Chapter 4 Blue Book

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vet1999
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Chapter 4 Blue Book
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2011-03-16 16:03:01
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ACLAM blue book rats Laboratory animal medicine
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Questions on Chapter 4 of the Lab animal Medicine (Blue book)
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  1. Que. ______ _______ is the genus and species of the laboratory rat.
    • Ans. Rattus norvegicus
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4 p.121
  2. Que. The laboratory rat belongs to the order ________ and the family ______.
    • Ans. Rodentia, Muridae
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4 p.121
  3. Que. The Norway rat, R. norvegicus, and the black rat, ______ _______, are the 2 species most commonly associated with the genus.
    • Ans. Rattus rattus
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4 p.121
  4. Que. Globally, the _______ rat has largely displaced the ______ _____, probably because of the former�s larger size and aggressiveness.
    • Ans. Norway, black
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4 p.121
  5. Que. A sport in whch individuals would wager on which terrier dog would most swiftly kill the largest number of rats confined to a pit is _____ ________.
    • Ans. Rat baiting
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4 p.121
  6. Que. The _______ is second only to the mouse as the most frequently used mammal in biomedical and behavioral research
    • Ans. RAT
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  7. Que. Although rats, like most other species, can adapt to changes in temperature and humidity, room temperature and humidity, room temperatures within a range of ________and with a relative humidity of ____ are typically accepted as begin appropriate.
    • Ans. 70 - 76%, 30-70%
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  8. Que. There is sufficient evidence to indicate that light intensity at cage level should be between ________ and _______ Lux to prevent _______.
    • Ans. 130, 300, retinopathy
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  9. Que. Practice over many years has shown that, in general, ventilation rates of ______
    • Air changes/hr of fresh air are sufficient to compensate for heat load and the generation of NH3 and CO2 from animals.
    • Ans. 10-15
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  10. Que. A stable photoperiod is necessary to avoid _____________.
    • Ans. changes in reproductive behavior, food intake, and weight gain.
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  11. Que. A cycle of _______ light and _______ dark is typically used for rats.
    • Ans. 12 to 14hr light and 10 to 12 hr dark
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 12
  12. Que. Rat inbred strain used for congenital genitourinary anomalies, prostatic adenocarcinomas?
    • Ans. ACI
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  13. Que. Inbred rat strain used for Juvenile insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
    • Ans. BB/Wor
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  14. Que. Inbred rat strain used for inducible, transplantable myeloid leukemia, hydronephrosis, bladder carcinoma
    • Ans. BN (Brown Norway)
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  15. Que. Inbred rat strain used as a model for, spontaneous autoimmune thyroiditis, host for transplantable Morris hepatoma.
    • Ans. BUF(Buffalo)
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  16. Que. Inbred rat strain COP (Copenhagen) is a model for ________________.
    • Ans. Prostate adenocarcinoma
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  17. Que. Which Inbred rat model is used for National Toxicology Program�s Carcinogen Bioassay Program and the National Institute on Aging?
    • Ans. F-344 (Fischer344)
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  18. Que. Inbred rat model for Multiple sclerosis, various experimentally induced autoimmune diseases.
    • Ans. LEW (Lewis)
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  19. Que. Which Inbred rat model is used for myeloma, production of IgG autoantibody.
    • Ans. LOU/C
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  20. Que. Which Inbred rat model is used for hypertension, cardiovascular research?
    • Ans. SHR(spontaneous hypertensive rat)
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  21. Que. Inbred rat strain for Mononuclear cell leukemia
    • Ans. WF (Wistar-Furth)
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  22. Que. Which Inbred rat strain model is used for obesity?
    • Ans. Zucker
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  23. Que. Mutant rat strain that has the characteristics for diabetes insipidus (autosomal recessive)
    • Ans. Brattleboro
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  24. Que. Which mutant rat strain that has the characteristics for jaundice, kernicterus (autosomal recessive).
    • Ans. Gunn
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  25. Que. Which mutant rat strain has the characteristics for T cell deficient (autosomal recessive)?
    • Ans. Nude
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  26. Que. Mutant rat strain that has the characteristics for Type 4 hyperlipoproteinemia (autosomal recessive)
    • Ans. Obese SHR
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Chap. 4, p 122
  27. Que. Is noise stressful to rats?
    • Ans. Yes, rat rooms should be located distant from mechanical rooms, cage washing centers, and noisy species.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p123
  28. Que. The amount of cage space required for rats, whether group or individually housed, is a function of?
    • Ans. Animal weight, specific physiological or protocol requirements.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p123
  29. Que. Why should rats be housed in solid-bottom cages?
    • Ans. Help prevent pododermatitis and injuries associated with wire floors, and bedding within solid-bottom cages provides environmental enrichment.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p123
  30. Que. What are the most frequently used materials used for solid-bottom cages?
    • Ans. Polycarbonate and polypropylene.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p123
  31. Que. Which material is preferred for solid bottom-bottom cages for rats and why?
    • Ans. Polycarbonate is preferred because it may be repeatedly autoclaved without damage and its translucency allows for observation of animals.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p123
  32. Que. Usually how many teats are present in a female rat.
    • Ans. 12 teats, 3 pairs in the pectoral and 3 pairs in the abdominal region.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p123
  33. Que. Rat�s eyes are _____ which increases the risk of injury from trauma and drying during anesthesia.
    • Ans. exophthalmic
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p123
  34. Que. On a rat, where is the location of the Harderian gland, and what does it secrete under what conditions?
    • Ans. Harderian gland is located medially to the orbit. It secretes porphyrin in excessive amounts, termed chromodacryorrhea, when the animal is stressed because of malnutrition, dehydration, disease or environmental factors. A reddish secretion or crust located periobitally and at the nares may be a useful indicator of illness.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p123
  35. Que. What is a good blood collection site located around the eyes?
    • Ans. Orbital venous sinus beneath the medical aspect of the orbit. Animal must be anesthetized.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p123
  36. Que. What is the hearing frequency range for rats?
    • Ans. 70 dB is 250 Hz to 70-80 kHz, with 8 kHz to 32kHz being the most sensitive range
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p123
  37. Que. How many auditory ossicles do rats have?
    • Ans. 6
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p123
  38. Que. How many turbinates do rats have?
    • Ans. 4
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p123
  39. QUE. The vertebral column of the rat consists of ____ cervical, ____ thoracic, _____ lumbar, ____ sacral, and ______ caudal vertebrae.
    • ANS. 7, 13, 6, 4,and 27-30
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 4, p124
  40. QUE. Dental formula of the rat is ___ Incisors, ___Canines, ____ Premolars, and ___ Molars.
    • ANS. 1/1, 0/0, 0/0, and 3/3
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 4, p124
  41. QUE. Only the ______ salivary gland of the rat secretes both a serous and mucous product.
    • ANS. submandibular
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 4, p124
  42. QUE. In the neck of the rat, salivary tissue is sometimes confused with _________.
    • ANS. brown fat/hibernating gland
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 4, p124
  43. QUE. What anatomic structure of the rat is responsible for its inability to vomit?
    • ANS. fold where the esophagus enters the lesser curvature of the stomach/limiting ridge (term not in book)
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 4, p124
  44. QUE. How might one differentiate the ascending colon from rest of the colonic tissue?
    • ANS. prominent oblique mucosal ridges
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 4, p124
  45. QUE. T or F Rats have gall bladders.
    • ANS. false
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 4, p124
  46. QUE. What anatomic structure contains/houses Steno�s gland of the rat?
    • ANS. maxillary recess
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 4, p124
  47. Que. The rat does not have an ______ nerve supply to the bronchial musculature, and bronchoconstriction is controlled by ____ ____.
    • Ans. adrenergic, vagal tone
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, pg. 125
  48. Que. In the rat, the paired _________ glands at the base of the penis open into the dorsal surface of the urethral flexure.
    • Ans. bulbourethral (Cowper�s glands)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, pg. 125
  49. Que. The large accessory sex glands found within the abdominal cavity surrounding the bladder are the ______ ______ .
    • Ans. seminal vesicles
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, pg. 125
  50. Que. The rat prostate gland is composed of _________, _______ and ______ lobes.
    • Ans. dorsocranial (coagulation gland), ventral, dorsolateral
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, pg. 125
  51. Que. The female rat has a _______ _______ with two distinct ossa uteri and cervices.
    • Ans. bicornate uterus
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, pg. 125
  52. Que. In the rat, the ______ ______ is more craniad than the left and has its cranial edge at the level of L1 vertebra and its caudal edge at the level of L3.
    • Ans. right kidney
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, pg. 125
  53. Que. Like the kidney of other rodents, the rat kidney is __________, making the rat useful for cannulization studies.
    • Ans. unipapillate
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, pg. 125
  54. Que. The rat is widely used as a model for investigating nephron transport in an in vivo micropuncture system, because of the presence of ________ ______ in the renal cortex.
    • Ans. superficial nephrons
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, pg. 125
  55. Que. The rat brain is notable for what gross anatomic characteristic?
    • Ans. A smooth cerebrum (lissencephaly)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, p126
  56. Que. The rat brain has two __________ lobes of the cerebellum which lie in deep sockets of the periotic capsule of the skull.
    • Ans. parafloccular
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, p126
  57. Que. The ventricular system of the rat brain is similar to that of other animals, but lacks ________________.
    • Ans. A foramen of Magendie
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, p126
  58. Que. The heart of the rat is exposed to the left thoracic wall between the third and fifth ribs, making it a useful site for ______________.
    • Ans. Cardiac blood collection
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, p126
  59. Que. The blood supply to the atria of the rat, unlike that of higher mammals, is largely ______________.
    • Ans. Extracoronary (from branches of the internal mammary and subclavian arteries.)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, p126
  60. Que. The three classifications of commercially available, nutritionally adequate diets for rats are_____________, ____________, and _____________.
    • Ans. Natural ingredient, purified, and chemically defined
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, p126
  61. Que. The most common type of rat diet used for most research applications is the _________________ diet.
    • Ans. Natural ingredient
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, p126
  62. Que. A natural ingredient diet which lists information on the amounts of each ingredient is known as what type of diet?
    • Ans. open-formula diet
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.127
  63. Que. A natural ingredient diet that is used for toxicological and other Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) studies where each lot is assayed for a set list of contaminants is known as what type of diet?
    • Ans. certified
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.127
  64. Que. What diet classification includes nutrient concentrations that are less variable because defined ingredients, each composed of a single nutrient or nutrient class (e.g., casein, sugar, starch, vegetable oil, cellulose), is used in the formulation?
    • Ans. purified diet (the other dietary classifications include natural-ingredient and chemically defined).
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.127
  65. Que. A frequently used purified diet for rats is __________.
    • Ans. AIN-76
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.127
  66. Que. What diet classification is formulated with very basic defined ingredients (e.g., specific amino acids, sugars, triglycerides, and essential fatty acids)?
    • Ans. chemically defined
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.127
  67. Que. In the rat, the vagina is closed at birth by compact epithelium, referred to as the vaginal plate. This begins to degenerate and cornify at 20-35 days of age and is completely open between _____ and _____ days of age.
    • Ans. 40 and 80 days
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.127
  68. Que. The estrous cycle of rats is most often _____ to _____ days in length.
    • Ans. 4 to 5 days
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.127
  69. Que. The gestational period in the rat is _____ to _____ days in length.
    • Ans. 21 to 23 days
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.127
  70. Que. Rat pups� eyes open at approximately _____ to _____ days of age.
    • Ans. 10 to 12 days
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.127
  71. Que. Rat pups are commonly weaned at _____ days of age.
    • Ans. 21 days
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.127
  72. Que. In the rat, daily food consumption is approximately _____ gm / 100 gm body weight.
    • Ans. 5 gm / 100 gm body weight
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.127
  73. Que. In the rat, water consumption is approximately _____ to _____ ml / 100 gm body weight.
    • Ans. 8 to 11 ml / 100 gm body weight
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.127
  74. Que. The approximate blood volume in the rat is _____ ml / 100 gm body weight.
    • Ans. 6 ml
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.127
  75. Que. True or false: the estrous cycle of the rat is rarely seen post-partum.
    • Ans. False. The estrous cycle will occur post-partum.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 128
  76. Que. True or false: the estrous cycle of the rat is seasonally polyestrous.
    • Ans. False. The estrous cycle of the rat occurs throughout the year. Seasonal variation is not observed in laboratory colonies.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 128
  77. Que. True or false: it is not uncommon for a rat to have a 6-day estrous cycle.
    • Ans. True
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 128
  78. Que. In a 4-day estrous cycle of the rat, one day is spent in each of the four stages. Should the rat have a 6-day cycle, which stage(s) is/are extended beyond one day?
    • Ans. Additional time is noted for diestrus or proestrus
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 128
  79. Que. Among serum sodium, potassium, chloride, and calcium values in the clinical chemistry for adult male Sprague-Dawley and Fisher 344 male rats, which parameter will differ notably between these two stocks?
    • Ans. Potassium is lower in the Fisher 344 rats (4.8? 0.35) as opposed to Sprague-Dawley rats (7.00?0.65).
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 128
  80. Que. True or false: comparing the liver enzyme panel (ALT, ALP, AST, and LDH) of Sprague-Dawley and Fisher 344 adult male rats exemplifies the general rule that all rats have about the same liver chemistry values regardless of stock or strain.
    • Ans. False; there is no such rule and these liver enzyme values are dramatically different between Sprague-Dawley and Fisher 344 adult male rats.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 128
  81. Que: In the rat, ovulation occurs approximately how long after the onset of estrus.
    • Ans: 8-11 hours
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, pg 129.
  82. Que. Coitus occurs most frequently during (light/dark) periods and most frequently during the (early/later) portion of the (light/dark) cycle.
    • Ans: dark; later; dark
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p130
  83. Que. In rats, a single ejaculation with (fewer/more) intromissions is (more/less/equally) likely to impregnate the female.
    • Ans: fewer; less
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p130
  84. Que. Coitus in rats can be confirmed by ____________.
    • Ans. detection of spermatozoa on a vaginal smear, observation of a vaginal plug, direct observation of sexual behavior
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p130
  85. Que. Implantation of the blastocyst in the rat occurs between ____________ after fertilization.
    • Ans. 4 and 7 days
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p130
  86. Que. What is the normal gestation of the rat?
    • Ans. 21-23 days
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.04, p0131
  87. Que. The �swayback� posture, lordosis, assumed by the female rat when the pelvic region is stimulated is known as the __________?
    • Ans. Blandau response
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.04, p0131
  88. Que. What is the impedance meter used for?
    • Ans. measures changes in electrical impedance of the vagina using an electric probe to detect estrus
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.04, p0131
  89. Que. Pregnancy can be detected by careful palpation at 10 days gestation, and even more readily at day __________; mammary gland and nipple development are evident by day __________?
    • Ans. 12;14
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.04, p0131
  90. Que. Despite lack of seasonal variation in estrous cycle in the rat, both ovarian function and estrous cycles are influenced by light cycles? 1) continuous light = __________; 2) chronic exposure to even low level light during the dark cycle = __________; 3) caloric restriction = __________
    • Ans. persistent estrus and cystic follicle; early vaginal opening and ovarian atrophy; cessation of estrous cycles and delayed sexual maturity
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.04, p0131
  91. Que. (High/Low) ambient temperature can result in male infertility.
    • Ans. High
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.04, p0131
  92. Que. Female rats increase nest-building activity approximately _____ days prepartum and continue through ____________.
    • Ans. Five; lactation
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p132
  93. Que. Approximately ____ hours before the first rat pup is born, clear mucoid fluid discharges from the vagina.
    • Ans. 1.5 � 4.0
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p132
  94. Que. As rat pups are born, the female ______ the placenta from the birth canal and _________.
    • Ans. Pulls; eats it
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p132
  95. Que. Parturition in the rat averages ________ hours, varying with litter size.
    • Ans. 1.0 � 3.5
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p132
  96. Que. Strenuous maternal exercise in pregnant rats, i.e. running on a treadmill � has also been reported to ____________________________________________________.
    • Ans. Result in decreased litter size and decreased fetal weight.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p132
  97. Que. True or False. Dystocia is rare in rats.
    • Ans. True
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p132
  98. Que. True or False. Cannibalism of rat pups is not frequently encountered.
    • Ans. True. It is an indicator of maternal stress.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p132
  99. Que. Rat pups are altricial and nidicolous. Define.
    • Ans. They are hairless and blind.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p132
  100. Que. True or False. There is an inverse relationship between rat fetal or birth weight and litter size.
    • Ans. True
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p132
  101. Que. The external acoustic meati in a rat opens between __________ days of age.
    • Ans. 2.5 � 3.5
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p132
  102. Que. Rats appear to first be able to hear at about ____days of age, although they are able to ___________ from the time of birth.
    • Ans. Nine; vocalize
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p132
  103. Que. Rat Incisors erupt at _____ days of age, although molars do not erupt until ___________.
    • Ans. 6 � 8; 16(m1), 18(m2), 32 � 34 days of age (m3)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p132
  104. Que. The rat retina is poorly developed at birth, equivalent to a human fetus of _______ months.
    • Ans. 4 � 5
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p132
  105. Que. The eyelids in a rat pup open at about ______ days of age, although the retina does not fully mature until ______ days of age, and the final components in the angle of the anterior chamber are not fully formed until _______________.
    • Ans. 14 � 17; 30 � 40; 60 days of age
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p132
  106. Que. Synchronization of estrus in the rat can be accomplished by administration of ______________ in drinking water for _____days, followed by ______injection with one IU of ______________.
    • Ans. 40 mg, six, intramuscular, pregnant mare�s serum
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p133
  107. Que. Another way to synchronize estrus is by administering 40 micrograms of _________________. Five days later estrus can be confirmed by vaginal cytology.
    • Ans. Luteinizing hormone releasing hormone agonist
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p133
  108. Que. Artificial insemination (AI) in rats is complicated by the rapid _________________________________ , especially when semen is obtained by electroejaculation.
    • Ans. Coagulation of semen
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p133
  109. Que. Coagulation of semen is due to contributions of the ________________ and _____________________.
    • Ans. Coagulating glands, seminal vesicles
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p133
  110. Que. To prevent the rapid coagulation of semen, the coagulating glands and seminal vesicles can be _______________________ .
    • Ans. Surgically removed
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, p 133
  111. Que. Another way to improve fertility rates with AI is to collect sperm by ___________ directly from the ________________. This procedure should not be done more than twice from each male rat.
    • Ans. Stripping, epididymis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p133
  112. Que. Sperm from the ____________ portion of the cauda epididymidis are reported to have greater fertility than sperm from the _________ or _________ portions.
    • Ans. Proximal, middle, caudal
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p133
  113. Que. An essential step in assuring the success of AI is the induction of ________________ in the recipient female prior to mating with a vasectomized male, by _____________ stimulation of the __________, or by ______________ stimulation of the _______________.
    • Ans. Pseudopregnancy, mechanical, vagina, electrical, cervix
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed, Ch. 4, p 133
  114. Que. Embryo transfer in rats is used to ____________________ from breeding line and to study whether specific characteristics are due to, or modified by, the ___________ environment, in contrast to being soley determined by genetic factors.
    • Ans. Eliminate pathogens, uterine
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, p 133
  115. Que. __________________ is the first step in cryopreservation.
    • Ans. Embryo collection
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, p 133
  116. Que. In embryo transfer, embryos are collected ________ days after the females are bred.
    • Ans. 2-4
    • Ref. LAM, �nd ed., Ch 4, p 133
  117. Que. Embryos are usually washed in ____________ and ______________, with or without added ______________.
    • Ans. Phosphate-buffered saline (PBS), bovine serum albumin (BSA), trypsin
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch 4, p133
  118. Que. ______________ may more effectively remove pathogens than PBS alone
    • Ans. Trypsin
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch 4, p 133
  119. Que. Embryos are then suspended in _____ and _____ and ___________ and ________ transferred into the uterus or oviduct of the pseudopregnant recipient.
    • Ans. PBS, BSA, fetal calf serum, surgically
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch 4, p 133
  120. Que. Cryopreservation can serve as a fail-safe measure, should a strain become _____________________.
    • Ans. Genetically contaminated
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch4, p 133
  121. Que. Frozen embryos can be used to test ____________ reagents and __________- for humans.
    • Ans. Culture, environments
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch 4, p 133
  122. Que. True or false. Rat behavior is not an important aspect of laboratory animal science.
    • Ans. False
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch 4, p 133
  123. Que. The two broad categories of rat behavior relevant to experimental design and disease status are _________________ and _________________.
    • Ans. Normal behavior, stressors and stress responses
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch 4, p 133
  124. Que. Rats are most active at ______________.
    • Ans. Night.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p134
  125. Que. Pain thresholds in rats are often determined by the ________ test.
    • Ans. Tail flick.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p134
  126. Que. _________ rats have shorter tail flick response times in the middle of the dark period, as well as during estrus and metestrus.
    • Ans. Female.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p134
  127. Que. ________ rats are less likely to fight when housed together than male _______.
    • Ans. Male, mice.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p134
  128. Que. __________ ________ is the streptococcus species of most historical concern in the rat.
    • Ans. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p134
  129. Que. ________ are considered to be the natural host of Streptococcus pneumoniae.
    • Ans. Humans.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p134
  130. Que. Streptococcus pneumoniae is transmitted primarily via ________ route.
    • Ans. Aerosol.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p134
  131. Que. Differentiation of Streptococcus pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic streptococcal infections can be done using the __________ inhibition test.
    • Ans. Optochin.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p134
  132. Que. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a _______ hemolytic group streptococcus.
    • Ans. Alpha.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p134
  133. Que. Are Beta-hemolytic streptococci common in rats? Do they cause disease?
    • Ans. Yes; rarely cause disease.
    • Ref. LAM 2d ed., Ch. 4, p. 135.
  134. Que. How are these Beta-hemolytic strep. bacteria differentiated from each other, and what types are most common ?
    • Ans. Lancefield antigens; Groups B and G most common.
    • Ref. LAM 2d ed., Ch. 4, p. 135.
  135. Que. What causes "streptococcal enteropathy" ? What ages are affected and what are clinical signs ?
    • Ans. This disease is actually caused by non-hemolytic Lancefiled Group D enterococci. Only sucklings affected. Diarrhea, bright yellow pasty feces, mortality can be high.
    • Ref. LAM 2d ed., Ch. 4, p. 135.
  136. Que. Is control of Streptococcus spp. easy? Why or why not ?
    • Ans. No, because Strep. and Enterococcus app are ubiquitous and carried by humans, too.
    • Ref. LAM 2d ed., Ch. 4, p. 135.
  137. Que. What organism causes pseudotuberculosis ? Describe the organism. Describe clinical signs. What age is most likely affected ?
    • Ans. Corynebacterium kutscheri -- Gram - positive rod. Infection usually asymptomatic and often causes latent infection. If clinical signs occur, are nonspecific and are usually followed by death in 1-7 days. Stress can trigger onset of clinical signs. As with other persistent infections, disease is more common in older animals.
    • Ref. LAM 2d ed., Ch. 4, p. 135.
  138. Que. How is C. kutscheri transmitted ? What causes lesions ? What organ most likely affected in rat ?
    • Ans. Direct contact or oronasal exposure. Septic emboli cuase lesions. Lung most affected.
    • Ref. LAM 2d ed., Ch. 4, p. 135.
  139. Que. Describe gross lesions of C. kutscheri infection ? Histologic lesions?
    • Ans. Solitary or multiple randomly-distributed abscesses in the lung, liver, kidney, skin, joints. Caseous necrosis often prominent; bronchi/bronchioles may contain suppurative exudate; epitheloid macrophages and multinucleated giant cells may be present in abscessed areas; septic emboli glomerulitis.
    • Ref. LAM 2d ed., Ch. 4, p. 135.
  140. Que. How is C. kutscheri infection definitively diagnosed ? From what site/tissue should samples be taken?
    • Ans. Bacteriologic culture is definitive; tissue from lesions or cervical (submandibular) lymph nodes. Histology (showing characteristic branching arrays of Gram-positive rods in tissues sectionsm -- Brown and Brenn stain-- or impression smears -- Gram stain), or serology, should be backed up by culture.
    • Ref. LAM 2d ed., Ch. 4, p.135.
  141. Que. What are differential diagnoses for multiple abscesses in rats?
    • Ans. Streptococcus, streptobacillus, mycoplasmosis (pulmonary abscesses), CAR bacillus (pulmonary abscesses), or other misc. bacteria. Of these, only CAR bacillus and mycoplasmosis would be found in older animals.
    • Ref. LAM 2d ed., Ch. 4, p. 135.
  142. Que. What organism causes Tyzzer's disease ? What was its former name? What is the host range for this disease?
    • Ans. Clostridium piliforme, formerly Bacillus piliformis. The host range is very wide, including rodents, carnivores, horses, humans, NHPs.
    • Ref. LAM 2d ed., Ch. 4, p. 135.
  143. Que. Particularly in the rat, what sign has been observed in weanlings with Tyzzer�s disease, although with low incidence?
    • Ans. A distended abdomen
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., p136
  144. Que. Tyzzer�s Disease in rats may cause a greatly dilated, flaccid, and hyperemic ileum, also termed _________________.
    • Ans. Megaloileitis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., p136
  145. Que. The hallmark histopathological lesion of Tyzzer�s disease in the rat is _____________________.
    • Ans. Coagulative necrosis in the liver
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., p136
  146. Que. Special stains are usually necessary to detect Tyzzer�s disease. These include Giemsa, methylene blue, and the best method, _________________.
    • Ans. Warthin-Starry silver
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., p136
  147. Que: What tissue stain is used to demonstrate Clostridium piliforme organism in tissue?
    • Ans: Giemsa stain
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.137
  148. Que: What is a disadvantage to serological testing for Tyzzer�s disease?
    • Ans: false positive results
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.137
  149. Que: What is recommended as follow up tests in rats serologically positive for Tyzzer�s disease?
    • Ans: (1) Disease provocation tests, (2) stress tests, (3) sentinel animals placed on soiled bedding.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.137
  150. Que: Why are disease provocation tests and stress tests recommended in rats serologically positive for Tyzzer�s disease?
    • Ans: To exacerbate latent infections.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.137
  151. Que: What is the disadvantage when performing the stress tests that rely on chemical immunosuppression (usu. Cyclophosphamide) followed by histopathologic evaluation to detect Tyzzer�s disease?
    • Ans: There is a doubt in efficacy. The animal may have already cleared the C. piliforme infection and may no longer be susceptible to activation of �latent� infection.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.137
  152. Que: Why is it important to use the same species of sentinels when detecting Tyzzer�s disease?
    Ans: To avoid species specificity causing false negatives. Eg. gerbils are not susceptible to all strains of C. piliforme
  153. Que: How does C. piliforme interfere with research?
    • Ans: Attributed to morbidity, mortality and has effects on coagulation and leukokines.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.137
  154. Que: How is Pasteurella pneumotropica classified?
    • Ans: gram-negative coccobacillus
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.137
  155. Que: How does P. pneumotropica grow on sheep blood agar?
    • Ans: It grows aerobically without producing hemolysis with smooth, gray translucent colonies.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.137
  156. Que: P. pneumotropica is considered to be of low significance in ___________ rats: immunodeficient or immunocompetent
    • Ans: immunocompetent
    • Ref: Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.137
  157. Que: Where is P. pneumotropica commonly isolated ?
    • Ans: nasopharynx, cecum, vagina and uterus, conjunctiva
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.137
  158. Que: The vast majority of rats infected with P pneumotropica show which of the following clinical signs?
    • Ans: asymptomatic
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.137
  159. Que: Is it necessary to implement control measures of P. pneumotropica in immunocompetent mice? Why or why not?
    • Ans: No. It is rare for the organism to induce disease in immunocompetent mice.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.137
  160. Que: What is true of P. pneumotropica transmission?
    • Ans: Pneumotropica is not transmitted to a significant degree by fomites.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.137
  161. Que: Name four ways to control P. pneumotropica in the environment.
    • Ans: (1) Rederivation by C-section or embryo transfer; (2) treatment with enrofloxacin, (3) antibiotic treatment of infected dams prior to C-section; (4) culture all uteri after pups are removed by C-section and eliminate any offspring from culture-positve uterus.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.137
  162. Que: What is the reason for implementing antibiotic treatment to infected dams prior to C-section when controlling P. pneumotropica from a colony of rats?
    • Ans: The organism can be present in the uterus
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.137
  163. Que. __________ is composed of more than 2400 serovars.
    • Ans. Salmonella enteridtidis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p138
  164. Que. The bacterial disease __________ may be virtually nonexistent in laboratory rats, but because infection is thought to be prevalent among many other species of vertebrates, including wild rodents, the potential for introduction remains.
    • Ans. Salmonellosis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p138
  165. Que. Clinical signs of infection with S. enteritidis are __________ but may include a hunched posture, ruffled fur, lethargy, weight loss, and conjunctivitis. Soft stool and diarrhea may be observed, usually in less than 20% of the animals.
    • Ans. rare
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p138
  166. Que. Salmonellosis is an __________ so humans are not only at risk of infection from rodents but also may serve as a source of the agent.
    • Ans. anthropozoonosis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p138
  167. Que. Gastrointestinal involvement, including mural thickening and mucosal ulcers in the cecum and ileum as well as splenomegaly and septicemia are clinical signs of __________ in the rat.
    • Ans. Salmonellosis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p138
  168. Que. __________ is diagnosed by culture of feces, mesenteric lymph nodes, liver, spleen or blood after the material is placed in enrichment broth and inoculated onto selective growth medium.
    • Ans. Salmonellosis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p138
  169. Que. A colony infected with Salmonellosis may have a low incidence of asymptomatic carriers, usually less than __________ percent. Detection of S. enteridtidis in these colonies may require repeated testing of significant numbers of samples.
    • Ans. 5
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p138
  170. Que. In addition to Salmonellosis differential diagnosis for __________ disease in rats include Tyzzer�s Disease, rotavirus infection, enterococcal enteropathy, cryptosporidiosis, and problems with feed and/or water.
    • Ans. diarrheal
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p138
  171. Que. Once S. enteritidis is detected in a colony, all animals are usually __________ , and all surfaces and materials either sterilized or safely discarded. Treatment is not recommended, because a chronic carrier state may result and there is potential for zoonotic disease.
    • Ans. destroyed
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p138
  172. Que. Pseudomoniasis refers to clinical disease caused by __________ , a gram-negative bacillus of the order Eubacteriales, family Pseudomonadaceae.
    • Ans. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p138
  173. Que. __________ is motile, aerobic, oxidase-positive, and widely distributed in water, soil, sewage, and the skin and gastrointestinal tract of many animals. It is considered as part of the common commensal flora of humans, domestic animals, and laboratory rodents and is more frequently isolated from animals and humans receiving antibiotics.
    • Ans. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p138
  174. Que. __________ is rarely implicated in disease except in mammals with specific and severe host defense deficits, particularly hosts or tissues deficient in functional phagocytes. (i.e., macrophages and neutrophils and their serum opsonins)
    • Ans. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p138
  175. Que. __________ has been reported as a consequence of infection of indwelling jugular catheters. The signs were those of septicemia and necropsy findings included vegetative valvular endocarditis and multifocal hemorrhagic pneumonia.
    • Ans. Pseudomoniasis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p138
  176. Que. How is Pseudomoniasis diagnosed?
    • Ans. Cultural identification of the organism
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p139
  177. Que. What is the best method to grow Pseudomonas?
    • Ans. Pseudomonas isolation agar or Pseudomonas P agar
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p139
  178. Que. What are biofilms?
    • Ans. Layers of bacteria, usually with reduces metabolic activity embedded in a dense glycocalyx
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p139
  179. Que. P. aeruginosa colonization can be significantly by chlorination of water or acidification. Name the ppm of chlorination and the pH of acidification.
    • Ans. 10-13 ppm and 2.5 � 3.0 pH
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p139
  180. Que. ___________ __________ is commensal in wild rats, inhabiting the nasopharynx, middle ear, and respiratory tract and transmitted to humans by bite wounds, aerosols, and fomites.
    • Ans. Streptobacillus moniliformis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p139
  181. Que. How are rat colonies monitored for Streptobacillus moniliformis?
    • Ans. Culture of blood and nasopharyngeal swabs
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p139
  182. Que. Streptobacillus moniliformis detection in a laboratory rat colony would indicate exposure to infected __________ ___________.
    • Ans. wild rats
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p139
  183. Que. All currently identified helicobacters of laboratory rodents are microaerophillic, gram-negative flagellated bacteria that may be _________, __________ or ________.
    • Ans. Spiral, curved or straight
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p139
  184. Que. Once established, infection by any Helicobacter species is typically_____?
    • Ans. Lifelong
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 2, p 140
  185. Que. Key pathogenic factors for H. pylori include ______, _______, and the presence of a _______?
    • Ans. Urease, a vacuolating cytotoxin (vac A), pathogenicity island
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 2, p 140
  186. Que. Helicobacter infection should be a prime differential diagnosis when proliferative lesions of the ___ are observed in rats?
    • Ans. Large bowel
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 2, p 140
  187. Que. Diagnosis of Helicobacter infection is best accomplished by______?
    • Ans. PCR
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 2, p 140
  188. Que. Samples for diagnosis of Helicobacter infection most often use?
    • Ans. Fecal pellets
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 2, p 140
  189. Que. CAR bacillus may be related to _________ and __________?
    • Ans. Flavobacterium, Flexispira
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 2, p 140
  190. Que. CAR bacillus has been identified in________(more than one animal)?
    • Ans. Rats, mice and rabbits
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 2, p 140
  191. Que. CAR bacillus is usually asymptomatic in which animal?
    • Ans. Rats
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 2, p 140
  192. Que. _______may be observed on the surface of airway epithelium with CAR bacillus?
    • Ans. A thin basophilic layer
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 2, p 140
  193. Que. With Warthin-Starry or methenamine silver stain, filamentous bacilli are readily observed among cilia or respiratory epithelium from the nasal cavity to the bronchioles in _____ _______ infections.
    • Ans. CAR bacillus
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4 p.141
  194. Que. In CAR bacillus infections the _____ respiratory tract is involved earlier in the course of infection than the _____ tract.
    • Ans. Upper, lower
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4 p.141
  195. Que. CAR bacillus infection should be distinguished from ______, pneumonia due to other bacteria (i.e. Streptococcus pneumoniae, Corynebacterium kutscheri, etc.) and viruses.
    • Ans. MRM
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4 p.141
  196. Que. Colonies are best screened for CAR bacillus infection by serologic techniques, such as _______ or ______.
    • Ans. ELISA, IFA
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4 p.141
  197. Que. There is sufficient evidence to indicate that light intensity at cage level should be between _________ and ____________ lux to prevent ___________.
    • Ans. 130, 300, retinopathy
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed. Chap. 4, p142
  198. Que. CAR bacillus false-positive reactions can occur; any positive results should be confirmed by a ______________ stain of tracheal mucosal scraping or histopathology with use of special stains.
    • Ans. Steiner
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed. Chap. 4, p142
  199. Que. CAR bacillus infection is prevented by _______________.
    • Ans. Exclusion of infected animals
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed. Chap. 4, p142
  200. Que. Murine respiratory mycoplasmosis also known as __________ is caused by ______________.
    • Ans. Chronic respiratory disease is caused by mycoplasma pulmonis
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed. Chap 4, p142
  201. Que. What are the clinical signs of Mycoplasma pulmonis in the older animals compare with younger animals?
    • Ans. usually observed only in older animals: M. Pulmonis infection is clinically silent in young animals
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed. Chap. 4, p142
  202. Que. Mycoplasma pulmonis is transmitted horizontally by ___________, ________and vertically by ______________ transmission.
    • Ans. direct contact, aerosol and vertically by in utero
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed. Chap. 4, p142
  203. Que. Mycoplasma pulmonis possibly damages host cells by causing ____________.
    • Ans. dysfunction and/or loss of cilia, which is a likely cause of the accumulation of exudates, opportunistic bacterial infections, and impaired transport of ova (infertility).
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed. Chap. 4, p142
  204. Que. Mycoplasma pulmonis competes for the host _________ and _________ and may also produce toxic metabolites, such as peroxides and nonspecific mitogens.
    • Ans. cell nutrients and metabolites.
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed. Chap. 4, p142
  205. Que. _______________ successfully evades the host�s immune defenses, so infection and some lesions (especially those in the upper respiratory tract) are persistent and often progressive.
    • Ans. Mycoplasma pulmonis
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed. Chap. 4, p142
  206. Que. What are the gross lesions of MRM?
    • Ans. Murine respiratory mycoplasmosis, has gross lesions of suppurative rhinitis, otitis, media, laryngitis, and tracheitis in the upper respiratory tract. In the lung, suppurative bronchopneumonia with or without atelectasis, bronchiectais, and abscesses: widespread bronchiectatis absceses lead to the appearance referred to as �cobblestone� lung, primarily seen in adults with endstage disease.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p143
  207. Que. What are the respiratory histological lesions of MRM in rats?
    • Ans. Murine respiratory mycoplasmosis. Airway lesions in the respiratory tract are usually characterized by suppurative exudates, hyperplasia (squamous metaplasia) of mucosal epithelium, and often striking hyperplasia of the bronchial-associated lymphoid tissue (BALT). Other respiratory lesions include pseudoglandular hyperplasia of perichoncial alveoloar type II pneumocytes. CAR bacillus and/or secondary beacterial pneumonias also frequently accompany MRM
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p143
  208. Que. What are the genital histiological lesions of MRM in female rats?
    • Ans. Murine respiratory mycoplasmosis. Lesions may include suppurative oophoritis and salpingitis, or hydrosalpingitis, and chronic suppurative endometritis or pyometra.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p143
  209. Que. What are the differential diagnosis for MRM?
    • Ans. Differentials for murine respiratory mycoplasmosis are Cornybacterium kutscheri infections, streptococcosis, cilia-associated respiratory (CAR) bacillus infection, and (rarely) mycotic pneumonia.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p143
  210. Que. What are the diagnostic techniques for MRM?
    • Ans. Cultural isolation in individual rats. ELISA is used for surveillance of infections in colonies.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p143
  211. Que. How does MRM interferes with research?
    • Ans. Murine respiratory mycoplasmosis. Mycoplasma pulmonis interferes with research by its effects on the immune system, the respiratory system, and the reproductive system and by being a primary cause of early mortality in infected colonies.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p143
  212. Que. What is the morphologic description of Haemobartonella muris?
    • Ans. Gram-negative bacterium.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p143
  213. Que. What order and family is Haemobartonella muris?
    • Ans. Rickettsiales, family Anaplasmataceae
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p143
  214. Que. What does Haemobartonella muris infect in rats?
    • Ans. Parasitizes rat erythrocytes. An obligate parasite and cannot be grown in vitro.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p143
  215. Que. What are the clinical pathology symptoms of Haemobartonella muris infection in rats?
    • Ans. Anemia, reticulocytosis, increased coagulation times, decreased plasma proteins, and increased serum immunoglobulins (IgG and IgM).
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p143
  216. Que. How is Haemobartonella muris naturally transmitted to rats?
    • Ans. Spiny rat louse, Polyplax spinulosa.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p143
  217. Que. How is Haemobartonella muris diagnosed in rats?
    • Ans. Detection of the organism on erythrocytes, where they appear as round (coccoid), elongated (rod), or dumbbell-shaped densities on the erythocyte surface.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p143
  218. Que. How is Haemobartonella muris infection in rats?
    • Ans. Rederivation by embryo transfer or cesarian section, although treatment with antirickettsial compounds such as tetracyclines or arsenical may be appropriate for small groups of rats.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p143
  219. Que. How does Haemobartonella muris effect research?
    • Ans. Reduces the half-life of erythrocytes, can alter function of the mononuclear phagocyte system, and can increase rejection of transplantable tumor, as well as interfering with research in other blood-borne parasitic diseases such as malaria and trypanosomiasis.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p143
  220. Que. What is Sendai virus, RNA or DNA?
    • Ans. RNA virus
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p143
  221. Que. What is the genus and species of Sendai virus?
    • Ans. Genus Paramyxovirus, species parainfluenza 1
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p143
  222. Que. What are the symptoms of Sendai virus infection in rats?
    • Ans. An asymptomatic and self-limiting disease. Clinical signs associated may include reduced production and litter size, as well as retarded growth of young within breeding colonies.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p143
  223. QUE. The draining lymph nodes of the _________ are the initial and major site of antibody production to Sendai infection in the rat.
    • ANS. upper respiratory tract
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 4, p144
  224. QUE. In the rat Sendai infections can be worsened by coinfections with _______, ________, ______, and _______.
    • ANS. Mycoplasm pulmonis, Flexibacter sp. (CAR bacillus), Pasturella pneumotropica, and PVM pneumonia virus of mice)
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 4, p144
  225. QUE. Which test is best for diagnosis of Sendai infection in rats?
    • ANS. PCR
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 4, p144
  226. QUE. Which two rat Coronaviruses cannot be differentiated from one another based on comparison of clinical signs or lesions?
    • ANS. RCV-SDA (saliodacryoadenitis virus) and RCV- P (Parker�s rat coronavirus)
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 4, p144
  227. QUE. T or F Clinically, RCV-SDA will not offer significant cross-protection to RCV-P and vice versa.
    • ANS. true
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 4, p144
  228. Que. Signs of Rat _________ infection include cervical swelling due to inflammation and edema of submaxillary glands, nasal and ocular discharges that are usually porphyrin stained, photophobia, corneal opacities, and corneal ulcers.
    • Ans. Coronovirus
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, pg. 145
  229. Que. In most rats, signs of coronovirus infection last for less than 2 weeks. However, chronic ______ and _________ may persist.
    • Ans. keratitis, megaloglobus
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, pg. 145
  230. Que. Rat coronoviruses can be transferred to susceptible rats by _____ _____ with infected rats, and indirectly by _____ and _____.
    • Ans. direct contact, aerosol, fomites
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, pg. 145
  231. Que. Under experimental conditions, it has been shown that rats are susceptible to reinfection by coronovirus as early as __ months after initial infection.
    • Ans. six
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, pg. 145
  232. Que. Histological changes associated with _____________ in affected salivary and lacrimal glands include coagulation necrosis of ductal and acinar epithelial cells, followed by squamous metaplasia during the reparative phase that begins 7-10 days after infection.
    • Ans. sialodacryoadenitis (SDA)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, pg. 145
  233. Que. Diagnosis of _________ is best achieved by serological means using the ELISA method and histological examination of the Harderian glands and the submaxillary and parotid salivary glands.
    • Ans. sialodacryoadenitis (SDA)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, pg. 145
  234. Que. Eliminating rat coronavirus from a colony is achieved by allowing the virus to spread quickly to all animals, preventing entry of susceptible rats to the room, and _______ __ ______ and _______ of preweanlings.
    • Ans. suspension of breeding, removal
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, pg. 145
  235. Que. Parvoviruses are ______________ (type) viruses that have a predilection for mitotically active host cells.
    • Ans. Single stranded DNA
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, P146
  236. Que. Name two of the three parvoviruses that infect rats?
    • Ans. (Kilham�s) rat virus (RV), (Toolan�s) H-1 virus, and rat parvovirus (RPV) previously referred to as Orphan Rat Parvovirus (OPV)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, P146
  237. Que. Clinical signs of RV usually occur in what age group of rats?
    • Ans. weanlings
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, P146
  238. Que. Name two of three clinical signs in a colony associated with RV?
    • Ans. Reduced litter size, runted litters, fetal and neonatal death
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, P146
  239. Que. RPV and H-1 infections are generally characterized as _____________ (clinical or subclinical).
    • Ans. subclinical
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, P146
  240. Que. Rat virus is excreted via _____________ and is transmitted by ___________ through direct contact or fomites.
    • Ans. Milk and urine, aerosol.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, P146
  241. Que. In persistent infections, DNA and antigenic evidence of RV is most likely to be observed where?
    • Ans. Lymphoid tissue, endothelium, vascular muscle tunics, and renal tubular epithelium
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, P146
  242. Que. Rat virus induces a more severe and persistent infection in athymic or euthymic rats?
    • Ans. athymic
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, P146
  243. Que. What is the common sequence of tests used to detect and define a parvovirus infection in rats?
    • Ans. Elisa or IFA to detect parvo then HAI to differentiate between RV or H-1; if HAI negative for both then have RPV
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, P146
  244. Que. Is there a PCR assay for the rat parvoviruses?
    • Ans. Yes, one for each that are specific and sensitive
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, 146
  245. Que. The effect of RV infection on the immune system has been shown to be rat strain dependent for _____________ (which part of the immune system).
    • Ans. Natural killer cell activity
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, P146
  246. Que. Brown Norway rats that are infected with RV have _________ NK cell-mediated cytotoxicity; RV infected Wistar-Furth rats have _________ NK cell-mediated cytotoxicity. (increased or decreased)
    • Ans. Increased, decreased
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, P146
  247. Que. What effects does RPV infection have on research?
    • Ans. Effects are unknown
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, P146
  248. Que. Pneumonia virus of mice (PVM) is a __________ (type) virus in the family ___________.
    • Ans. Pneumovirus, paramyxoviridae
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, P146
  249. Que. Does PVM infect other species besides mice? If so what species?
    • Ans. Yes; rats, hamsters, gerbils, guinea pigs, rabbits
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, P146
  250. Que. PVM is diagnosed using what test(s)?
    • Ans. ELISA, HAI
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, P146
  251. Que. PVM does not cause clinical disease but prominent lesions seen in the acute phase of PVM include ____________, and ______________.
    • Ans. Multifocal nonsuppurative vasculitis, intersitial pneumonia
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 4, P146
  252. Que. The infectious agent, formerly known as infectious diarrhea of infant rats (IDIR), that causes diarrhea in suckling rats, villous atrophy, villous epithelial necrosis, and syncytial cell formation is __________. This agent was found to be associated with diarrhea in humans which suggests that under nonexperimental conditions there may be cross-infectivity between humans and rats.
    • Ans. Rotavirus-Like Agent
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.147
  253. Que. Hantaviruses are enveloped RNA viruses of the genus __________, family __________. In rodents, the disease is characterized by being chronic and subclinical, with virus being shed persistently in the __________ and __________.
    • Ans. Genus Hantavirus, Family Bunyaviridae, feces, urine
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.147
  254. Que. The natural host for the Seoul Hantavirus, causing hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome (HFRS) in humans is __________.
    • Ans. Rattus norvegicus
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.147
  255. Que. The reservoir for a Hantavirus that has induced hantavirus pulmonary syndrome in individuals living in Florida is the __________.
    • Ans. Cotton rat (Sigmodon hispidus)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.147
  256. Que. Protozoa are of little consequence in laboratory rats. Spontaneous disease due to any naturally occurring enteric protozoa of laboratory rats has not been reported. Nevertheless, protozoa considered to be of potential significance in rodent facilities include __________ and two enteric flagellates, __________ and __________, which may produce disease and alter immune responses in mice.
    • Ans. Encephalitozoon cuniculi, Spironucleus muris, Giardia muris
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.147
  257. Que. Encephalitozoonosis is common in conventional rabbit colonies and most guinea pig colonies but is rare in rats. It is transmitted by ingestion, and possibly inhalation, of spores shed in __________.
    • Ans. urine
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.147
  258. Que. Describe the findings seen on histopath exam of rat brains infected with E. cuniculi.
    • Ans. Nonsuppurative or granulomatous meningoencephalitis; found in any or all parts of the brain and occasionally in spinal cord.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  259. Que. What other organs besides the brain and spinal cord of the rat may show lesions associated with E. cuniculi?
    • Ans. Kidney: interstitial nephritis and �similar lesions may be observed in other tissues.�
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  260. Que. In the brains of rats afflicted with E. cuniculi, what may be observed histologically next to or even in the lesions?
    • Ans. Spores
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  261. Que. True or false: Spores of E. cuniculi seen in rat neural tissue stain well with hemotoxylin and eosin.
    • Ans. False. They stain poorly with H&E.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  262. Que. The spores of E. cuniculi found in rat neural tissue will stain as gram positive or gram negative?
    • Ans. Strongly gram positive
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  263. Que. Diagnosis of E. cuniculi in rats is based on ___________.
    • Ans. Serology
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  264. Que. Screening of rat colonies for E. cuniculi is best done with what technique? Why is this best?
    • Ans. ELISA is the most efficient, because infected colonies normally have a high prevalence.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  265. Que. If screening for E. cuniculi in rats is positive, what is the method for definitive diagnosis?
    • Ans. Histopathology
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  266. Que. What is the primary histopathologic differential diagnosis for E. cuniculi in rats?
    • Ans. Toxoplasmosis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  267. Que. Describe the difference in size and staining attributes between Toxoplasma gondii and Encephalitozoan cuniculi.
    • Ans. T. gondii: 2x4 ?m, stains well with H&E, poor Gram stain
    • E. cuniculi: 1x2 ?m, stains poorly with H&E, good Gram stain
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  268. Que. How is E. cuniculi controlled for in lab animal rats?
    • Ans. By purchasing only animals that are free of the agent and by maintaining them away from infected animals.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  269. Que. What treatment for rats is available for E. cuniculi?
    • Ans. None available
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  270. Que. What research complications have been reported using rats infected with E. cuniculi?
    • Ans. None have been reported, but it is a potentially confounding factor if histopathologic evaluation of the CNS and kidney are part of the study.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  271. Que. True or false: toxoplasmosis develops into fulminant disease in rats, wiping out most colonies.
    • Ans. False: toxoplasmosis in rats is usually subclinical.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  272. Que. Recall what the definitive host(s) of Toxoplasma gondii is/are.
    • Ans. Domestic cat and other felids.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  273. Que. What role does the rat serve in the transmission of T. gondii?
    • Ans. Like other vertebrates, the rat is an intermediate host.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  274. Que. How does the rat become infected with T. gondii?
    • Ans. Ingestion of cat feces; also, by ingesting other infected intermediate hosts (i.e., horizontal transmission, but this is rare in well-managed rat colonies).
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  275. Que. True or false: rats may transmit T. gondii infection vertically.
    • Ans. True, but only very poorly.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  276. Que. In order for a rat colony to remain chronically infected with T. gondii, cat feces would have to be: a) introduced only once into the colony; b) introduced to only pregnant dams in the colony; or c) introduced repeatedly into the colony.
    • Ans. c) introduced repeatedly into the colony.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  277. Que. True or false: T. gondii is an organism of little current significance in research facilities.
    • Ans. True; because of its transmission through cat feces, well-run facilities do not have a problem with T. gondii in rat colonies.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  278. Que. True or false: Of the flagellates Entamoeba muris, Spironucleus muris, and Giardia spp., S. muris presents the most significant health problem in rat colonies.
    • Ans. False; although enteric flagellates have been reported in rats, none are of any significance.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  279. Que. Describe briefly the life cycle of the enteric flagellates in rats and list the mode of transmission.
    • Ans. Mode of transmission: fecal-oral route
    • Life cycle: Direct; trophozoites, the feeding form, are present in the gut. Reproduction is asexual and produces resistant cyst forms, which are shed in the feces.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  280. Que. Besides rats, what other rodents will S. muris colonize?
    • Ans. Mice and hamsters
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  281. Que. Where is S. muris usually found in the rat gut?
    • Ans. S. muris inhabits glandular crypts and the lumen of the small intestine.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  282. Que. True or false: like mice, rats under 6 weeks of age are more susceptible to S. muris infection.
    • Ans. Suspected true, but there is no definitive data on age-infection relationships in rats.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  283. Que. True or false: rats should not be housed with other rodent species largely because of easy transmission of S. muris within the colony.
    • Ans. False; isolates of S. muris from rats are not infective to hamsters, immunocompetent mice, or athymic nude mice. Similarly rats were not colonized by isolates from mice or hamsters.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  284. Que. What types of environmental and chemical resistance have the cysts of S. muris demonstrated?
    • Ans. S. muris has shown resistance to: drying (room temp x 14d); freezing (-20 ?C x 6 months); pH of 2.2 for 1 day; or 0.1% glutaraldehyde for 1 hr.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  285. Que. How is Spironucleus muris infection diagnosed in the rat?
    • Ans. By examination of wet mounts on duodenal scrapings of weanling rats. Phase-contrast microscopy is helpful for seeing trophozoites. ID is based on size (3-4 x 10-15 ?m) and characteristic rolling motion of the flagellated trophozoites.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  286. Que. True or false: the cysts of S. muris trophozoites may only be observed in wet mounts of duodenal tissue.
    • Ans. False; cysts may be observed in fecal smears.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  287. Que. Describe the physical attributes of a S. muris cyst seen on a wet mount.
    • Ans. Size = 4 x 7 ?m; characteristic banding pattern noted.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  288. Que. Besides rats, Giardia muris colonizes which other species?
    • Ans. A wide variety of mammalian hosts, including mice, hamsters and humans.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  289. Que. What is the Giardia species usually found in humans?
    • Ans. G. duodenalis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  290. Que. How are G. muris and G. duodenalis related?
    • Ans. G. muris may be a form of G. duodenalis.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  291. Que. Considering the close relationship between G. muris and G. duodenalis, is G. muris considered a zoonotic agent for humans?
    • Ans. Although the potential exists, there does appear to be some host specificity. G. muris isolated from mice and hamsters did not produce infection in rats.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  292. Que. How do the trophozoites of Giardia spp. attach to the surface of the intestinal epithelial cells?
    • Ans. Attachment is via a surface membrane mannose-binding lectin. Formerly it was believed they attached via a flat suction disk (not true anymore). Attachment can occur on any point on the parasite surface, without requiring the disk.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  293. Que. For how long have Giradia spp. cysts remained infective in shed feces?
    • Ans. Cysts stored in liquid feces have remained infective for at least 1 year.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  294. Que. True or false: no naturally occurring clinical disease has been reported in rats infected with G. muris.
    • Ans. True
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  295. Que. Rats infected experimentally with G. lamblia and G. duodenalis showed evidence of infection in what manner?
    • Ans. Secretion of specific immunoglobulin A into the bile was noted.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  296. Que. How is Giardia spp. infection diagnosed in the rat?
    • Ans. Wet mounts of small intestinal tissue; look for trophozoites.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  297. Que. Describe the physical characteristics of Giardia spp. trophozoites seen on a wet mount of rat intestine.
    • Ans. Trophozoites will measure 7-13 x 5-10 ?m. Look for characteristic teardrop shape; broad, rounded anterior tapering to pointed posterior end; slight curvature towards ventral side cause the motion of the multiple flagella to impart a rolling motion.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 4, p. 148
  298. Que: Three species of oxyurid nematodes (pinworms) occur in the rat, Syphacia muris, Syphacia obvelata and Aspicularis tetraptera. Which one occurs most frequently in the rat.
    • Ans: Trichosomoides crassicauda
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, pg 149.
  299. Que: What is the name of the trichurid nematode found only in the urinary bladder of the rat.
    • Ans:
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, pg 149.
  300. Que: There are four physical / physiologic differences which can be used to differentiate Syphacia muris and Aspicularis tetraptera. What are the four differences.
    • Ans: 1.
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, pg 149.
  301. Que. For which of the following nematode rat parasites is the male anatomically degenerate and exists symbiotically in the vagina or uterus of the female ?
    • Ans. Trichosomoides crassicauda
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p150
  302. Que. Which of the following methods is purported to be most reliable in the diagnosis of Trichosomoides crassucauda infestation in killed rats?
    • Ans. microscopic examination of cryostat sections stained with acridine orange and scanning electron microscopy
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p150
  303. Que. True or False ??? The etiologic role of high doses of saccharin in the diet causing bladder tumors in the rat has been supported in more recent studies.
    • Ans. False
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p150
  304. Que. Proliferative changes in the uroepithelium of rats caused by Trichosomoides crassicauda infestation are identical to those produced early in carcinogenesis by chemical compounds such as ____________.
    • Ans.N-mtheylnitrosourea (MNU)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p150
  305. Which cestode of rats has an indirect life cycle, utilizes an intermediate host and is not zoonotic?
    • Ans. Hymenolepis diminuta.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p150
  306. Which of the following can serve as an intermediate host for tapeworm infection?
    • Ans. Both D and E are correct. Tenebrio molitor and T. obscurus � grain beetles; fleas�Pulex irritans, Ctenocephalus canis and Xenopsylla cheopis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p150
  307. Diagnosis of cestode infection is best achieved by which of the following techniques ?
    • Ans. direct exam of the small intestine, observation of the eggs (�rice grains�) in the feces, smear or fecal flotation, histopathology
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p150
  308. Que. Infection with Hymenolepis nana and H. diminuta is most common in recently weaned rats and (is / is not) zoonotic?
    • Ans. is.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.04, p0151
  309. Que. Taenia taeniaformis , aka __________, is found in the livers of rats, mice, and hamsters and can be up to several centimeters in size. They are generally considered to be nonpathogenic but may be associated with __________. The definitive host is the __________.
    • Ans. cysticercus fasciolaris; hepatic sarcoma; cat
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.04, p0151
  310. Que. Numerous trematodes including , __________, __________, __________ are found in wild rats ( and can be zoonotic) but are NOT considered significant in lab rats?
    • Ans. Plagiorchis muris, P. philippinensis, P. javensis.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.04, p0151
  311. Que. __________ is the only ectoparasite of rats likely to be encountered in a laboratory animal environment?
    • Ans. Radfordia ensifera.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.04, p0151
  312. Que. Ivermectin can be used to eliminate Radfordia ensifera in the rat but is ineffective against which stage of this parasites life cycle?
    • Ans. eggs (which can persist in the environment for long periods).
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.04, p0151
  313. Que. Pediculosis in the lab rat is rare and caused by __________, which is the vector for __________?
    • Ans. Polyplax spinulosa; Heamobartonella muris.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.04, p0151
  314. Que. Pneumocystis carinii is classified as a _________based upon DNA base sequences.
    • Ans. fungus
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p152
  315. Que. P. carinii is latently present in the lungs of immunocompetent laboratory rats and what other species?
    • Ans. Humans. It causes pneumonitis in hosts that are severely immunosuppressed.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p152
  316. Que. The immunocompromised rat is commonly used as a model for what?
    • Ans. P. carinii pneumonitis that occurs in AIDS patients.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p152
  317. Que. True or False. P. carinii is naturally acquired by rats through airborne transmission.
    • Ans. True. It is commonly present latently in rats from both conventional and barrier-maintained commercial sources.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p152
  318. Que. What stain would you use to demonstrate P. carinii fungal cysts within the alveoli of rats?
    • Ans. methenamine silver
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p152
  319. Que. List the four stages of Pneumocystis carinii�s life cycle in the rat.
    • Ans. trophozoite, precyst, cyst, and sporozoites that develop within cysts
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p152
  320. Que. For which metabolic disease is the Zucker rat used as a model?
    • Ans. obesity
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p152
  321. Que. Which strain/stock of rat is used as a model for diabetes?
    • Ans. BB rat
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p152
  322. Que. Which strains/stocks of rat are used as a model for hypertension?
    • Ans. SHR, fawn-hooded, and Dahl rats
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p152
  323. Que. Control of P. carinii pneumonitis in immunocompromised rats can be achieved by treating with what medication?
    • Ans. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p152
  324. Que. True or False. Dermatomycosis (ringworm) due to Trichophyton mentagrophytes has been reported in wild and laboratory rats.
    • Ans. True. However, it has not been reported in laboratory rats for many years.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p152
  325. Que. In rats, what is the clinical presentation of dermatomycosis?
    • Ans. patchy hair loss and scurfy or erythematous popular-pustular lesions
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p152
  326. Que. Dietary deficiencies are uncommon in rats due to the following reasons: __________________ and ability to store ___________ vitamins and vitamin B____, manufacture Vitamin ____ and can fulfill many of their requirements for other B vitamins by _____________.
    • Ans. High-quality commercial diets, fat-soluble, 12, C, coprophagy
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p153
  327. Que. ____________ and _____________ can cause deterioration of diet preparations.
    • Ans. Autoclaving, prolonged storage
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p153
  328. Que. True or false. Diets designed for maintenance of adult rodents may be used for optimal growth of young animals and successful reproduction.
    • Ans. False
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p153
  329. Que. Sign of severe deficiency of Vitamin ____ would include squamous metaplasia of salivary ducts.
    • Ans. A
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p153
  330. Que. Sign of severe Vitamin K deficiency would include ______________
    • Ans. Disseminated hemorrhage
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p153
  331. Que. Signs of severe Vitamin E deficiency would include ___________ and ____________
    • Ans. Embryonic death and testicular degeneration
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 4, p153
  332. Que. Besides calories and specific nutrients, other feed qualities that must be considered are ____________, __________, ____________ and __________.
    • Ans. Contaminating chemicals, microbes, size, hardness of pellets
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed, Ch. 4, p 153
  333. Que. Categories of husbandry that can cause a number of health problems if not properly managed are ____________, ____________, _____________ and ______________.
    • Ans. Sanitation, bedding, air quality, and human caretakers
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch 4, p 153
  334. Que. ______________content of bedding leads to rapid growth of bacteria, which can increase the incidence of urinary tract infections and, possibly, mastitis and skin lesions.
    • Ans. High moisture
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch 4, p 153
  335. Que. ___________ bedding materials emit aromatic compounds that may increase hepatic microsomal levels.
    • Ans. softwood
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch 4, p 153
  336. Que. Air quality should include factors such as _____________, __________, ___________, ___________, ___________- and _____________
    • Ans. Ammonia, other bedding gases, dusts, fungal spores, disinfectant vapors, pollutants
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch 4, 153
  337. Que. Some bacterial species that can be transmitted to rats by humans include __________, _____________, ______________, ____________, ___________,
    • ________________.
    • Ans. Streptococcus spp, Staphylococcus spp, Escherichia coli, Klebsiella sp, Pseudomonas spp, Campylobacter spp
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch 4, p 153
  338. Que. Rats are sensitive to changes in their environment including the following: __________, __________, _____________, and ____________
    • Ans. Temperature, humidity, noise, light , room activity
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch 4, p 153
  339. Que. ____________ is primarily a condition of young rats due to relative humidity of _____________
    • Ans. Ringtail, less than 40%
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch 4, p 153
  340. Que. Hearing range of rats has been given as ___________ kHz and many vocalizations are in the _____________ range
    • Ans. 0.25-76, ultrasonic
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch 4, p153
  341. Que. Rats, especially albino rats are susceptible to ______________ when exposed to ________light levels above a threshold of between 130 and 270 lux.
    • Ans. Retinal degeneration, ambient
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch 4, p 153
  342. Que. Recommended room light levels are _________lux, measured at ______ above the floor.
    • Ans. 325 � 400, 1 meter
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch 4, p 153
  343. Que. Exposure to very high light levels of 1600 lux for 12 hours each day for 8 days resulted in necrosis of ________________.
    • Ans. Hardarian glands
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch 4, p 153
  344. Que. Traumatic and iatrogenic diseases in rats can result in an ulcerative dermatitis caused by ______________.
    • Ans. Staphylococcus aureus.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p154
  345. Que. Adynamic ileus may be induced by the intraperitoneal administration of ________.
    • Ans. Chloral hydrate.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p154
  346. Que. The most frequent tumor observed in two-year-old male F-344 (CDF/CrlBR) rats are _________ cell tumors of the testis.
    • Ans. Interstitial.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p154
  347. Que. The most frequent tumor observed in two-year-old female Sprague-Dawley (Crl:CDBR) rats are _________ of the pituitary gland involving the _______.
    • Ans. Adenoma/carcinoma, pars distalis.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p154
  348. Que. The most frequently observed tumor in most stocks and strains of rats are _________ ________ tumors.
    • Ans. Mammary gland.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p154
  349. Que. Sprague-Dawley stocks have the highest incidence of mammary gland tumors whereas the _________, an inbred strain, has a relatively low incidence.
    • Ans. F-344.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p154
  350. Que. Streptococcus pneumoniae is transmitted primarily via ________ route.
    • Ans. Aerosol.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p154
  351. Que. Among the environmental influences, diet has been found to be an extremely important factor in modulating tumor prevalence. A __________ reduction in food intake as found to significantly reduce overall tumor incidence in both male and female Wistar rats.
    • Ans. 20%.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p154
  352. Que. What is the most common testicular tumor in rats? What do they look like? Are these tumors common in rats? What strains most susceptible?
    • Ans. Interstitial cell (Leydig cell). Discrete, soft, yellow to brown. Uncommon in rats EXCEPT for aged F344 rats, where incidence is about 80%..
    • Ref. LAM 2d ed., Ch. 4, p. 155.
  353. Que. Are pituitary tumors common in rats ? Which strains most susceptible ? What is most common tumor type and what does it look like ? What clinical signs can they cause ?
    • Ans. Common in aged rats of SOME strains/stocks. Sprague-Dawley and Wistar most common. Chromophobe adenoma - from pars distalis cells. Vary in size, soft and dark red due to hemorrhagic areas, well-circumscribed. Can cause hydrocephalus due to compression of adjacent brain tissue.
    • Ref. LAM 2d ed., Ch. 4, p. 155.
  354. Que. In general, are Sprague-Dawley rats more or less susceptible to adrenal gland, pancreatic and pituitary tumors than F-344 rats?
    • Ans. More susceptible, overall (with a minor exception). See chart on page 154.
    • Ref. LAM 2d ed., Ch. 4, p. 155.
  355. Que. What is the incidence (approx.) of the following tumors in Sprague-Dawley rats: pituitary, pancreatic adenoma, mammary fibroadenoma ?
    • Ans. 70-80%; 4-8 %; 30%(very approximate, combination of male and female data).
    • Ref. LAM 2d ed., Ch. 4, p. 155.
  356. Que. What strain/stock of rats is most susceptible to developing large granular lymphocytic leukemia (a lymphoreticular system tumor)? What is the approximate incidence ? Are other tumors of this system common in rats ?
    • Ans. F-344 rats; 10-16%; NO.
    • Ref. LAM 2d ed., Ch. 4, p. 155.
  357. Que. What agent is thought to be the cause of large granular lymphocytic leukemia ?
    • Ans. Unlike mice, it is not associated with a retrovirus. No agent was mentioned in the Blue Book.
    • Ref. LAM 2d ed., Ch. 4, p. 155.
  358. Que. In rats, hydronephrosis affects the (right/left) kidney more than the (right/left).
    • Ans. Right; left
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., p156
  359. Que. The most common congenital/hereditary anomaly of the central nervous system of the rat is ______________________.
    • Ans. Dilation of the cerebral ventricles (hydrocephalus)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., p156
  360. Que. Seizures have been reported most frequently in various Wistar rat stocks. Wistar rats are especially used in investigation of what type of seizure?
    • Ans. Audiogenic
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., p156
  361. Que. Albino rats are predisposed to development of retinal atrophy as a result of their lack of what structure?
    • Ans. Pigmented tapetum
    • Ref. LAM. 2nd ed., p156
  362. Que. Eosinophilic granulomatous pulmonary inflammation has a high incidence in what type of rat?
    • Ans. Brown Norway rat
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., p156
  363. Que: What is the most important age-related disease of rat kidneys and is among the most common cause of death in a rats lifetime studies?
    • Ans: Chronic progressive nephropathy (CPN).
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p157
  364. Que: Name other synonyms for CPN.
    • Ans: Chronic progressive nephrosis and old rat nephropathy.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.157
  365. Que: What sex is more commonly predisposed to CPN?
    • Ans: males
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.157
  366. Que: Gross lesions of CPN are observed in what age group of rats?
    • Ans: Rats more than 6 months of age.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.157
  367. Que: What is hypothesized to greatly reduce the incidence and severity of CPN in rats?
    • Ans: moderate dietary restriction. It is hypothesized that 25-30%reduction in caloric intake, relative to ad libitum, results in decrease incidence and severity of CPN.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.157
  368. Que: What is defined as the deposition of calcium phosphate in renal tissue?
    • Ans: Nephrocalcinosis
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.157
  369. Que: In rats, what sex is more commonly predisposed to nephrocalcinosis?
    • Ans: females
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.157
  370. Que: What rat strain has an especially high incidence of nephrocalcinosis?
    • Ans: BDIX
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.157
  371. Que: What dietary manipulations may increase the incidence and severity of nephrocalcinosis?
    • Ans: High level of Ca, high levels of P, low Ca/P ratios or low Mg levels.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.157
  372. Que: Nephrocalcinosis in rats most frequently has mineral deposition in what area of the kidney?
    • Ans: Corticomedullary junction
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.157
  373. Que: An age-related disease that is a major cause of death in aged male rats with gross lesions of an enlarged heart with occasional visible pale streaks is most likely due to what condition?
    • Ans: Chronic myocardial disease
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.157
  374. Que: What are other synonyms for chronic myocardial disease?
    • Ans: Cardiomyopathy, chronic progressive cardiomyopathy
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.157
  375. Que: What are the most commonly affected sites in chronic myocardial disease of rats?
    • Ans: papillary muscles and interventricular septum
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p.157
  376. Que. As is with chronic progessive nephropathy, the incidence of chronic progressive cardiomyopathy can be dramatically __________ at any age by moderate dietary restriction.
    • Ans. reduced
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p158
  377. Que. Changes in skin and pelage are often observed but rarely reported in __________ laboratory rats.
    • Ans. geriatric
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p158
  378. Que. The most common geriatric change is thinning or loss of hair and it is especially common in the __________ rat.
    • Ans. Brown Norway
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p158
  379. Que. Old albino rats also have a more yellow appearance at times because of the accumulation of __________ in the skin.
    • Ans. sebum
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p138
  380. Que. The rings of scales covering a rat�s tail increase in number with age to __________ at 1 year.
    • Ans. 190
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p158
  381. Que. Yellowish material which accumulates on the tail of the rat and adjacent to the ear also may become black with time, probably from ___________ and/or bacterial action.
    • Ans. oxidation
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p158
  382. Que. Male rats accumulate brown-pigmented foci on skin, termed __________ which can be detached and can overlay skin of normal color. They are found on the dorsum, with some on the tail and perineum.
    • Ans. scales
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p158
  383. Que. Scale formation can be abrogated by __________ .
    • Ans. gonadectomy
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p158
  384. Que. __________ is a very common incidental finding in the lung of aging rats of many stocks and strains.
    • Ans. Alveolar histiocytosis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p158
  385. Que. Alveolar histiocytosis should not be mistaken for ___________ pneumonia of rats, because affected animals are seronegative, and any lymphoid infiltrate is slight and localized to the areas of macrophage aggregation.
    • Ans. viral
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p158
  386. Que.Grossly, __________ is visible as white to pale tan foci, usually 1 mm in diameter, visible on the pleural surface. Microscopically clusters of alveoli contain increased numbers of large, pale, foamy-appearing macrophages. Occasionally, cholesterol clefts may be visible in the more dense aggregates of macrophages.
    • Ans.Alveolar histocytosis
    • Ref.LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.4, p158

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