StanStudyBA

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Author:
tamarkp
ID:
72242
Filename:
StanStudyBA
Updated:
2011-03-11 11:28:58
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USCG NOLA
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  1. How many ways can the ELT be activated?
    3
  2. You land in a small field with minor malfunctions, who can clear the aircraft for further flight?
    CO
  3. What are the authorized fuels for the MH-65C?
    JP-4, JP-5, JP-8, Jet A, Jet A1, Jet B
  4. Should Crewmembers inform the pilot prior to disconnecting from ICS?
    Yes
  5. Can you use the Helo aggressively to stop drug runner?
    No
  6. If you have an alcoholic beverage, how long before you can fly again? Does this include non-alcoholic beer?
    12 hours with no residual effects/ yes
  7. How many gallons are in the the secondary hydraulic reservoir?
    2.1 gallons
  8. AV RACK overheat comes on at what temperature?
    68 degrees F
  9. Seat belts and harnesesses shall not be removed below what altitude without permission from the PIC?
    1000 Ft
  10. What is the max floor load of the baggage compertment?
    440 Lbs
  11. The minimum brake accumulator presure for setting the parking brake is?
    700
  12. What would cause a secondary hydraulic isolate light on the WCA panel?
    Reservoir drops below one gallon of fluid
  13. The corrective action for a confirmed MGB fire is to?
    Landing/Hover checlist complete and Land/Ditch immediately
  14. The second step of a major FADEC/GOV failure after completing the Big 4 is what?
    Training switch to flight
  15. Is the baggage compartment door an approved alternate emergency exit?
    Yes
  16. What is the first step of the corrective action for an engine compartment fire (in-flight)?
    Alert crew, confirm presence of fire
  17. T/F - Hand guns with an external safety and decocting lever shall be carried with the magazine inserted, round chamberes, decocted, safety lever in the safe position and weapon holstered.
    True
  18. Aircrew shall be grounded for a period of 3 days after a donation of _______ cc or more of blood.
    200
  19. Repetitive hot refueling should not routunely exceed _____ hours due to the risk of experiencing an undetected aircraft component problem.
    6
  20. When does the DIFF N1 light illuminate on the WCA panel?
    6%
  21. Whose permission do you need to give blood?
    CO
  22. What is the max flight time for a month?
    125 hours
  23. What is the primary function of the BIM?
    Overspeed protection
  24. What is the max allowable pressure for pressure refueling?
    55 psi
  25. How many gallons are in the primary hydraulic system?
    1
  26. What position on the electric pump is used to lower the landing gear in an emergency? And approximately how long?
    BKP/ 1 minute
  27. FADEC stands for what?
    Full Authority Digital Engine Control
  28. How many OEI settings are there?
    3
  29. What does the acronym TOT stand for?
    Turbine Outlet Temperature
  30. The secondary hydraulic system supplies hydraulic pressure to which part of the flight control system?
    Left portion of MRH and left side of tail servo
  31. You land in a small field with major structural damage, who can clear the aircraft for further flight?
    Concurrance betwen CG-41 and CG-711
  32. What is the max airspeed with NR in high?
    135 kts
  33. After resetting the AV RACK overheat, at what temperature will it illuminate again?
    109.4 degrees F
  34. The float cylinders are filled with what?
    Helium
  35. What chemical is in the engine fire extinguishers?
    Bromotrifloromethane
  36. Prolonged application of DC external power with the spike suppression switch in the start position may cause what?
    Battery overtemp, thermal runaway
  37. What manual is to be considered the first and foremost reference for emergency procedures, hoisting procedures, and general crew duties pertaining to the MH-65C Helicopter?
    1H-65C-1
  38. Max airspeed with float armed?
    90 knots
  39. The primary hydraulic system supplies hydraulic pressure to which part of the flight control system?
    Upper portion of MRH and right side of tail servo
  40. Engines must be checked for proper servicing levels within how many minutes of engine shut down?
    15 muinutes
  41. In normal flight, the T/R will energize the battery bus only when_______.
    Both generators fail or are switched off.
  42. The three ways the ELT can be switched off are by impact of 5 g's or more, manually on the ELT and how else?
    Manually between pilot an copilot on center console
  43. System pressure of less than how many PSI will result in the illumination of the primary servo p warning light?
    145
  44. The secondary hydraulic system applies 2000 PSI to which components?
    Landing gear, brakes, & talon
  45. Cargo on the cabin deck shall not exceed how many Lbs per square foot?
    125
  46. What does the yellow pie indicate?
    2 min OEI
  47. What is the maximum speed to apply the brakes with the aircraft above 8900 lbs?
    30 kts
  48. What does the triangle with the T indicate?
    Training mode selected
  49. When does the fuel indicator on the VEMD turn amber?
    3%
  50. What is the minimum distance the fueling source should be from the aircraft during hot refueling?
    50 ft
  51. What is the air speed for movement of the door?
    80 kts
  52. What is the first step for smoke and fume elmination?
    Heat/cool switches OFF
  53. How many crew members required to fly 65?
    1
  54. How many degrees does the nose wheel rotate?
    360
  55. At what altitude can passengers disconnect from their harness without asking the pilots permission?
    1000ft
  56. List steps for emergency egress?
    • Wait for all violent motion to stop
    • Reference Point - HOLD
    • Emergency Release Handle - JETTISON
    • Cords/NVG - DISCONNECT/REMOVE
    • Seatbelt Harness - RELEASE/MAINTAIN REFERENCE
    • Egress
    • Vest - INFLATE WHEN CLEAR AIRCRAFT
  57. During preflight checks where should the oil be?
    Between MIN line and bottom of sight glass
  58. With SHED bus switch on how long will the battery last?
    4 minutes
  59. What does VEMD stand for?
    • Vehicle
    • Engine
    • Multifunctional
    • Display
  60. When the amber light is displayed on the landing gear panel, what position is the landing gear in?
    Transition
  61. If a MGB fire is confirmed when do you land?
    LAND/DITCH immediately
  62. What position is the ELT switch left in?
    ARM
  63. What radio cannot be used during hot refueling?
    HF
  64. Which direction does the emergency egress handle pull on the left cabin door?
    Aft
  65. What monitors engine performance?
    VEMD
  66. Who is ultimately in charge of aircraft inspections when away from home unit?
    PIC
  67. What are the BIG 4?
    • Nr - Maintain
    • Airspeed/Altitude - Control/Set Limits
    • Wheels/Floats - AS REQUIRED
    • Analyze
  68. Smoke & Fume Elimination
    • Heat/Cool switches - OFF
    • Ram air - OPEN
    • Cabin sliding Door - OPEN
    • Pilot windows - OPEN
  69. Internal Fire (cabin, electrical, and/or Avionics)
  70. 1. DESIGNATE CREWMEMBER TO FIGHT FIRE
    • 2. AFFECTED EQUIPMENT − OFF
    • 3. HEAT/COOL SWITCHES − OFF
    • 4. RAM AIR − CLOSED
    • 5. CABIN SLIDING DOOR − CLOSED
    • 6. PILOT WINDOWS − CLOSED
    • 7. RACK BLOWER CIRCUIT BREAKER − PULL
    • (for avionics rack fire only − avionics rack
    • panel R4 #4, avionics rack panel R4 #4 in
    • HH−65, R5 #4 in MH−65)
    • 8. CIRCUIT BREAKERS − PULL (for affected
    • circuits)
    • 9. LANDING/HOVER CHECKLIST − COMPLETE
    • (200−ft checks at a minimum based on
    • urgency)
  71. Engine compartment In-flight
    • Attempt to confirmm presence of fire
    • Single Engine Flight Profile - Establish
    • FADEC control Switch - CONFIRM; Idle Confirm; OFF
    • Emergency Fuel Shutoff lever - CONFIRM; OFF
    • Boost Pump - OFF
    • PRI Fire Extinguisher Button - Confirm;Push
    • SEC fire extinguisher button - PUSH
    • Landing hover checklist - Complete
  72. MGB Fire
    • Attempt to confirm presence of fire
    • Landing/hover checklist - complete
    • If confirmed: Land ditch immediately
    • NOT confirmed: Land as soon as possible

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