. All of the above
  42. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    21. A panelboard is accessible from both the front and the back.

    True or False
    False
  43. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    22. Moving a panelboard breaker with a higher load current to a phase that has lower load courrent helps to balance the loads.

    True or False
    True
  44. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    23. The probability a system is operational when needed is referred to as ________.

    a. Availability

    b. Reliability

    c. Resilience

    d. Redundancy
    a. Availability
  45. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    24. The longer the amount of time between power system failures, the greater the system's _______.

    a. Availability

    b. Diversity

    c. Redundancy

    d. Reliability
    d. Reliability
  46. Module 2: Electical Distribution Systems for Normal Power

    25. Which maintenance activity tests the integrity of the insulation of critical electrical components?

    a. Periodic trip test

    b. Infrared inspection

    c. Meggering

    d. Harmonics evaluation
    c. Meggering
  47. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    1. The ________ defines the minimum time in hours for which the emergency power supply system is designed to operate at its rated load without being refueled or recharged.

    a. Class

    b. Type

    c. Level

    d. None of the above
    a. Class
  48. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    2. The _______defines the maximum time in seconds the emergency power supply system has to transition from the failed normal power source to alternate power.

    a. Class

    b. Type

    c. Level

    d. None of the above
    b. Type
  49. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    3. If the normal power fails,_______automatically supplies power to designated areas and equipment essential to the operation of life safety systems.

    a. Emergency power

    b. Legally required standby power

    c. Optional standby power

    d. None of the above
    a. Emergency power
  50. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    4. Which load is most likely to require emergency power?

    a. Sump pumps

    b. Data processing systems

    c. Uninterruptable power supply?

    d. Fire detection and alarm systems
    d. fire detection and alarm systems
  51. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    5. Elevators only require emergency power in buildings over a certain number of stories.

    True or False
    True
  52. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    6. Emergency power provides temporary power to tenant loads during a temporary loss of normal power.

    True or False
    False
  53. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    7. Legally required standby power systems are required to supply electrical service within 60 seconds of loss of normal power.

    True or False
    True
  54. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    8. Loads that could hamper rescue or firefighting operations or produce safety hazards if the normal power fails are supplied by _______.

    a. Emergency power

    b. Legally required standby power

    c. Optional standby power

    d. All of the above
    b. Legally required standby power
  55. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    9. Optional standby power is required to supply electrical service within 10 seconds of loss of normal power.

    True or False
    False
  56. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    10. Tenants likely to opt for optional standby power include owner-occupied facilities and large financial institutions.

    True or False
    True
  57. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    11. What is the most common emergency power supply?

    a. Separate feeds from the utility provider

    b. Engine-driven generator

    c. Flywheels

    d. Valve-regulated lead acid batteries
    b. Engine-driven genrator
  58. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    12. The term prime mover refers to _______.

    a. a flywheel

    b. The engine powering the generator

    c. The generator's starter

    d. A storage battery
    b. The engine powering the generator
  59. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    13. If a generator set requires more than 10 seconds to develop sufficient voltage, it can be used to supply emergency loads as long as an auxiliary power source supplies the emergency loads until the generator is capable of doing so.

    True or False
    True
  60. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    14. All auxiliary equipment neccessary to ensure the proper operation of the generator set supplying emergency power should be connected to the emergency power supply system.

    True or False
    True
  61. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    15. Which type of power supply is not considered a stored energy source?

    a. Flywheel

    b. Engine-driven generator

    c. Fuel cell

    d. Flooded lead-acid battery
    b. Engine-driven generator
  62. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    16. A gel battery is a type of _______ commonly found in an uninterruptable power supply.

    a. Fuel cell

    b. Flooded lead-acid battery

    c. Vented lead-acid battery

    d. Valve-regulated lead-acid battery
    d. Valve-regulated lead-acid battery
  63. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    17. An uninterruptable power supply system protects connected loads against disturbances such as _____.

    a. Interruption of the normal power supply

    b. Frequency shifts

    c. Voltage spikes

    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  64. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    18. A(n)________ UPS dose not use a static switch because it continuously serves the connected loads.

    a. Online

    b. Offline

    c. Passive-standby

    d. Heavy duty
    a. Online
  65. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    19. If multiple feeds from the utility provider serve the building and the primary power supply fails, then one of the other feeds can be used to supply power to standby power supply systems.

    True or False
    True
  66. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    20. The ________ is typically located on the primary side of the loads it serves and transfers its loads to the emergency power supply when it senses a loss of normal power.

    a. Emergency power riser

    b. Static switch

    c. Automatic transfer switch

    d. Bypass isolation switch
    c. Automatic transfer switch
  67. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    21. An automatic transfer switch (ATS) requires a time delay mechanism when it is designed to automatically switch back to the normal power source to ________.

    a. Facilitate transferring back to the normal power supply within 10 seconds

    b. Control the bypass breaker connected to the loads managed by the ATS

    c. Prevent power supply disruptions due to momentary restoration of normal power

    d. All of the above
    c. Prevent power supply disruptions due to momentary restoration of normal power
  68. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    22. Manual transfer switches are commonly used to control legally required standby power.

    True or False
    False
  69. Module 3: Emergency Power Supply Systems

    23. Which mechanism is most likely to be used for isolating the componets of the emergency power supply system for maintenance or service?

    a. Automatic transfer switch

    b. Manual transfer switch

    c. Time delay mechanism

    d. Bypass isolation switch
    d. Bypass isolation switch
  70. Module 4: Protective Devices

    1. A(n)______occurs when two phase conductors come into contact.

    a. Ground fault

    b. Short circuit

    c. Overload

    d. All of the above



    b. Short circuit
  71. Module 4: Protective Devices

    2. A(n)_____is also known as short to ground.

    a. Gound fault

    b. Short circuit

    c. Overload

    d. Transient voltage surge
    a. Ground fault
  72. Module 4: Protective Devices

    3. Fuses are non-adjustable and can only open one phase of a multiphase circuit.

    True or False
    True
  73. Module 4: Protective Devices

    4. A fuse's________ extinguishes any arcs created when the circuit opens.

    a. Body

    b. Element

    c. Connecting conductor(s)

    d. Granular filler
    d. Granular filler
  74. Module 4: Protective Devices

    5. Using dual-element fuses will increase the amount of current during a short circuit and could magnify damage to equipment and conductors.

    True or False
    False
  75. Module 4: Protective Devices


    6. A _______ protects against short circuits and has a ime delay so it can handle temporary overloads caused by high starting currents.

    a. Magnetic-trip circuit breaker

    b. Surge protective device

    c. Dual-element fuse

    d. All of the above

    c. Dual-element
  76. Module 4: Protective Devices

    8. The absence of granular filler in a _____ fuse reduces the current interrupting rating of the fuse.

    a. Renewable

    b. Dual-element

    c. Single-element

    d. None of the above
    a. Renewable
  77. Module 4: Protective Devices

    9. A_______ fuse is not used for new installations and is available as a replacement part only.

    a. Single-element

    b. Dual-element

    c. Renewable

    d. Plug
    d. Plug
  78. Module 4: Protective Devices

    10. Which of the following fuse characteristics must be considered when selecting a fuse appropriate for the load it is intended to serve?

    a. Continuous current rating and current interrupting rating

    b. Voltage rating

    c. speed or resonse

    d. All of the above
    • d. All of the above
  79. Module 4: Protective Devices

    11. The voltage rating of a fuse should always match the circuit voltage.

    True or False
    True
  80. Module 4: Protective Devices

    12. Circuit breakers are installed in _______ to protect downstream circuits from overloads or short circuits.

    a. Switchgear

    b. Switchboards

    c. Distribution panelboards

    d. All of the above


    d. All of the above
  81. Module 4: Protective Devices

    13. A molded-case circuit breaker has a higher initial cost but lasts longer than an open-air frame circuit breaker.


    True or False
    b. False
  82. Module 4: Protective Devices

    14. Circuit breakers used in distribution panelboards are large draw-out breakers rated for medium- to high-voltage use.

    True or False
    b. False
  83. Module 4: Protective Devices

    15. Since magnetic-trip circuit breakers trip instantaneously, they are not appropriate for protecting equipment with a high starting inrush current.

    True or False
    True
  84. Module 4: Protective Devices

    16. A(n) _______ circuit breaker can be compared to a dual-element fuse because it protects against both short circuits and overloads.

    a. Magnectic-trip

    b. Thermal magnetic-tip

    c. Open-air

    d. Electonic
    b. Thermal magnectic-trip
  85. Module 4: Protective Devices

    17. A(n) _____ circuit breaker utilizes a current transformer to open the breaker.

    a. Magnetic-trip

    b. Thermal magnectic-trip

    c. Electronic-trip

    d. All of the above
    c. Electronic-trip
  86. Module 4: Protective Devices

    18. A coordination study helps ensure the protectivedevice closest to a fault will initiate before an upstream protection device reacts to the overcurrent condition.

    True or False
    True
  87. Module 4: Protective Devices

    19. A thermal overload relay responds magnetically to overcurrent conditions.

    True or False
    False
  88. Module 4: Protective Devices

    19. A thermal overload relay responds magnetically to overcurrent conditions.

    True or False
    False
  89. Module 4: Protective Devices

    21. Microprocessor-driven equipment is especially susceptible to damage from ________ , which are also referred to as spikes.

    a. Overloads

    b. Transient voltage surges

    c. Short circuits

    d. Ground faults
    b. Transient voltage surges
  90. Module 4: Protective Devices

    22. Transient voltage surges are caused by _______.

    a. Inductive magnetic coupling

    b. An interruption in line current,loads being switched on or off, or utility grid switching

    c. Lightining

    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  91. Module 4: Protective Devices

    23. For a surge protective device to function properly, the electrical system must be grounded in accordance with the National Electrical Code (NEC).

    True or False
    True
  92. Module 5: Electrical Grounding

    1. Proper electrical grounding can ________.

    a. Reduce the magnitude and duration of transient overcurrents

    b. Increase personnel safety by reducing shock and arc flash hazards

    c. Increase conductor insulation life

    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  93. Module 5: Electrical Grounding


    2. What color is grounded neutral conductor:

    a. Red

    b. Green

    c. White or gray

    d. Black
    c. White or gray
  94. Module 5: Electrical Grounding


    3. The term _______ refers the permanent joining of metallic componets to form an effective path that ensures both electrical continuity and the capacity for safely conducting the maximum fault current likely to occur.

    a. Bonding

    b. Grounding

    c. Grounded system

    d. None of the above
    a. Bonding
  95. Module 5: Electrical Grounding


    4. The most common electrical distribution system in modern office buildings is a ________.

    a. Delta-configured system

    b. 480/277-volt, wye-configured system

    c. Neutral to ground system

    d. None of the above
    b. 480/277-volt, wye-configured system
  96. Module 5: Electrical Grounding


    5. Delta-configured distribution systems connot be solidly grounded because not all phases connect to one neutral point.

    True or False
    True
  97. Module 5: Electrical Grounding

    6. The National Electrical Code (NEC) requires a solidly grounded electrical distribution system to be equipped with ground fault protection (GFP) if the system ________ .

    a. Is more than 150 volts to ground

    b. Has a main disconnectiing means of 1,000 amps or more

    c. All of the above

    d. None of the above: solidly grounded systems do not require GFP
    c. All of the above
  98. Module 5: Electrical Grounding

    7. If a fault is detected in a grounded system, a ground fault protection (GFP) device _______.

    a. Utilizes a system of phasing lights to alert personnel that a ground fault has occurred

    b. Initiates an audible alarm or sends an alarm through a building control system, notifying personnel that a ground fault has occurred

    c. Automatically disconnects power to remove the fault from the electrical distribution system

    d. All of the above
    c. Automatically disconnects power to remove the fault from the electrical distriution system
  99. Module 5: Electrical Grounding

    8. What is the maximum trip setting of a ground fault protection (GFP) device?

    a. One second

    b. 1,2oo amps

    c. Two seconds

    d. 1,00 amps
    b. 1,200 amps
  100. Module 5: Electrical Grounding

    8. What is the maximum trip setting of a ground fault protection (GFP) device?

    a. One second

    b. 1,2oo amps

    c. Two seconds

    d. 1,00 amps
    d. Grounding electrode
  101. Module 5: Electrical Grounding

    10. A ________ is the most commonly used type of grounding electrode.

    a. Ground rod with a minimum diameter of 0.625 inch and in contact with the earth a minimim of eight feet

    b. Metal underground water pipe in direct contact with the earth for 10 feet or more

    c. Plate electrode

    d. Ground ring no smaller than American wire gauge 2 (AWG 2) and at least 20 feet in length
    a. Ground rod with a minimum diameter of 0.625 inch and in contact with the earth a minimum of eight feet
  102. Module 5: Electrical Grounding

    11. The equipment grounding system (EGS) provides an intentional fault current path to protect _____.

    a. Equipment from damage

    b. Personnel from electrical shock

    c. Facilites from electrical fires

    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  103. Module 5: Electrical Grounding

    12. The presence of current on the equipment grounding system (EGS) can hamper the performance and operation of electrical, electronic,and communication equipment systems.

    True or False
    True
  104. Module 5: Electrical Grounding

    13. Which product does not meet UL 467 and cannot be used for grounding and bonding?

    a. Copper terminal bars and compression terminals

    b. Exothermic welding

    c. Aluminum lugs and compression terminals

    d. All of the above
    c. Aluminum lugs and compression terminals
  105. Module 5: Electrical Grounding

    14. Wye-configured power distribution systems are ungrounded systems.

    True or False
    False
  106. Module 5: Electrical Grounding

    15. Ungrounded systems lack a central neutral point for bonding.

    True or False
    True
  107. Module 6: Electric Motors


    1. Electric motors convey magnetic energy into mechanical enerty through the application of the principles of magnetism.

    True or False
    True
  108. Module 6: Electric Motors

    2. The term polarity refers to the _______.

    a. Strength of the current powering the magnet

    b. Direction the magnetic force field flows

    c. Number of loops in the magnet's wire coil

    d. Position of the magnet's north and south poles
    d. Position of the magnet's north and south poles
  109. Module 6: Electric Motors

    3. The strength of an electromagnet's magnetic field is proportional to ________.

    a. The number of loops in its coil

    b. The amount of current passing through its coil

    c. All of the above

    d. None of the above
    c. All of the above
  110. Module 6: Electric Motors

    4. Which piece of iquipment is most likley to receive power from DC motor?

    a. AHU fan

    b. Elevator

    c. Chilled water pump

    d. None of the above
    b. Elevator
  111. Module 6: Electric Motors

    5. Which statement below does not describe a DC motor motion

    a. The displacement of three power phases creates its rotating motion

    b. The direction of its rotation can be changed without switching powerer circuit

    c. It has a high torque-to-inertia ratio

    d. Its speed can be controlled smoothly from top speed down to zero
    a. The displacement of three power phases creates its totation motion
  112. Module 6: Electric Motors

    6. Which type of motor is widely used in commercial office buildings because of its strdiness and dependability?

    a. DC shunt motor

    b. AC squirrel cage induction motor

    c. AC wound rotor motor

    d. None of the above
    b. AC squirrel cage induction motor
  113. Module 6: Electric Motors

    7. The bars on the rotor of the squirrel cage induction motor are slightly skewed for the purpose of quieting the motor and reducing the locking tendency of the rotor.

    True or False
    True
  114. Module 6: Electric Motors

    8. When opposite magnetic forces in the stator and rotor align and attract, ______ causes disruptions in the torque or complete motor loking.

    a. Slipping

    b. Lagging

    c. Switching polarity

    d. Cogging
    d. Cogging
  115. Module 6: Electric Motors

    9. In most cases, an AC motor will naturally operate at synchronous speed.

    True or False
    False
  116. Module 6: Electric Motors

    10. Why must the rotor of an AC motor always rotate at a slower rate than the magnetic field of the motor's stators?

    a. To ensure the rotor intersects the stator's magnetic lines of flux to create the opposing magnetic forces that produce torque

    b. So that the rotor remains centered and in place on the shaft

    c. To redce magnetic hum and decrease slot harmonies

    d. All of the above
    a. To ensure the rotor intersects the stator's magnetic lines of flux to create the opposing magnetic forces that produce torque
  117. Module 6: Electric Motors

    11. Motor slip is typically listed as a percentage of synchronous speed.

    True or False
    True
  118. Module 6: Electric Motors

    12. A _______ helps a motor start by storing energy to overcome the additional load associated with the starting operation.

    a. Variable frequency drive

    b. Capacitor

    c. Partial starter

    d. Soft start
    b. Capacitor
  119. Module 6: Electric Motors

    13. A _______ reduces incoming voltage to accommodate starting the motor at half speed.

    a. Variable frequency drive

    b. Capacitor

    c. Partial starter'

    d. None of the above
    c. Partial starter
  120. Module 6: Electric Motors

    14. Newer variable frequency drives have technology that significantly reduces their tendency to cause harmonies, excess heat, and voltage spikes.

    True or False
    True
  121. Module 6: Electric Motors

    15. Open drip-proof induction motors are designed for use in clean, dry environments.

    True or False

    True
  122. Module 6: Electric Motors

    16. Total enclosed fan-cooled induction motors cannot be used in environments exposed to heat, moisture, and/or excess dirt particle.

    True or False
    False
  123. Module 6: Electric Motors

    17. NEMA motor nameplate data defines certain motor characteristics d is important when ________.

    a. Replacing an old motor

    b. Installing any new piece of equipment with a motor

    c. Choosing a replacement part for a motor

    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  124. Module 7 : Basics of Lighting

    1. Light output is measured in _____.


    a. Brightness

    b. Foot candles

    c. Kelvins

    d. Lumens


    d. Lumens
  125. Module 7 : Basics of Lighting

    2. Adequate illumination for reading is _______ .


    a. 10 foot candles of illuminance

    b. 100 foot candles of illuminance

    c. 10 lumens per square foot

    d. None of the above
    a. 10 foot candles of illuminance
  126. Module 7 : Basics of Lighting

    3. The correlated color temperature (CCT), expressed in degrees Kelvin, indicates ________ .


    a. Whether the color spectrum of the lamp is more bluish or yellowish

    b. How the lamp's light output affects the appearance of its surroundings compared to natural sunlight

    c. How hot hte lamp will become when operated according to a three-hour switching cycle

    d. None of the above
    a. Whether the color spectrum of the lamp is more bluish or yellowish
  127. Module 7 : Basics of Lighting

    4. Which bulb is most likely to have the highest luminous efficiency?

    a. a 100-watt incandescent lamp with an efficacy ratio of 17 LPW

    b. A 270-watt compact fluorescent lamp with an efficacy ratio of 63 LPW

    c. A 60-watt incandescent lamp with an efficacy ratio 13.75 LPW

    d. A 60-watt compact fluorescent lamp with an efficacy ratio of 64 LPW
    d. A 60-watt compact fluorescent lamp with an efficacy ratio of 64 LPW
  128. Module 7 : Basics of Lighting

    5. Changing lamps before they fail is sometimes necessary.

    True or False
    True
  129. Model 7 : Basics of Lighting

    6. The emission of visible light by a hot object is referred to as _____.

    a. Incandescence

    b. Fluorescence

    c. Luminous flux

    d. Mercury vaporization
    a. Incandescence
  130. Model 7 : Basics of Lighting

    A(n)________ lamp burns out when its filament evaporates to the point of severing.

    a. Mercury vapor

    b. Low=-pressure soduim

    c. Fluorescent

    d. Incandescent
    • d. Incandescent
  131. Model 7 : Basics of Lighting

    8. A ________ lamp is an incandescent lamp with a filament enclosed in a gas-filled capsule to prolong lamp life.

    a. General Service

    b. Halogen

    c. Fluorescent

    d. High-pressure sodium
    • b. Halogen
  132. Model 7 : Basics of Lighting

    9. Fluorescent lamps require a ballast to regulate the flow of power to the electrodes.

    True or False
    True
  133. Model 7 : Basics of Lighting

    10. The interior of a ______ Lamp is coated with phosphor powder and filled with a small amount of liquid mercury and other inert gases. The excited mercury vapor emits a non-visible ultraviolet (UV) radiation, which is absorbed by the phosphor to make it visible.

    a. Mercury vapor

    b. High-pressure sodium

    c. Fluorescent

    d. General Service
    • c. Fluorescent
  134. Module 7 : Basics of Lighting

    11. The larger the diameter of a fluorescent lap's tube, the more efficient the is
    .

    True or False
    False
  135. Model 7 : Basics of Lighting

    12. A(n) _______ lamp generates light by generating an electric arc.

    a. Incandescent

    b. Fluorescent

    c. Compact fluorescent

    d. High-intensity discharge
    d. High-intensity discharge
  136. Module 7 : Basics of Lighting

    13. A _______ lamp has negative resistance properties.

    a. Fluorescent

    b. High-pressure

    c. Mercury vapor

    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  137. Module 7 : Basics of Lighting

    14. The importation of ballasts for _______ lamps into the United States has been banned since 2008.

    a. Mercury vapor

    b. Compact fluorescent

    c. Low-pressure sodium

    d. High-pressure sodium
    a. Mercury vapor
  138. Module 7 : Basics of Lighting

    15. The close proximity of HID lamp electrodes enables them to produce a higher intensity light than fluorescent lamps using the same amount of current

    True or False
    True
  139. Module 7 : Basics of Lighting

    16. The lamp connects to the luminaire at the ________.

    a. Housing

    b. Socket

    c. Ballast

    d. Troffer
    b. socket
  140. Module 7 : Basics of Lighting

    17. Ballast cycling can be caused by a(n)______.

    a. Improperly set occupancy senor

    b. Malfunctioning photocell

    c. Failing ballast

    d. All of the above
    • c. Failing Ballast
  141. Module 7 : Basics of Lighting

    18. Which factor enables an electronie ballast to convert electricity to light more efficiently than a magnetic or combination ballast?

    a. Electronic ballast are smaller than magnetic or combination ballast"

    b. Electronic bass increase the fequency of the incoming current

    c. Failing ballast

    d. All of the above


    b. Electronic ballasts increase the frequency of the incomingcurrent

  142. Module 7 : Basics of Lighting

    19. United States legislation prohibits the manufacture of new and replacement magnetic ballasts by 2010.

    True or False
    True
  143. Module 7 : Basics of Lighting

    20. Which type of lighting control typically utilizes heating fins to dissipate heat?

    a. Light switches

    b. Occupancy sensors

    c. Dimming switches

    d. None of the above
    c. Dimming switches

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