CDC Study Guide

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CDC Study Guide
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  1. What is the purpose of the DMA controller?
    To reduce this waste and free the CPU for other work, another chip is installed on the system board and works in conjunction with the CPU. This chip is the DMA controller; its only function is to move data.
  2. Which original component was very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?
    Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
  3. Which component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed?
    Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
  4. What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?
    Read-only memory (RAM)
  5. What is a form of firmware that contains the computer�s startup instructions?
    Basic input output system (BIOS)
  6. What static RAM (SRAM) uses special applications in a CPU?
    Cache
  7. On most modern computers, which has two or three levels of memory?
    Cache
  8. Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as polling.
  9. Define an interrupt.
    An interrupt is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention (from the CPU) or a synchronous event in a software application program indicating the need for a change in execution.
  10. How are interrupts commonly used?
    Interrupts are a commonly used technique for computer multitasking, especially in real-time computing.
  11. Describe data integrity in a simple manner.
    Put simply, data integrity is described as the assurance that data is consistent, correct, and accessible.
  12. What is parity?
    Parity is a method in which the computer ensures the data it processes is accurate.
  13. The difference between ECC memory and the parity method?
    The difference between ECC memory and the parity method is that ECC can both detect and correct errors.
  14. What interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?
    6
  15. Which term describes that data is whole or complete?
    Data integrity
  16. What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?
    Parity bit
  17. Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?
    Parity bit
  18. What component initializes communication with all hardware devices and sends a message if a keyboard or mouse is not found?
    Basic input output system (BIOS)
  19. Which is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices?
    Driver
  20. Explain what occurs to electrons when two materials are joined together.
    When two materials are joined together, electrons are given off from one of the materials to the other material. This changes the balance of charge on the two materials so that one material becomes positively charged and the other becomes negatively charged.
  21. How long does static electricity remain intact?
    Static electricity remains intact until discharged by either a slow current drain or a high current spark.
  22. How are ESD items separated into different classes?
    According to their sensitivity to electrostatic charges.
  23. What are sensitivity ranges of the three classes of ESD items?
    Class I � Those items sensitive to less than 1000 volts.
  24. What represents the hazard to the devices?
    Class II � Those items sensitive from 1000, but less than 3999 volts.
  25. What do you wear to eliminate conducting electricity to the workbench?
    Class III � Those items sensitive from 4000, but less than 15000 volts.
  26. What is a good rule of thumb when working with hand tools and ESDS devices?
    It is not the potential to ground that presents the hazard to the device, but the voltage difference between the two potentials that is the culprit.
  27. What is the first step you always follow when installing or removing an ESDS device?
    To further ensure that the workstation is completely free of static charges, wear some type of conductive wrist strap that is connected through a relatively high resistance to earth ground.
  28. Which symbol identifies ESD devices?
    Ensure all hand tools are properly grounded prior to use.
  29. What measure would you take to prevent the buildup of static electricity?
    Ground the electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device.
  30. What is the first step you must take when either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device?
    Turn the power switch to the off position.
  31. List the four logical steps in troubleshooting.
    1-Define the problem; 2-Isolate the problem; 3-Resolve the problem; 4-Confirm the resolution
  32. Why is it a good idea to have some organizational aids in hand before you begin to disassemble any piece of equipment?
    Because some troubleshooting problems may require more than one session, it�s a good idea to have some organizational aids in hand before you begin to disassemble any piece of equipment.
  33. As a general rule, to what can we reduce the majority of all equipment problems?
    As a general rule, you can reduce the majority of all equipment problems to the simplest things you can think of.
  34. What is one of the first things you must do if you are not personally familiar with a system?
    One of the first things to do if you are not personally familiar with the system is to eliminate the user as a possible source of the problem.
  35. What should you do after you perform each correctional step?
    As a matter of fact, try to restart the system after you perform each correctional step.
  36. What do most common software troubleshooting packages test?
    The most common software troubleshooting packages test the system�s memory, microprocessor, keyboard, display monitor, and the disk drive�s speed.
  37. The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of an operational failure and how to prevent it from recurring is called fault isolation.
  38. In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are present?
    Define the problem
  39. In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?
    Isolate the problem
  40. In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes?
    Resolve the problem
  41. In which troubleshooting step would you review the case history and assure no steps were missed?
    Confirm the resolution.
  42. What is normally the next step in the boot up process after initial power is applied?
    The keyboard lights should flash.
  43. What is normally the next step in the boot up process after the basic input output system (BIOS) message appears on the monitor?
    A memory test should be visible on the monitor.
  44. Normally the last step in the boot up process is the operating system (OS) loads into memory and user interface appears.
  45. What is usually the first step in hardware troubleshooting?
    Usually the first step in hardware troubleshooting is peripheral elimination. This means to disconnect peripheral hardware one at a time in search of the problem peripheral device.
  46. Describe signs of computer components overheating.
    When electronic components overheat, they produce a noticeable odor, so you may be able to do some troubleshooting with your nose.
  47. What are FRUs?
    FRUs are the portions of the system that are conveniently replaced in the field.
  48. What does FRU troubleshooting involve?
    FRU troubleshooting involves isolating a problem within one section of the system. A section consists of one device such as a keyboard, video display, video adapter card, I/O adapter card, system board, disk drive or printer.
  49. Why is it often helpful to simply reseat connections and adapter cards in the expansion slots when a problem occurs?
    Corrosion may build up on the computer�s connection points and cause a poor electrical contact to occur. When you reseat the connection, the contact problem often disappears.
  50. Name four components you can replace in a desktop computer.
    There are many components that can be upgraded or replaced within the computer. This includes but is not limited to the motherboard, the microprocessor, RAM modules, hard drives, and the floppy drives.
  51. What is the easiest hardware installation on a computer?
    Upgrading or replacing memory is perhaps the easiest installation you will accomplish.
  52. What can detect if central processing unit (CPU) hardware problem exist?
    Power-on-self-test (POST)
  53. When troubleshooting hardware, one simple method of identifying cables is to place masking tape to the cables and connection points.
  54. What is a major portion of a COMSEC manager�s job?
    Training those individuals who are responsible for the COMSEC program within their units.
  55. List fours types of publications that are used in COMSEC operations.
    AFPDs, AFMANs, AFIs, AFSSIs, AFSSMs, General COMSEC publications
  56. Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government?
    DIRNSA � Director National Security Agency
  57. Who appoints a COMSEC manager?
    Wing/Installation Commander
  58. Who is responsible for achieving an installation�s secure communications posture?
    The COMSEC Manager
  59. List the two main points to remember about security containers.
    • 1 � the combination to any security container is the same classification as the highest classification of material contained within that container.
    • 2 � never store items that could be the target of thieves in any security container used for the storage of COMSEC material.
  60. What does a controlling authority do?
    Oversees and manages the operational use and control of COMSEC material.
  61. Which type of COMSEC material requires the most strenuous accounting practices?
    ALC-1
  62. What rank must primary communications security responsible officers (CRO) hold?
    SSgt
  63. Who has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified?
    Communications security (COMSEC) managers
  64. After received their initial educations in communication security (COMSEC) account management, how often must communications security responsible officer�s (CRO) be trained to remain qualified to manage their account?
    Annually
  65. To ensure communications security responsible officers (CRO) are complying with applicable directives and accounting for the communications security (COMSEC) material under their control, the COMSEC manager is required to inspect their accounts at least semi-annually.
  66. Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government?
    Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA)
  67. What is the classification of the combination to any security container?
    Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container
  68. The operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC) material is overseen and managed by a controlling authority.
  69. This communications security (COMSEC) material requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number.
    Accounting legend code (ALC)-1
  70. This communications security (COMSEC) material is accounted for continuously by quantity.
    ALC-2
  71. This communications security (COMSEC) material is not required to be tracked on the daily or shift inventory.
    ALC-4
  72. What are three forms which a COMSEC manager must prepare each month?
    SF 701, Activity Security Checklist; SF 702, Security Container Check-sheet; AF Form 1109, Visitor Register
  73. For what is the AF Form 1109, Visitor Register, used?
    Use to record access to COMSEC material by persons not on the authorized access lest (EAL).
  74. Why do we establish access lists?
    To designate personnel who require frequent access to COMSEC material.
  75. When must you change security container combinations?
    When placed either in or out of service. When an individual is no longer authorized access. Annually. If the container is found open, but was certified as having been locked. Following repair of the container that does not degrade the container�s integrity. If there�s a possibility that the combination has been compromised.
  76. When is a daily security check required on COMSEC material? Why is it required? Where are the results of the security inspection recorded?
    At the end of each workday or shift. To ensure that all classified COMSEC material is properly stored and safeguarded. Record the results of the security inspection on SF 701.
  77. What is the purpose of an access list?
    It establishes a person�s right and need to know.
  78. This form is considered a daily physical security inventory for your environments.
    SF 701
  79. What form do you fill out and affix to the inside of the locking drawer when you change a safe combination?
    SF 700
  80. At a minimum, how often do you change a cipher lock combination?
    Monthly
  81. What form is normally used to record daily, shift, or other local inventories of COMSEC material?
    AFCOMSEC Form 16
  82. List the inventory requirement for each category of accounting legend code material.
    • ALC-1 � inventory material by short title, edition, accounting control number, and quantity.
    • ALC-2 � accounted for continuously, just as ALC-1, except you inventory and account by quantity rather than by the accounting control number.
    • ALC-4 � this material is not required to be accounted for on the daily or shift inventory.
  83. What is the preferred method of listing material on the AFCOMSEC Form 16?
    You should arrange the list of material alphabetically by short title, then numerically, showing the edition, quantity, and the accounting control number.
  84. When must you reconcile any discrepancies noted while conducting the inventory of COMSEC material?
    Immediately
  85. Why is the COMSEC manager required to conduct inventories?
    To ensure proper accountability of COMSEC material between the COMSEC account and the COR at the CPSG.
  86. Which COMSEC items are required to be semiannually inventoried?
    ALC-1 and ALC-2 items that have not been placed into effect.
  87. How does the COMSEC manager inventory accountable COMSEC items if he/she is geographically located in a distant location from those COMSEC items?
    Ask the user to verify its holdings by letter or message.
  88. List the distribution for the semiannual inventory report.
    Send the original copy of CPSG. Copy two will be sent to your MAJCOM. The third copy is filed in the account record file.
  89. What is the preferred method for listing material on the Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16?
    Alphabetically by short title
  90. Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus how many previous months of inventory?
    6
  91. If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the communications security (COMSEC) manager asks the user to verify his/her holding by letter or message.
  92. Who establishes the semi-annual inventory date for each communications security?
    Cryptologic support group (CPSG)
  93. What is a COMSEC user?
    Any individual or unit required to use and safeguard COMSEC aids in the performance of official duties.
  94. Define COMSEC aids.
    Specific COMSEC material other than equipment, such as keying material, codes, call signs, and so forth.
  95. Where are requests for COMSEC equipment processed through?
    The Standard Base Supply System (SBSS).
  96. List the different databases used to track each CRO account.
    Communications security management (CM2).
  97. What are two ways you can receive classified COMSEC material?
    • 1 � the DCS
    • 2 � the US Postal System
  98. If there is a discrepancy in the classification marking or received COMSEC material, what do you do?
    Send a message to the originator, keep the wrappers, and await disposition instructions.
  99. At a minimum, what is the difference of transfer report copies for received COMSEC material?
    Return one copy to CPSG, send one copy to the MAJCOM, and put one copy in Folder 1 of the COMSEC account file.
  100. The individual who is required to use and safeguard communications security (COMSEC) aids while performing official duties is the user.
  101. What is the term used when referring to specific communications security (COMSEC) material other than equipment?
    Aids
  102. Where does the next unused voucher number come from that is used on transfer reports?
    Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 14.
  103. How do you determine which COMSEC materials to issue to each CRO account?
    By consulting the COMSEC account data base (UCM2).
  104. What form is used as a hand receipt when issuing COMSEC aids to a CRO?
    SF 153
  105. Before the use being authorized to pick up COMSEC material, on what topics must the COMSEC account manager train the CRO?
    On individual user responsibilities to provide adequate storage facilities for the material, continuous safeguarding, proper destruction, administrative procedures, and the reporting of all COMSEC incidents to the COMSEC account manager.
  106. When may hand receipts for COMSEC issued material be destroyed?
    When a properly executed destruction certificate is received from the CRO or the material is returned to the COMSEC account.
  107. In which phase does the communications security (COMSEC) manager determine which materials the communications security responsible (CRO) officer needs?
    Preparation
  108. In which phase does the communications security responsible officer (CRO) check the material issues against the list on the SF 153.
    • Distribution
    • What should each communications security responsible officer (CRO) do before signing the communications security (COMSEC) hand receipt?
    • Ensure the required COMSEC material is listed on the SF 153 and ready for issue.
  109. Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to transient aircrews.
  110. When transferring or shipping COMSEC material, the COMSEC account manager is responsible for what four duties?
    • 1 � obtaining approval for the transfer of material.
    • 2 � ensuring the COMSEC aids are properly prepared for shipment.
    • 3 � ensuring only authorized means of shipment are used.
    • 4 � submitting accounting and transfer reports on a timely basis.
  111. From whom does a COMSEC account manager get approval for transfer of material? Who should be included as information addresses?
    The controlling authority, NSA, or CPSG. Information addresses include your MAJCOM and CPSG.
  112. What form is normally used as a transfer report of COMSEC material?
    SF 153, COMSEC Material Report
  113. What does the voucher number on the SF 153, COMSEC Material Report, consist of?
    A voucher number consists of the last two digits of the current year, a dash, and the next consecutive number from the AFCOMSEC Form 14.
  114. What term suggests movement of material from one place to another by someone with an active interest in that material?
    Transport
  115. What is the maximum number of different actions that can be accomplished on a single SF 153?
    1
  116. What are some exceptions to the rule of destroying superseded keying material within 12 hours?
    Deferring destruction to the first duty hour following night supersession, or deferring to the first duty hour following a weekend or a holiday weekend supersession.
  117. How many people must be present to destroy, witness, and sign the destruction certificate of COMSEC material? What are the duty titles of these people?
    Two; destruction official and witness
  118. List some approved methods for destroying COMSEC material.
    Pulping, crosscut shredding, chopping, or pulverizing.
  119. What form is commonly used as a destruction certificate of communications security (COMSEC) material?
    SF 153
  120. In which folder of the communications security (COMSEC) account 6-part folder are destruction certificates filed?
    6
  121. Who originates dissemination for COMSEC material?
    CPSG
  122. What should the COMSEC manager do if a CRO does not respond in picking up a dissemination message?
    Inform the individual�s commander as soon as possible and make a MFR of the sequence of events.
  123. If the user fails to respond in a reasonable amount of time, how can this affect the mission?
    The mission and critical communication could be affected in regards to security damage. Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message constitute a cryptographic incident.
  124. Whenever communications security (COMSEC) material needs to be replaced or amended immediately, who develops the original messages for COMSEC accounts by urgent electronic message?
    Cryptologic systems group (CSGP)
  125. Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could constitute in what kind of violation?
    Cryptographic incident
  126. Who is responsible for preparing the EAP for the protection, security, or destruction of COMSEC material in case of an emergency?
    COMSEC Manager
  127. Describe the two categories of emergency situations.
    • 1 � accidental emergencies that include aircraft crashes, vehicle collisions, and natural disasters, such as fire, flood, earthquakes, hurricanes, and so forth.
    • 2 � hostile actions that are intentional; these include enemy attack, civil disturbances, and covert acts such as bomb threats
  128. What are the basic elements of an EAP?
    The classification of material held, names and addresses of point of contact, assignment of definite responsibilities, authorization to implement the plan, and training on the plan. Also include the location of material by storage container and prioritization of material to be destroyed.
  129. Name four areas that must be included in an EAP for accidental situations.
    • 1 � instructions for admitting fire fighters to area containing COMSEC material.
    • 2 � specification of who assumes responsibility for the COMSEC material while the plan is enacted.
    • 3 � identification of what must be either secured or evacuated.
    • 4 � determination of how and when to execute each phase of the plan.
  130. Which units must have both emergency and precautionary destruction plans?
    Units stationed overseas and those subject to deployment overseas.
  131. Name the three options available in planning for emergency destruction of material.
    • 1 � secure the material
    • 2 � remove it from the scene of the emergency
    • 3 � destroy it
  132. Who is ultimately responsible for all emergency actions plans (EAP) on base?
    Communications security manager (CM)
  133. How long do you need to maintain the written documentation of the semiannual emergency action plan (EAP) exercises?
    24 months
  134. What directives are CROs required to follow in administering their COMSEC accounts?
    Air Force and local directives you as the COMSEC manager published.
  135. What Air Force form is used to conduct CRO inspections?
    AF Form 4160, Air Force Information Assurance and Assessment Program Criteria, inspection checklist.
  136. Who must coordinate on CRO COMSEC OIs?
    The base COMSEC manager
  137. AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories must directly correlate with what documents?
    The dates with the SF 153 transfer or destruction certificates.
  138. How long are AFCOMSEC Forms 16 kept and where are they filed?
    AFCOMSEC Forms 16 are kept for six months and you will find six of them in the CRO 6-part folder.
  139. Which Air Force form do communications security managers (CM) use when conduct an inspection of a sub communications security (COMSEC) account?
    4160
  140. What is the maximum time between emergency action plan (EAP) exercises at communications security responsible officers (CRO) accounts?
    6 months
  141. What must personnel working in TPI positions be able to detect?
    Incorrect or unauthorized security procedures concerning the task being performed.
  142. Define TPI.
    A system of storage and handling designed to prohibit individual access to certain COMSEC keying material.
  143. What type of locking device is used in TPI?
    A dual combination X-07 electronic lock.
  144. Define TPC.
    The continuous surveillance and control of nuclear COMSEC material and equipment always by a minimum of two authorized individuals.
  145. What program must an individual be cleared through prior to assuming TPC duty
    The PRP prior to assuming duty.
  146. Who is the approval authority for PRP clearances?
    Commanders of units possessing TPC requirements are the final approval authority for PRP clearances.
  147. Who is usually the TPC team chief?
    Base COMSEC managers
  148. Who is the final approval authority for a person going into two-person control (TPC) positions?
    The commander of the unit holding TPC material
  149. What device is the DoD PKI�s current high assurance mechanism?
    Fortezza cards.
  150. With what Air Force program are Fortezza cards associated?
    DMS
  151. What directory system are users certificates posted to?
    The X.500 directory system
  152. What do CKL identify?
    Certificates that represent a potential security risk
  153. What is used for the generation, management, and distribution of keying material, including programming FORTEZZA cards?
    Certification authority workstation
  154. Define TDC.
    TDC is a state of the art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications via line of sight, satellite, or hard wired resources.
  155. What does the nature of the AEF concept requires us to do in regards to TDC equipment?
    The nature of the AEF concept requires us to reduce the size, increase the flexibility and capacity of deployable communication systems.
  156. What TDC characteristics should and proposed what should TDC equipment strive to have?
    Proposed TDC equipment should strive to have the following characteristics: functionality, modularity/scalability, open system standards, interoperability, mobility, survivability, security, and operability.
  157. What are three major components of TDC?
    LMST, ICAP, NCC-D
  158. Describe the ICAP.
    ICAP is a suite of modules and accessory kits providing the communications backbone for deployed units. The ICAP is comprised of COTS circuit switches, hubs and routers, multiplexers, and on-base transmission (radio and laser) and encryption devices.
  159. How does the LMST meet the requirement to interface with legacy TRI-TAC and new ICAP equipment?
    Commercial industry standard and military specification connectors built into the signal entrance panel and coupled to flexible baseband equipment allow the LMST to interface with legacy TRI-TAC and newer ICAP equipment without modification.
  160. What does NCC-D provide and what is it comprised of?
    NCC-D provides network management, information protection, and network core services for deployed operations. NCC-D is comprised of COTS servers and software packaged in transit cases for deployed operations.
  161. Why is the BAM the center of the TDC ICAP?
    It is the module that all others are added to, to provide communications support.
  162. Why is the P-MUX generally located at the primary hub of a deployed base?
    The P-MUX module is generally located at the primary hub of a deployed base. There it receives data and voice traffic and condense it for more efficient transmission.
  163. What is known as a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure?
    Theater deployable communications (TDC)
  164. What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristics reflects module architecture which comply with established international or commercial communication standards?
    Open system standards
  165. What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristics requires equipment setup times are kept to an absolute minimum to support transportation, deployment, and operations in deployed environment?
    Mobility
  166. What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristic requires equipment be capable of operation/maintenance by personnel wearing nuclear, biological, and chemical protective gear?
    Survivability
  167. What is known as a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of deployed communications networks?
    Integrated communications access package (ICAP).
  168. What is initial communications support designed to provide?
    Initial communications support is designed to provide basic communications to a bare base operation within 72 hours of deployment notification and remain in place for up to 30 days.
  169. Why are communications teams part of the first crews to enter a deployed location?
    For this reason, communications teams are part of the first crew to enter a deployed location. They provide the communicating link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities as well as providing messaging capabilities back to the garrison units.
  170. Why is 30 days a significant time period in communications support?
    The mission of technicians providing sustained communications support is to ensure AEF and AEW commanders have connectivity and an uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field units, in-garrison units, and to command structures for the duration of the contingency.
  171. What is the mission of communications technicians providing sustained communications support?
    Sustained communications support becomes part of the deployments if it extends past 30 days.
  172. Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field units, in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency?
    Sustained communications support teams.
  173. What is the importance of being in exercises in the pre-deployment phase?
    This is the time period where you will be involved in exercises to ensure you are familiar with the deployment process and with your equipment.
  174. What are the two focuses of the establishing services phase?
    The focus will be two-fold: 1 � connect your equipment to the outside world; 2 � connect your customers to you.
  175. What are the two possible destinations in the re-deployment phase?
    1 � relocating back to your home base; 2 � relocating to another deployed location where your services are required.
  176. Who should you notify immediately of any pre-deployment shortfalls?
    Unit deployable manger (UDM) and commander
  177. What phase is concerned with exercises to ensure you are familiar with the deployment process and with your equipment?
    Pre-deployment
  178. What is the Air Force Instruction series that covers network management?
    AFI 33 series
  179. What does AFPD 33-1 establish policy on?
    How C4 systems are acquired, operated, and maintained
  180. AFI 33-104, Base-Level Planning and Implementation, outlines what actions?
    Standardized management practices and tells how to manage planning and implementation of communications and information systems and the base-level infrastructure.
  181. What are the three areas of distributed responsibility?
    Global, regional and local
  182. What Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?
    33
  183. What Air Force publication establishes policy on how C4 system are acquired, operated, and maintained?
    AFPD 33-1
  184. What Air Force publication identifies responsibilities for supporting critical Air Force communications and information networks, primarily through network control centers?
    AFI 33-115, Vol 1
  185. What Air Force publication provides the policy and procedures for certifying network professionals who manage and operate government-provided information systems on Air Force networks?
    Air Force Instruction (AFI) 33-115, Vol 2
  186. What does a rotation in job positions accomplish in an NCC?
    It provides personnel the ability to see all aspects of an NCC. It broadens their job knowledge and also allows for a change in responsibility to boost morale.
  187. What actions fall under the operational control of the NCC?
    Communication and information services entering and exiting the base or site.
  188. What system resolves host names into IP addresses?
    The domain name system.
  189. What function is the base�s focal point for network problem resolution?
    The help desk
  190. What position is the first line of help customers contact to resolve problems?
    The workgroup manager
  191. Within a NCC, who controls all services points to the base network?
    The configuration management function
  192. Define the function of performance management within a NCC.
    Coordinates installation, acceptance testing, quality assurance, fault isolation and restoration of the infrastructure with the base�s other communications unit fuctions.
  193. What are three basic steps to fault management?
    1 � identify the problem; 2 � isolate the cause of the problem; 3 � fix the problem
  194. What organization does communication and information services entering and exiting the base or site fall under the operational control of?
    Base Network Control Center (BNCC)
  195. What function within the Network Control Center provides technical assistance to the unit functional system administrators and workgroup managers?
    Network administration
  196. Whose network area of responsibility starts at the user�s terminal and ends at the server, but does not include the network backbone infrastructure components?
    Unit functional systems administrator
  197. What Air Force Instruction sets the policies that unit client support administrators must comply with?
    AFI 33-115
  198. What Network Control Center function responds to detected security incidents, network faults (errors), and user reported outages at the time of help desk referral?
    Network Management
  199. What Network Control Center function is the central point of contact for network distribution and maintenance/update of an Air Force Compute Emergency Response Team and automated systems security and antivirus software?
    Configuration Management
  200. Performance management can be broken into which two separate functional categories?
    Monitoring and tuning
  201. To determine the level of network service provided to the users, you will make a measurement of the total response time, rejection rate and availability of the network.
  202. What Network Control Center function increases network reliability by giving the network manager tools to detect problems and initiate recovery procedures?
    Fault management
  203. What does Network Security work to ensure about a network?
    Availability, confidentiality, and integrity of data
  204. Why are all jobs (even the ones a HD technician can solve) assigned a job control number?
    To ensure the job can be tracked even after completion
  205. Why are good listening skills important to a HD operator?
    Without good listening skills, we will not be able to understand what the customer is trying to communicate.
  206. Why is communicating over the phone more difficult than in person?
    Communicating over the phone is more difficult than in person, since it is the tone of your voice that will convey your attitude.
  207. What are the seven basic steps to problem solving?
    Define the problem, gather facts, consider the possibilities, create a plan of action, implement the plan of action, and observe the result of each action, repeat.
  208. Which of the following are jobs performed by a help desk technician on a daily basis?
    Network monitoring, account unlocks, and account creations
  209. Within the Network Control Center, what function is initially responsible for taking trouble calls, deciding what type of problem has occurred, and what to do about the problem?
    Help desk
  210. What is one of the most important communications skills you can develop as a help desk operator?
    Listening
  211. What software is used to open trouble tickets for customer trouble calls?
    Remedy
  212. Define the internetwork
    An Internetwork is a set of subnets that are connected with routers.
  213. What does a heterogeneous network environment consist of?
    Heterogeneous network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols.
  214. A network of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system is what kind of network?
    Generally, a homogeneous network is a network of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system.
  215. What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?
    A local area network.
  216. What type of network may be regulated by local and state authorities?
    Metropolitan area network
  217. What type of network usually provides services for 2 to 10 users?
    Peer-to-peer network
  218. How many users does a single server network normally service?
    Single-server network (1-0 to 50 users)
  219. What type of network service 1,000 or more users?
    Enterprise network
  220. What network involves using light, radio or mircro-waves to replace wire or fiver optics as the transmission medium for a local area network?
    Wireless networks
  221. What is a set of subnets that are connected with routers?
    Internetwork
  222. What is a set of systems/nodes on a local segment that can be off a switch or a router?
    Intranetwork
  223. What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?
    Heterogeneous network
  224. What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?
    Homogeneous network
  225. What type of communications network serves users within a confined geographical area?
    Local area network
  226. What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?
    Wide area network
  227. How many users are in a peer-to-peer network?
    2 to 10
  228. How many users are in a single-server network?
    10 to 50
  229. How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?
    250 to 1000
  230. In most cases the frequencies used by wireless networks are in what frequency band?
    Industrial, scientific, and medical (ISM)
  231. Name the three types of media used today for networking.
    They are twisted pair, coaxial cable, and fiber optics cable.
  232. What is the opposition to the flow of electrons in a wire?
    Resistance
  233. What is electrical noise arising from signals on other wires in the cable or other cables?
    Inductive coupling (crosstalk)
  234. What causes signal attenuation in network cables?
    Attenuation is caused by exceedingly long cable segments or by broken/damaged cable.
  235. What Government organization regulates emission in the United States?
    The Federal Communications Commission regulates emission in the United States.
  236. What is the term for a measure of data transferred through the medium between network connections?
    Throughput is a measurement of data transferred through the medium between network connections.
  237. What type of communication transmits information as a serial stream of bits or bytes?
    Asynchronous communication
  238. What form of communication is used when information is transmitted in groups or blocks of data?
    Synchronous communication
  239. Define the three types of communications modes.
    • Simplex: One direction only (common radio communication)
    • Half-duplex: Two directions, one way at a time (walkie-talkie radio)
    • Duplex: Communication goes in both directions simultaneously (phone)
  240. What type of transmission cable media is by far the least expensive type of network media and is also the easiest to install?
    Twisted pair is by far the least expensive type of network media and is also the easiest to install
  241. What are the two most common gauges of cabling used for network purposes?
    22 gauge, and 24 gauge cabling are the two most common types of media
  242. What standard defines 1 Gbps data transfer over distances of up to 100 meters using four pairs of CAT-5 balanced copper cabling?
    1000Base-T
  243. What is the distorting and/or weakening of a signal as it traverses the media called?
    Attenuation
  244. What is a measurement of data transferred through the medium between network connections?
    Throughput
  245. What is a form of communication that transmits information as a serial stream of bits or bytes?
    Asynchronous communication
  246. Which of the following categories or twisted-pair cable has the highest throughput?
    Cat 5
  247. What type of network backbone uses a laser or light-emitting diode (LED) to send a signal through the core portion of the cable?
    A fiber optic network uses a laser or light-emitting diode to send a signal through the core portion of the cable.
  248. In fiber optic cabling what is the principle that keeps the light trapped in the core and allows it to �bend� round curves in the fiber?
    Total internal reflection
  249. What can the pattern of light transmitted through a fiber cable can be translated into?
    Voice, video or data, depending on the type of transmitter and receiver being used.
  250. What type of fiber cable is designed for the LAN environment and light is typically generated with a light emitting diode?
    Multi-mode fiber cable
  251. What mode of fiber is the predominant type of LAN fiber installed within buildings?
    Multi-mode fiber cable
  252. What are the principal advantages of fiber optics with present day transmission technology?
    Sturdiness and security
  253. What are the principal disadvantages of fiber optics for present day LANs?
    Cost and maintenance
  254. A fiber optic network uses a laser or light-emitting diode to send a signal through what portion of the cable?
    Core
  255. Light signals in fiber optic cables can travel distances in excess of how many miles before they need to be boosted?
    100
  256. What type of optic fiber is used to span extremely long distances?
    Single mode
  257. What type of optic fiber is designed for the local area network environment and light is typically generated with a light emitting diode?
    Multi mode
  258. What are the principal advantages of fiber optics with present day transmission technology?
    Sturdiness and security
  259. What network topology consists of a single central cable to which all computers and other devices connect?
    A bus network consists of a single central cable to which all computers and other devices connect
  260. What is the greatest risk to a bus network?
    The bus itself might become inoperable
  261. On what type of network topology must the nodes contend (compete) with each other for the use of the backbone?
    The nodes on a bus network must contend (compete) with each other for the use of the bus
  262. On what type of network topology does the data travels to each computer on the network until it reaches its destination?
    A ring network topology
  263. What is the main disadvantage of the star topology?
    Its reliance on a central node for performing almost all the functions of the network
  264. What type of topology is advantageous in hostile environments in which connections are easily broken?
    The mesh topology
  265. Define a hybrid topology.
    A group of star-configured networks, connected to a linear bus backbone
  266. What is the data rate capacity for FDDI networks?
    FDDI has a data rate capacity of 100Mbps
  267. What is the maximum distance of a FDDI network?
    FDDI has a maximum distance of 100 kilometers (60 miles)
  268. What network topology consists of a single central cable to which all computers and other devices connect?
    Bus
  269. What is the greatest risk to a bus network?
    The bus itself becoming inoperable
  270. On what network topology, can multiple transmit frames co-exist?
    Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI)
  271. Name the three lower layers of the OSI model.
    Layer 1 � the physical layer; Layer 2 � the data link layer; Layer 3 � the network layer
  272. Describe the physical layer.
    The physical layer is a set of rules regarding the hardware used to transmit data. It also includes descriptions of the acceptable connectors and interfaces to the media.
  273. Name three of the functions of the data link layer.
    Any three of the following: provides the grammar by which machines converse with each other; serves as a vehicle for information transmission; defines the initialization and finalization procedures; decides who talks who listens; ensures error-free data transmission.
  274. Which layer provides a routing path through a network by which users can communicate?
    The network layer
  275. The X.25 standard is designed for what kind of switching technique?
    Packet switching
  276. Name the four upper layers of the OSI model.
    Layer 4 � the transport layer; Layer 5 � the session layer; Layer 6 � the presentation layer; Layer 7 � the application layer
  277. What is one of the main functions of the transport layer?
    Error recognition and recovery
  278. With which layer do users directly communicate?
    The session layer
  279. Define checkpointing.
    This involves periodically inserting points into the data from which any recovery necessary can be started.
  280. What is the presentation layer of the OSI model concerned with?
    Network security, file transfers, and formatting functions
  281. What are some of the things you may find at the Application layer level?
    Database management programs, electronic mail, file server, and print server programs, and the command-and-response language of the operating system.
  282. What is the major Department of Defense contribution to network?
    The Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol Suite
  283. What is a set of rules that define how communications are to take place in a network, including the format, timing, sequences, and error checking and correction?
    A protocol
  284. What layer of the Open Systems Interconnection reference model is really a set of rules regarding the hardware used to transmit data?
    Physical
  285. What layer of the Open Systems Interconnection reference model provides the grammar by which machines converse with each other and serves as a vehicle for information transmission?
    Data Link
  286. What layer of the Open Systems Interconnection reference model prevents a fast computer from overwhelming a slow terminal?
    Transport
  287. A feature which involves the periodic insertion of points into data from which any recovery necessary can be started is known as what?
    Checkpointing
  288. Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection reference model is concerned with network security, file transfers, and formatting functions?
    Presentation
  289. Why did the IEEE committees develop more than one standard?
    Because a wide range of incompatible LAN products already existed.
  290. Upon what area are the IEEE 802 standards based?
    The first three layers of the OSI model
  291. What topology is used by the IEE 802.3 standard?
    Bus
  292. What protocol is used by the IEEE 802.3 stand to avoid collisions?
    CSMA/CD
  293. What topology is used by the IEEE 802.4 standard?
    Token bus
  294. If a token bus workstation needs to use the network more frequently than others, how is this accomplished?
    It can be listed several times in the network table of addresses so that it will receive the token more often.
  295. Define a �solicit successor� frame in a token bus network.
    This frame sends a general request through the network asking any station that wants to send a message to respond to receive the token.
  296. What topology is used by the IEEE 802.5 standard?
    Token ring
  297. In a token ring network, what can be used to keep the token moving past inactive stations?
    Wire centers
  298. What is a major advantage of a token ring network? Why?
    It can cover a greater distance than a token bus without loss of signal; each workstation repeats the signal
  299. The IEEE 802.3 standard describes a local area network using what kind of topology?
    Bus
  300. What protocol is used by the IEEE 802.3 standard to avoid collisions on the network?
    Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection
  301. What does a station specifically send when it sends a general request through the network asking any station to respond to receive the token?
    Solicit successor frame.
  302. The IEEE 802.5 standard was developed to cover what local area network topology?
    Token ring
  303. Why can a token ring network cover a greater distance than a token bus network without loss of signal?
    Because each workstation repeats the singal
  304. What X series protocol is a Message Handling System (MHS) standard, that defines the structure of a store-and-forward e-mail message handling system?
    X.400
  305. Describe the relevance of TCP/IP to LANs.
    As a datagram-based protocol, it is well-suited to LAN access methods. It is popular within the UNIX community with a large user base wishing to use LANs.
  306. What protocol is used for error reporting with IP?
    Internet Control Message Protocol
  307. In practice, what is TCP linked to?
    IP
  308. What is one of the main aims of the Network File System?
    To present the remote files to a program running on a workstation as if they were local to that workstation
  309. Which protocol of Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol provides a connectionless datagram �network access� layer?
    Internet Protocol
  310. Which protocol of Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol is a connection oriented, reliable, host-to-host transport protocol?
    Transmission Control Protocol
  311. What makes it possible for implementers to produce new Network File System systems without having to reconstruct their own system�s internal data representation formats to suit Network File System?
    eXternal data representation
  312. What does �layering� in the protocol stack mean?
    Layering is a design approach that specifies different functions and services at levels in the protocol stack.
  313. Each layer in a protocol stack provides services to what protocol layer?
    To the protocol layer above it.
  314. What are the connection points between layers that are used to send PDUs through called?
    Service access points.
  315. What layer doesn�t add PCI information to the protocol data unit?
    The Physical Layer simply transmits the completed frame to the network backbone.
  316. How many service access points are in the OSI reference model?
    There are 65,536
  317. When is the PDU finally referred to as a Frame?
    When the LLC PDU arrives at the MAC sublayer a trailer is added
  318. Where are the results of all error detection methods placed?
    They are placed in the trailer of the frame in the Field Check Sequence
  319. What form of error detection uses bytes rather than bits to detect errors?
    The Checksum
  320. As information passes down through the protocol layers, what is the packet that is formed called?
    Protocol data unit
  321. What is the only layer in the Open Systems Interconnection reference model that simply transmits the completed frame?
    Physical
  322. What layer in the Open Systems Interconnection reference model adds a trailer to the packet?
    Data Link
  323. In the Ethernet environment, what is the minimum number of octets in a frame so it can be sent and received?
    46
  324. What is used on a physically connected network to identify network nodes?
    MAC addresses
  325. What is the numbering system that computers use to represent data?
    Binary (the base two-number system)
  326. Within IP addressing, how many bits are used and how are they broken down?
    The 32-bit IP address is broken into 4 sets of eight bits
  327. The following is a representation of a single octet. Provide the decimal value of each position
    128 64 32 16 8 4 2
  328. How many bits in an IP address are reserved for host bits in a �B� class network?
    There are 16 host bits
  329. In a Class �C� network, how many octets bits are reserved for the network address?
    With a �C� there are 3 network octets
  330. What are the three different and unique fields each IP address is divided into?
    Network, subnet, and specific host fields
  331. What bits in an IP address are routers mainly concerned with?
    Those bits that belong to the network/subnet field
  332. What is used to identify nodes on a physically connected network?
    Media access control address
  333. What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
    01100000
  334. How many octets is the standard Internet Protocol broken down into?
    4
  335. What type of mask is used within a network that uses the same amount of bits for masking for all subnetworks?
    Standard
  336. What communications device converts binary electrical signals into acoustic signals for transmission over telephone lines?
    Modem
  337. What does the process of modulations do?
    It converts binary electrical signals into acoustic signals for transmission over telephone lines (analog) and converts these acoustic signals back into binary form at the receiving end.
  338. What is the conversion of analog signals back to binary form known as?
    Demodulation
  339. What are Codecs utilized for?
    Converting analog signals to digital for transmission on digital lines.
  340. Name the device that performs protective and diagnostic functions for a telecommunications line.
    CSU-channel service unit.
  341. What two devices does the DSU provide a modem-like infrastructure between?
    The computer as DTE and the CSU
  342. What device is installed in a computer that provides a connection point to a network?
    Network interface card.
  343. What are the four NIC connector interfaces for network cables?
    They are the RJ45 for 10BaseT cable, the BNC for 10Base2, attachment unit interface for transceiver connections, and the fiber connections.
  344. Which NIC module converts information into a coded data stream?
    The encode/decode module.
  345. What type of software activates the actual transmission and receipt of data over the network?
    Network interface drivers.
  346. What communications device converts binary electrical signals into acoustic signals for transmission over telephone lines?
    Modem
  347. What communications device is used for converting analog signals to digital for transmission on digital lines?
    Codecs
  348. What Network Interface Card module converts information into a coded data stream?
    Encode/Decode
  349. What Network Interface Card module temporarily holds data for processing to or from the network?
    Frame Buffering
  350. What device acts as a media converter and is used when connecting 10Base2 to a device with only 10BaseT connections available?
    A transceiver
  351. What device provides a connection for the DTE into a communication network and back again?
    Data communications equipment
  352. What layer of the OSI model defines the DTE and DCE interfaces?
    The physical layer
  353. Name the component that serves as a central connecting point and is used to extend the physical media by repeating the signal it receives in one port out to all the other ports indiscriminately?
    HUBs
  354. What is an intelligent hub?
    An intelligent hub has special capabilities for configuration and/or management.
  355. What is an active hub?
    An active hub servers as a wiring and signal relay center, and also cleans and boosts signals.
  356. What is a passive hub?
    A passive hub merely serves as a wiring and relay center.
  357. What is a collision domain?
    A collision domain is a group of devices connected to the same physical media such that if two devices access the media at the same time, the result is a collision of the two signals.
  358. What is a broadcast domain?
    A broadcast domain is a group of devices in the network that receive one another�s broadcast messages.
  359. All devices connected to a hub share the same media, and consequently what kind of domains?
    The same collision domain, broadcast domain, and bandwidth.
  360. What is a simple add-on device that works at the physical layer of the OSI model, and helps reduce the problems of attenuation by duplicating the cable�s signal?
    A Repeater
  361. What network component serves as a central connecting point and is used to extend the physical media by repeating the signal it receives in one port out to all the other ports indiscriminately?
    Hub
  362. What type of hub has special capabilities for configurations and or management?
    An intelligent hub
  363. What network condition usually begins slowly and, if not stopped gradually grows in severity until all traffic flow on the network is effectively stopped?
    Broadcast Storm
  364. What is a group of devices connected to the same physical media such that if two devices access the media at the same time, the result is a collision of the two signals?
    A collision domain
  365. The purpose of a network repeater is that it?
    Regenerates any signal received
  366. What device works at the data link layer of the OSI reference model, and uses physical (MAC) addresses to process frames?
    Bridges
  367. Explain why a bridge is protocol independent.
    Since a bridge works at layer two, it�s not concerned with what protocol frames are using; it merely concerns itself with the MAC address.
  368. What are the four basic functions brides perform?
    Listen, Learn, Filter, and Forward.
  369. Describe the three ways in which a bridge can filter.
    First, if a packet that is received by a bridge is destined for a node on the same port as the packet was received, that packet will be filtered (or dropped). Second, bad packets are automatically filtered out. A bridge will not pass along garbled frames or electrical interference from one segment to the next. Third, a bridge filters packets using the MAC address.
  370. What is a bridging loop?
    It is a loop that is created when there is more than one path to the destination.
  371. What type of bridging is used solely for Ethernet environments?
    Transparent bridges
  372. What is spanning-tree algorithm and what is accomplished by it?
    A mathematical algorithm uses to identify and correct loop potential port connections.
  373. What is a root bridge?
    The bridge with the highest priority (the lowest number)
  374. If all bridges have the same priority, what is done to determine the root bridge?
    The one with the lowest MAC address is the root.
  375. What is a local area network connection device with two or more ports that forwards frames from one LAN segment to another?
    Bridge
  376. What are the four basic functions of a bridge?
    Listen, learn, filter, forward
  377. Bridging loops are created when there is more than one path to the destination.
  378. What is used to logically eliminate loops within a network?
    Spanning Tree Algorithm
  379. The bridge in a network with the highest priority, the lowest number, is called the Root
  380. What device allows a connection to be established as necessary and terminated when there is no longer a need?
    Switch
  381. What do switches use to eliminate logical loops?
    Switches use the same spanning-tree algorithm to eliminate logical loops.
  382. What is the one big difference between a bridge and a switch?
    Bridges are software-based while switches are hardware-based.
  383. At which layer(s) of the OSI model do switches work?
    Switches work at the data link layer and network layers of the OSI model.
  384. Compare and contrast layer 2 and layer 3 switches.
    • 1 � Layer 2 switch: this type of switch makes its switching decision based solely upon the MAC address and follows the switching process just described.
    • 2 � Layer 3 switch: this type of switch makes its switching decisions based upon the MACK and IP address.
  385. Describe the three types of data switching.
    • 1 � Cut through: a cut-through switch reads only the MAC address in each frame�s header, and Immediately forwards it to the destination port.
    • 2 � Store-and-forward: store-and-forward switches wait until the entire frame has arrived before forwarding the frame.
    • 3 � Fragment-free: this is also known as modified cut-through. The switch reads the first 64 bytes before forwarding the frame.
  386. What is a virtual LAN?
    A group of end-stations systems on multiple physical LAN segments that are not constrained by their physical location and can communicate as one common LAN.
  387. Describe the three types of VLANS.
    • 1 � Port grouping is the most common method of defining VLAN membership. This method involves grouping ports on a switch, exclusive to other ports.
    • 2 � MAC-layer grouping is defined by assigning MAC addresses to a specified VLAN community.
    • 3 � Network-layer grouping considers the protocol type or address when defining separate VLAN membership.
  388. Switching conducted at the layer 2 category is based solely upon what information?
    The Media Access Control address
  389. Switching conducted at the layer 3 category is based upon what information?
    The Media Access Control and Internet Protocol address
  390. What type of switch is limited in its applications to small workgroups where throughput is an issue but where potential network errors will not upset the network?
    Cut through
  391. What type of switch read the first 64 bytes before forwarding the frame?
    Fragment free
  392. What is the technology called that allows Network Interface Card (NIC) to determine the type of Ethernet signal transmitted by a device at the other end and adjust its speed to the highest common speed between the two devices?
    Auto negotiation
  393. What is a logical grouping of end stations, independent of physical location, with a common set of requirements called?
    Virtual local area network
  394. What is the most common method of defining Virtual local area network membership?
    Port grouping
  395. What devices work at the network layer and can interconnect networks that use different technologies, including different media, physical addressing schemes, or frame formats?
    Routers
  396. Explain why routers are protocol dependent.
    They can only process packets that adhere to the protocol family that it supports.
  397. What is an internetwork? A subnet?
    A series of subnets connected by routers. Internetworks on a larger scale are a series of related networks connected via a WAN, or connected via a series of interconnected WANs. Each constituent network of the internetwork is called a subnetwork, or subnet.
  398. How do routers discover the existence of other networks?
    Administrators can manually enter the information or routers can use protocols that allow routers to exchange information about their attached networks.
  399. What is hop count?
    In packet switching, a hop is a transmission between two routers, sometimes these packets may make several hops, depending on the size of the network or internetwork across which transmission they must go. Hop count is the total number of hops.
  400. Describe the two functions of a router.
    • 1 � Path determination: the function performed by a router for determining the optimal path/route to the destination.
    • 2 � Switching: a function performed by the router to move information from one router to another according to decide path determinations.
  401. Compare and contrast static and dynamic routing.
    • 1 � Static routing is defined as the establishment of routes by the network administrator that changes only when done manually. This type of routing is used primarily with networks supporting predictable traffic.
    • 2 � Dynamic routing involves the use of routing protocols that adjust real-time to changing network circumstances. These protocols perform route determinations using mathematical algorithms, called metrics that analyze specific route criteria.
  402. Which routing protocol allows routers to share their entire or a portion of their Routing table with only their immediate neighbors?
    Distance vectoring
  403. With what type of routing method do routers share the existence of and state of their links thereby providing each router within the area constructs a complete picture of the entire network?
    Link state
  404. What are routing metrics?
    Router metrics are algorithms configured and used to determine the most optimal path on which to send data
  405. Describe three forms of stability features.
    • 1 � Hold Downs prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that has gone bad.
    • 2 � Split Horizons prevents a router from sending route information back to the router from which it came.
    • 3 � Poison Reverse will �poison� route updates that have a loop potential. Instead of preventing redundant updates to routers, as is done with split horizons, the poison reverse method sets the distance field (hope count) of the update to 16.
  406. At what level of the Open Systems Interconnection models does a router work?
    Network
  407. What is the primary device used for connecting these networks, both within and between networks?
    Router
  408. The function performed by a router to move information from one router to another according to decided path determinations is routing.
  409. What type of routing is the establishment of routes by the network administrator that changes only when done manually?
    Static routing
  410. What type of routing involves the use of routing protocols that adjust real-time to changing network circumstances?
    Dynamic routing
  411. In what Dynamic Routing protocol must packets go the complete distance before discovering the destination is unreachable?
    Distance vectoring
  412. What routing metric is generally based upon the bit-error rate of the link?
    Reliability
  413. What prevents a router from sending route information back to the router from which it came?
    Split horizons
  414. What acts as a translator between two workstations or networks that use different operating systems, communication protocols, and data format structures?
    Gateway
  415. What is the information-storage component that contains a backup copy of the configuration?
    Nonvolatile RAM
  416. What do we call the network connections through which network traffic enters and exits a router?
    Interfaces
  417. What are the console and auxiliary ports used for?
    These are connections used to attach the internetworking device to a terminal, a PC running terminalemulation software, or a modem, allowing configuration commands to be entered.
  418. What type of command is the configure command?
    A Privileged EXEC command.
  419. What type of command is the IP address command?
    An Interface command
  420. What EXEC commands allow you to connect to remote devices, change terminal settings on a temporary basis, perform basic tests, and list system information?
    User EXEC commands
  421. What User EXEC mode command is typed at the command prompt to enter privileged EXEC mode?
    The enable command is typed at the command prompt to enter privileged EXEC mode.
  422. Name the four line types of a router that can be configured.
    Aux, con, tty, and vty
  423. What character is used to syntax help for information on configuration commands?
    To use command syntax help, enter �?� in the place of a keyboard or argument.
  424. Why is it important to set the system clock on routers?
    So error messages will have accurate timestamps.
  425. Where is the backup copy of the Cisco Internet Operating System configuration information stored in the internetworking device?
    Nonvolatile random access memory
  426. What are the network connections through which network traffic enters and exits a router called?
    Interfaces
  427. What prompt is displayed when in the User Exec mode on a router?
    Router>
  428. What prompt is displayed when in the Privileged Exec mode on a router?
    Router#
  429. From what level can all other command modes be accessed?
    Privileged Exec level
  430. From what mode is the banner motd command used in?
    Global configuration mode
  431. What command is used to restrict access to the Privileged Exec mode?
    Enable password
  432. What command interface configuration command is used to activate an interface?
    No shutdown
  433. To view the current configuration of a router, what command is used from privileged exe mode?
    Show running
  434. What command is used to change the bootup values within ROM monitor mode?
    Confreg
  435. How do access control lists filter network traffic?
    By controlling whether routed packets are forwarded or blocked at a router�s interface.
  436. What are the two steps in implementing router access control lists?
    The first step is to create an access list definition, and the second step is to group the access list to a routing interface.
  437. List three rules you must follow in developing and applying access control lists to routers?
    • 1 � Routers apply lists sequentially in the order in which you type them in the router.
    • 2 � Routers apply list to packets sequentially, from the top down, one line at a time.
    • 3 � Packets are processed only until a match is made and then they are acted upon based on the access list criteria contained in access list statements.
    • 4 � Lists always end with an implicit deny. Routers discard any packets that do not match any of the access list statements.
    • 5 � access list must be applied to an interface as either inbound or outbound traffic filters.
  438. Why are wildcard masks one of the most important concepts in IP access lists?
    Routers use them to determine which bits in an address will be significant.
  439. What does an extended IP access list use to determine how it filters transmissions?
    By extended IP access list can filter by source IP address, destination IP address, protocol type, and application port number.
  440. What is the show interface or show IP interface command used to verify?
    That an access list has been successfully applied to an interface.
  441. What filters network traffic by controlling whether routed packets are forwarded or blocked at a router�s interface?
    Access control lists
  442. What do all access lists end with?
    Implicit deny
  443. Router access lists most be applied to interfaces.
    • What does a standard access list use to filter packets?
    • Source Internet Protocol address
  444. What is the range of numbers that represent standard access lists?
    1-99
  445. What term may refer to both hardware and software or just the software that performs services to network users?
    Server
  446. What type of server is a computer attached to a network that runs a client/server database management system?
    Database server
  447. What server stores the programs and data files shared by users?
    File server
  448. Which server provides access to modems or other facilities that provide network capabilities?
    Communications server
  449. What type of server links domain names to IP addresses?
    Domain name server
  450. What is a proxy server?
    It is an application that breaks the connection between sender and receiver and acts as an intermediary between a workstation user and the internet so the organization can ensure security, administrative control, and caching service.
  451. What type of server uses name resolution software from Microsoft that converts NETBIOS (computer) names to IP addresses?
    Windows internet name service.
  452. What is a DHCP server?
    Dynamic host configuration protocol server.
  453. What type of server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?
    A network management server.
  454. What of server is set aside to perform a specific task or function all the time?
    Dedicated server
  455. What network type normally utilizes non-dedicated servers?
    Peer-to-peer
  456. What is required due to the differences between the physical speed of the print device and the processing speed of the workstation generating the print job?
    Print queues
  457. What frees the computer�s attention so the user can continue working while waiting for a document to print?
    Print spooling
  458. What type of server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?
    Network Management System
  459. Define a network operating system.
    An operating system that manages network resources and allows those resources to be shared across the network.
  460. What type of network server configurations do we install network operating systems on?
    Client server and peer to peer configurations
  461. What is the major concern that must be considered prior to attempting to install a NOS?
    Before installing a NOS, caution must be taken to ensure the computer hardware you are loading the software on is compatible, not to mention powerful enough to run without constant problems.
  462. What do we call a logical grouping of user accounts, user groups, servers, workstations, and printers?
    A domain.
  463. What do we call the central repository for the entire software and hardware configuration settings within a computer running the Windows NT operating system?
    The Registry is the central repository for the entire software and hardware configuration settings within a computer running the Windows NT operating system.
  464. What are the two tools available that are utilized to access the Registry?
    REGEDIT.EXE and REGEDIT32.EXE
  465. Why is it important to constantly monitor a NOS installation or service pack upgrade?
    Because any errors occurring during installation can cause problems for the server in the future.
  466. What two types of environments are network operating systems implemented upon?
    Peer-to-peer and client server.
  467. Within the Windows environment, what is the central repository for the entire software and hardware configuration settings in a computer running the Windows based NT operating system?
    Registry
  468. What is a set of keys, subkeys, and values from the registry stored in its own file location called?
    Hive
  469. Data in which root-key determines which device drivers and services will load during the boot process?
    HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
  470. Why is monitoring your network system performance so important?
    It provides the information needed to ensure that the network is running at its optimum and that barring equipment failures the network will stay operational.
  471. Define performance management.
    It is a set of activities to continuously evaluate the performance indicators of network operations and verify how service levels are maintained.
  472. What is a baseline?
    A set of statistical measurements made over a period of time that characterizes network operations and verify how service levels are maintained.
  473. What is a baseline used for?
    It is used as a starting point or performance reference, so detailed analysis of the performance of the network can be conducted.
  474. List the steps in the baselining process.
    1 � First, the data is collected; 2 � Then a report is generated; 3 � The third and most important step is results interpretation, which becomes easier over time as each successive baseline report teaches more about the network.
  475. What are the three general rules used in interpreting the results of baselining data?
    • 1 � Look for abnormalities; to begin with, look for high levels of utilization during hours that the internal server�s work center is off duty.
    • 2 � Look for changes; compare successive baselines and question any significant changes in traffic patterns. Be sure that you understand and are comfortable with these changes.
    • 3 � Learn what is normal for your network over time; to manage and secure your network, you must understand what bandwidth and protocols are needed by your customers.
  476. What is the difference between baselining and benchmarking?
    A baseline is a reference the performance of the entire network is compared against (a set of statistical measurements made over a period of time that characterizes network performance) and benchmarking is the statistical measurements that distinguishes the performance of a specific networked application or network element.
  477. Why is network availability the most significant baseline statistic collected?
    Because it is usually the first most recognized problem with a network that is experiencing performance problems. All problem on a network usually culminate in a drop in network availability.
  478. What does �error rate� signify on baselining a network?
    The degree to which errors is impacting network performance.
  479. Define network response time.
    The amount of time that passes between when a request is issued and when a response to that request is received.
  480. How can broadcast traffic be a significant load on network performance?
    Because it consumes not only transmission bandwidth, but also processing time within the receiving devices.
  481. What is a set of statistical measurements made over a period of time that characterizes network performance?
    Baseline
  482. What is a detailed analysis of the performance of a specific application or a specific network element?
    Benchmark
  483. What network performance criteria is the most significant statistic to be collected and calculated?
    Network availability
  484. The measurement of traffic volume actually being carried by the network, typically expressed in kilobytes per second is data throughput.
  485. What is NM?
    The systems management mechanism that monitors and controls data collection for the purpose of data analysis and report generation on an OSI-based communications network.
  486. What is a NM server?
    A bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity, that specifically runs SNMP-based management applications.
  487. Where should the NM serve be located?
    In an area that is controlled strictly by the NCC.
  488. Briefly describe the three most common NM architectures.
    1 � Centralized architecture has a NM platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all NM duties; 2 � Hierarchical architecture uses multiple systems, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients; 3 � Distributed architecture combines the centralized and hierarchical architectures. Instead of having one centralized platform or a hierarchy of central/client platforms, the distributed approach uses multiple peer platforms.
  489. Briefly describe each of the four levels of activity that one must understand before applying management to specific services or devices.
    • 1 � Inactive; this is the case when no monitoring is accomplished
    • 2 � Reactive; this is where network support personnel react to a problem after it has occurred yet no monitoring has been applied.
    • 3 � Interactive; this is where you are monitoring components, but must interactively troubleshoot to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate to a root cause.
    • 4 � Proactive; this is where the automated monitoring components provide interactive problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand, and automatic restorative problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand, and automatic restorative processes are in-place wherever possible to minimize downtime.
  490. What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?
    Network management server
  491. What are the three most common network management architectures?
    Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed.
  492. What network management architecture has an NM platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all NM duties?
    Centralized
  493. What network management architecture uses multiple systems, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?
    Hierarchical
  494. At what level of network management activity are you working when you, as the network manager, are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
    Interactive
  495. At what level of network management activity are you working when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at hand?
    Proactive
  496. What is configuration management?
    The process of obtaining data from the network and using that data to manage the setup of all managed network devices.
  497. What are the two features built into an NMS that alleviate manually configuring a network�s devices?
    1 � Automatic discover; 2 � Auto-mapping features
  498. Briefly describe performance management.
    Performance management is the evaluation of the network to ensure it performs as expected when compared against statistical data extracted from the network.
  499. List the steps that you must take to provide accurate performance management.
    1 � Gather statistical information (trend analysis); 2 � Maintain and examine logs of system state (history); 3 � Determine system performance under natural and artificial conditions; 4 � Alter system modes of operation for the purpose of conducting performance management.
  500. What are the two functional categories of performance management? Describe each.
    • 1 � Monitoring; the function that tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network.
    • 2 � Tuning; deals strictly with the adjustment of the parameters on the network device to improve their overall operation.
  501. What is security management?
    The protection of sensitive information on devices attached to a data network by controlling access points to that information.
  502. What are the two subsections of security management?
    1 � Network security; 2 � NMS security
  503. What is fault management?
    The process of identifying, locating and correcting network problems.
  504. What is the difference between a fault and an error?
    Faults are abnormal conditions that require NCC personnel to take action to correct or repair. Errors sometimes arise on a normal functioning of the network and do not necessarily require attention.
  505. Gathering information about current network device settings is a step of what functional network management area?
    Configuration management
  506. What are the two functional categories of performance management?
    Monitoring and tuning
  507. Which functional category of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?
    Monitoring
  508. What network management area is concerned with controlling access point to information?
    Security management
  509. What is established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive error because of a fault?
    Tolerance parameters
  510. What are some drawbacks to ICMP pinging as a NM tool?
    Un reliable delivery of packets, need for polling (user intensive), and limited information derived from responses.
  511. What is a MIB?
    A hierarchical, structured format that defines the NM information available from network devices.
  512. What are the two parts of the labeled node?
    1 � An object identifier; 2 � A short text description
  513. What are the two nodes that make up the MIB tree, and what is the difference between them?
    • 1 � Labeled nodes; 2 � Leaf nodes
    • Word formatted (labeled) nodes allow people to read and understand what the label is pointing to, while the decimal (leaf) nodes are how the NMS tracks the information.
  514. What are some examples of nodes that SNMP can support?
    A workstation, client, network user, personal computer, server, printer or other device attached to a data network.
  515. Briefly describe each of the two categories of SNMP.
    • 1 � Managers; typically a computer that is used to run one or more NMS applications (suite)
    • 2 � Agents; responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system.
  516. What does the Get operation do?
    The Get query retrieves the value of one instance of management information.
  517. What does the Set operation do?
    Modifies the value of one or more instances of management information.
  518. What is a trap?
    An unsolicited message from an agent to the manager; it does not have a corresponding request message.
  519. What are community names?
    Each SNMP community is a group that contains at least one agent and one management system. The logical name assigned to such a group we call the community name.
  520. Describe each of the two types of community names.
    • 1 � Read; community names as implied define a community that is read only.
    • 2 � Write; community names are defined to allow the manager to remotely change configuration information from the management station or server.
  521. Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the open systems interconnections model?
    Session
  522. What is a hierarchical, structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?
    Management information base
  523. Which category of simple network management protocol node is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system?
    Agent
  524. What simple network management protocol operational message retrieves the value of one instance of management information?
    Get
  525. What are the five areas that must be considered and decided upon during network installation planning?
    1 � File system; 2 � Licensing mode; 3 � Role in the domain; 4 � Protocol(s) to activate; 5 - Services
  526. What are the two licensing schemes used with Microsoft Windows Server?
    1 � Per Server; 2 � Per Seat
  527. What happens to the work load of a domain controller if it becomes inoperative?
    Other domain controllers automatically pick up the work load.
  528. What protocol is typically used in small LAN implements of 50 nodes or less?
    NetBEUI
  529. What is the most common method for loading Windows on stand-alone servers or small domains set up with a minimum number of servers?
    CD-ROM installation
  530. What type of simple network management protocol node is responsible to authenticate logons for clients by validating the supplied user name and password against the account in the database?
    Domain controllers
  531. In the vent that a domain controller is no longer functioning, what action is taken to make another DC take over the responsibility?
    No action is required
  532. What type of network server is dedicated to an intensive application or database?
    Member server
  533. What protocol is used primarily to obtain connectivity to the large base of Novell NetWare clients?
    Internetwork packet exchange/sequenced packet exchange (IPX/SPX)
  534. What network protocol is used for network connection to Hewlett Packard network printers?
    Data link control protocol
  535. What two types of accounts do Windows Oss support?
    1 � Domain; 2 - Local
  536. What are the correct number and type of characters needed for a normal user password?
    Minimum of nine characters; a mix of at least two uppercase characters, two lowercase characters, two numbers, and two special characters.
  537. What are the two ways groups can be based?
    1 � Directory-based (located in AD); 2 � Local to a particular computer
  538. List the two types of domain groups in AD, and briefly describe the use each.
    • 1 � Distribution groups; 2 � Security groups
    • Use distribution groups to create e-mail distribution lists, and security groups to assign permissions to shared resources.
  539. What does the scope of a group determine?
    The extent to which the group is applied within a domain or forest.
  540. Why are users required to change their passwords upon logging onto the network for the first time?
    To ensure users don�t create vulnerability by leaving the default password in place.
  541. For user accounts with elevated privileges, such as a client support administrator, what are the correct number and type of characters needed for the account password?
    Minimum of fifteen characters consisting of at least two upper and lowercase letters, two numbers, and two special characters.
  542. Which group scope allows member permissions to be assigned in any domain or forest?
    Universal
  543. What must administrators consider when assigning permissions?
    The different levels of access to resources based on what particular groups or users need to be able to accomplish with the resource.
  544. Regarding shared folder permissions, are �Read� permissions more or less restrictive than �Change� permissions?
    Read permissions are more restrictive.
  545. What permission always overrides all other permissions?
    The �No Access� permission always overrides all other permissions assigned to a user group to which the user belongs.
  546. What group is automatically assigned Full Control permission to a volume when it is formatted with the NTFS?
    When a volume is formatted with NTFS, the �Everyone� group is automatically assigned Full Control permission to the volume.
  547. What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?
    Permissions
  548. What is used to verify the level of availability an individual has to the resource?
    Access control lists
  549. What file permission provides a user with the ability to change file permissions and take ownership of files on new technology file system volumes?
    Full control
  550. What permission always overrides all other permissions assigned to a user or group to which the user belongs?
    No access
  551. When a volume is formatted with new technology file system, what group is automatically assigned full control permission to the volume?
    Everyone group
  552. When a new folder or file is created on a new technology file system partition, what permissions are automatically assigned?
    Inherited permissions of the folder it is contained in.
  553. Are there clear-cut instructions on how to effectively manage files on a network?
    No
  554. How are users typically categorized in relation to file management?
    1 � Distinguishing special users from typical users; 2 � Classifying users by rank or position.
  555. How do we determine the maximum folder size for file server users?
    Folder sizes are dependent on the server technology and size versus the importance and number of individual users.
  556. What is the last step in file management?
    Archiving files
  557. An administrator would normally allocate more file space to users maintaining what type of files?
    Databases
  558. What is one way to increase file server efficiency?
    Limiting the access time of typical users.
  559. What usually has the most significance when determining the amount of space and access time users are given on a file server?
    Job position
  560. After the POST is complete, what is loaded into memory and executed?
    MBR
  561. What two things must the Partition Boot Record accomplish prior to a system load?
    • 1 � It must be able to recognize enough of the file system to find the NTLDR program
    • 2 � It loads and executes the NTLDR program.
  562. What file contains the names and disk locations of the different bootable Oss installed on the computer?
    BOOT.INI
  563. What is the function of the NTOSKRNL.EXE program?
    It creates the registry key settings for hardware from the information passed to it by the boot loader.
  564. What type of action is a network sign-on sequence?
    It is essentially a query and response action.
  565. What two files are required for Windows operating systems to run on most client systems?
    BOOT.INI and NTDETECT.COM
  566. What is the name for the core set of software instructions contained in operating systems (OS) on which the higher-level functions are based?
    System kernel
  567. List the seven step of highly effective network troubleshooting.
    • 1 � Define the main problems; 2 � Gather facts; 3 � Consider all possible causes; 4 � Create a plan of action;
    • 5 � Implement the plan of action; 6 � Observe the results of each action; 7 � Repeat any step necessary.
  568. List three examples of a �critical network event.�
    1 � The failure of a link; 2 � The restart of a device; 3 � The lack of response from a host.
  569. What is fault detection?
    Any action, whether automatic or manual, that provides information on substandard performance of network hardware.
  570. What is the action of identifying options for minimizing the effects of detected or predicted faults?
    Fault correction
  571. What is the first question �network experts� ask when beginning to troubleshoot a serious network problem?
    Where is the network map?
  572. What is the first of seven logical steps used to troubleshoot a network problem?
    Define the main problems.
  573. What should you do after gathering all the facts about a network problem?
    Consider all possible causes.
  574. Why should only one possibility of a network problem be troubleshot at a time?
    Isolate a definite cause if the action fixes the problem
  575. What is one of the greatest downfalls of personnel who must work together to troubleshoot a network problem?
    Failure to accurately observe and thoroughly document the results of their individual efforts.
  576. What are the two basic ways network faults can be detected?
    Reactively and proactively
  577. What are the most common, immediate, and service-affecting types of faults?
    Devices that have lost power and have broken network connections.
  578. What function of fault management identifies options for minimizing the effects of detected or predicted faults?
    Fault correction.
  579. What action checks the condition of network nodes?
    Status polling
  580. What is a network alarm?
    An indication that a noteworthy even has occurred on the network.
  581. How can the help desk detect developing trouble and start resolving it before users encounter network failures?
    By configuring the NMS alarm browser to post threshold alarms from mission-critical devices.
  582. On the NMS, what does the �Critical� alarm category indicate and in what color does it appear?
    The object is not functioning; red.
  583. In the alarm browser window, what does the �Source� field indicate?
    What device had the alarm.
  584. What does archiving alarm browser data allow you to do?
    It allows you to keep a history of alarms while improving the performance of the alarm browser.
  585. Briefly list the three main functions of the ECS.
    1 � Analyzes events based on previous, current, or subsequent events; 2 � Can create new events; 3 � Dramatically reduces the number of alarms displayed by the NMS alarm browser
  586. What is an indication that a noteworthy event has occurred on the network?
    Alarm
  587. What network management system alarm browser information item indicates if an alarm is related to other alarms?
    Cor
  588. How is the 32-bit value in the FCS field calculated?
    It is computed as a function of the contents of all the frame�s fields (source address, destination address, length/type, data) except the preamble, start-of-frame delimiter, and FCS.
  589. What algorithm is used to detect multiple frames within the same collision domain?
    CSMA/CD
  590. How are problems that are caused by high network utilization resolved?
    By increasing network bandwidth, by further subdividing the network, or by eliminating other impairments that might be causing collisions.
  591. What is the primary cause of jabbers on a network?
    Faulty NICs or transceivers that constantly transmit frames onto the network.
  592. What happens when oversize packets are sent across a network?
    Oversize packets are discarded, but some network nodes may accept oversize packets and fail.
  593. What is the primary cause of undersize packets?
    Undersize packets are the result of software errors generated by incompatible network protocols.
  594. What are runts?
    Frames that are smaller than the minimum size the network protocol requires.
  595. How will IP fragment a 3500-byte packet for transmission by Ethernet frames?
    The packet is fragmented into three packets, which are encapsulated into three Ethernet frames.
  596. When bits are missing in one or more octets in a frame, what type of error occurs?
    Alignment
  597. What function checks for damaged frames by recalculating the 32-bit cyclic redundancy check value of the received frame and comparing it to the received 32-bit CRC value in the frame check sequence field?
    Media Access Control frame
  598. Within how many bytes of transmission should a network interface card sense a collision and stop transmitting?
    64
  599. What are frames called that consist of garbled bits of data that are transmitted continuously on the network?
    Jabbers
  600. What is the maximum packet size (in bytes) for the Internet protocol?
    65,535
  601. What is the minimum packet size (in bytes) for the Internet protocol?
    28
  602. List the types of errors that are displayed in the line vital statistics table.
    1 � Local collisions; 2 � Remote collisions; 3 � Late collections; 4 � Bad FCS; 5 � Runts
  603. What can be done to eliminate collisions that are the result of too many nodes on the network?
    Additional bandwidth must be added or the network must be further subdivided
  604. Ideally what should the average network utilization value be?
    Less than 30%
  605. Ideally what should the maximum network utilization value be?
    Less than 70%
  606. What is a good indication that there are jabbers on the network?
    Jabbers manifest themselves as collisions and high utilization and FCS error rates.
  607. What two utilities are used to determine round-trip delay?
    PING and TRACERT
  608. After running a PING test, what information is shown in the display window?
    The target node�s network and MAC node addresses are displayed. The round-trip delay is indicated under the Delay column in milliseconds.
  609. Which protocol analyzer feature identifies errors that are associated with a specific node?
    MAC node statistics
  610. What type of information does the MAC node statistics summary window show?
    A list of errored frames including frame length, time frame was transmitted, and source and destination addresses.
  611. Over 60 percent of all network problems occur at what layers of the open systems interconnect reference model?
    Data link and physical
  612. What type of network problem(s) is caused by collisions on the domain?
    High utilization or jabbers
  613. Ideally the average network utilization value should be less than 30 percent.
  614. What type of network errors do jabbers usually cause?
    High utilization and collisions
  615. What utilities are used to find the round-trip delay between a source and target node?
    PING and Tracert
  616. What resolves most of the problems we find on a computer?
    Specific types of diagnostic software.
  617. What is usually the first indication that a NIC should be replaced?
    When either a software or hardware loopback test fails on the NIC.
  618. What TCP/IP diagnostic tool displays the current configuration of a computer?
    The IPCONFIG command
  619. If duplicate IP addresses are found, what does the IPCONFIG utility do for you?
    It can provide the MAC address of the offending device that is using the same IP addres.
  620. What is the main difference between the PING and TRACERT commands?
    TRACERT will show you the devices it talks to in between your device and the host device you are trying to contact, while PING only shows if it connected to the distant end.
  621. What diagnostics test is usually run on a network interface card (NIC) to ensure it is functional?
    Loopback
  622. What diagnostics command is run exclusively on Windows based machines?
    IPCONFIG
  623. What Internet protocol address is used to packet internetwork groper a computer�s own network interface card?
    127.0.0.1
  624. What is the easiest way to check for communications connection problems?
    Look on the back of the computer to see if the NIC�s green communication link light is illuminating.
  625. If the green communication light on a NIC is NOT illuminating, what does this condition indicate?
    Handshaking between the computer and the NIC (or between the NIC and the network) is not occurring.
  626. What is one of the most common hardware devices used for troubleshooting?
    The loopback plug.
  627. What is one of the most common types of hardware devices used for network troubleshooting?
    Loopback plug
  628. What do the two hierarchies provided by the common information model (CIM) describe?
    Physical hierarchies describe the real-world components, while Logical hierarchies are visible through network protocols.
  629. What are the three methods for creating a representation of a network topology within the domain managers repository?
    Auto-discovery, manual discovery, and topology import.
  630. What are the three main components of SMARTS?
    Domain manager(s), a broker, and clients.
  631. List the five different map types that can be accessed through the map console?
    Physical Connectivity, IP Network Connectivity, IP Network Membership, VLAN Connectivity, and VLAN Membership.
  632. What is the primary console in SMARTS and what does it display?
    Monitoring console; it is used to display the results of the domain manager�s correlation alarms.
  633. Briefly describe the differences between the two types of polling used by SMARTS to gather information?
    Fault and performance data is collected using SNMP while device connectivity is monitored using CMP.
  634. What two factors determine if a SMARTS map is opened with read-write access or with read-only access?
    • 1 � Only one user can have a specific map opened with read-write access at anyone time.
    • 2 � You can use the file system (FAT or NTFS) to purposely allow specific users to read-write or read-only access to a map by setting permission to the files.
  635. What are the three types of notifications used in SMARTS?
    Problem, compound event, and symptomatic event.
  636. What are the three main components of the system management automated report tracking system?
    Domain managers, broker, and clients
  637. What is the centerpiece of the SMARTS application?
    Domain manager
  638. What component of the system management automated report tracking system application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
    Broker
  639. What color on the system management automated report tracking system alarm log indicates one or more events?
    Purple
  640. List eight of the objects than can be tracked through the Windows performance monitor.
    Brower, Network Interface, Server, Cache, ICMP (PING), IP, Logical Disk, Memory, NBT Connection, Objects, Paging File, Physical Disk, Process, Processor, Redirector, Server Work Queues, System, TCP, Telephony, Thread, UDP0
  641. What are the primary capabilities provided by a protocol analyzer?
    Digital network diagnostics and developing communications software.
  642. What is the difference between a protocol analyzer NIC and other NICs?
    The NIC in a protocol analyzer is configured to process all frames, whereas other NICs only process broadcast frames and frames with its MAC address.
  643. What is the minimum amount of time to acquire network information to establish a performance baseline?
    24 hours
  644. What function of the protocol analyzer excludes specific types of frames?
    The capture filters option.
  645. List four types of specific occurrences that can be displayed by counters in the protocol analyzer.
    Packets transmitted, CRC errors, undersize packets, oversize packets, ARP requests, data frame collisions, and bit errors.
  646. On the protocol analyzer, what menu is best used to report errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad FCS, short frames, and jabbers?
    MAC node statistics
  647. On the protocol analyzer, what kind of information does the connection statistics menu provide?
    Information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes.
  648. What are the three types of active tests that are conducted with a protocol analyzer?
    PING, Trace Route, and Traffic Generator
  649. How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?
    21
  650. What menu in the protocol analyzer provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?
    Protocol statistics
  651. What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
    Node discovery
  652. What menu on the protocol analyzer provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?
    Connection statistics
  653. What is the first step in the process that ensures what we do on our network stays on our network and is not readily available for anyone to access or intercept whenever they would choose to do so?
    Analyzing the network for known and unknown risks to the security posture.
  654. Define risk analysis.
    The process of analyzing threat to and vulnerabilities of an information system to determine the risks (potential for losses), and using the analysis as a basis for identifying appropriate and cost-effective countermeasures.
  655. List the four phases of the DITSCAP.
    1 � Definition; 2 � Verification; 3 � Validation; 4 � Post accreditation
  656. Who provides the CA with the guidelines used to classify or to determine the sensitivity of their data?
    The responsible data sources
  657. How long can an AIS operate on the original C&A with no changes to the baseline before it must be re-certified/re-accredited?
    A maximum of three years.
  658. What is the process of analyzing threats against and the vulnerabilities of an information system?
    Risk analysis
  659. In which phase of the DoD information technology security certification and accreditation process is data gathered for system analysis?
    Phase 1: Definition
  660. What is the maximum number of years an automated information system with no changes to the baseline must be recertified or accredited?
    Three
  661. Define authentication.
    Authentication is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information.
  662. What are the three primary ways to authenticate oneself on the network?
    1 � Through something you know; 2 � Something you have; 3 � Something you are
  663. What is the most common way for individuals to authenticate or identify themselves on the network?
    CAC and associated PIN
  664. Which of the three primary ways of authenticating best describes the use of PINS and passwords?
    Something you know
  665. What is the makeup of a valid network password?
    It must be at least nine characters long, have at least two upper- and lower-case letters (A/a, B/b, C/c, etc.), two numbers (0-9), and two special characters.
  666. What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information?
    Authentication
  667. How is a personal identification number categorized?
    Something you know.
  668. What is cryptography and with what is it most associated?
    The science of information security; it is most often associated with scrambling ordinary text files into ciphertext.
  669. What are the security goals of cryptography?
    Confidentiality, integrity, nonrepudiation, and authentication
  670. Define PKI and explain what it provides.
    An infrastructure composed of a combination of products, services, facilities, policies, procedures, agreements, and users to provide for and sustain secure interactions on the Internet. PKI provides: 1 � Policies that indicate rules for the working of cryptographic systems; 2 � Mechanism for creating, storing, and managing keys and certificates; 3 � Strategy for creating, storing, managing, and distributing keys and certificates.
  671. What are the components of PKI?
    1 � Certification authority; 2 � Registration authority; 3 � PKI clients; 4 � Digital certificates; 5 � Certificate distribution system or repository.
  672. Define a CA.
    A trusted authority that authenticates the identity of entities involved in electronic transactions. A CA issues digital certificates to authenticate the identity of a person or entity.
  673. Briefly describe public and private keys.
    • 1 � A private key is an encryption/decryption key known only to the party or parties that exchange secure messages.
    • 2 � A public key is a value provided by some designated authority as an encryption key that, combined with a private key derived from the public key, can be used to effectively encrypt messages and verify digital signatures.
  674. Define a RA and briefly describe this role.
    An intermediary authority that coordinates the interaction between clients and CAs; to ease the load of bulk certification requests from the CA during high peak demands.
  675. Define digital certificates.
    An electronic credit card-like device that establishes your credentials when doing business or other transactions on the Internet.
  676. Briefly describe the CDRS.
    A CDSR distributes the certificates to users and organizations.
  677. Briefly describe the LDAP.
    The LDAP is a software protocol for enabling any internet user to locate organizations, individuals, and other resources such as files and devices in a network.
  678. What is a physical device that users carry to authenticate themselves over the Internet?
    Token
  679. What is a plastic/magnetic device that contains a microprocessor used to authenticate users over the Internet?
    Smart card
  680. What is uniquely generated to encrypt a specific message by the user?
    Session key
  681. What is the name of the AF initiative that defines and drives network information security?
    Barrier Reef
  682. What is the basic stance of the base network security policy?
    To �allow authorized traffic and deny all else.�
  683. What service provides the ability to coordinate communications between network systems, such as system backups, to a centralized backup device and allows for accurate logging of user access?
    Network time sourcing
  684. What is the most common form of a proxy for common services?
    A firewall
  685. What is at the very core of the Barrier Reef process?
    Base network security policy
  686. In what step of the Barrier Reef process do you map both the physical and logical topology of your network?
    Step 1: Know thyself
  687. In what step of the Barrier Reef process do you start a base network steering group to address base-wide network management and security issues?
    Step 2: Determine requirements
  688. List six security functions for which information protection tools are used.
    1 � Boundary protection; 2 � Viral detection; 3 � Configuration inspection; 4 � Network mapping; 5 � Remote patching; 6 � Vulnerability testing
  689. What do we call the practice of encapsulating a message (that would be rejected by the firewall) inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?
    Tunneling
  690. What hardware and software makes up a firewall?
    One or more routers and host machines; filtering software containing a series of rules that accept or reject packets of information, connection types or application-specific communications attempting to cross the firewall.
  691. What is the simplest and least expensive type of firewall, and what is its purpose?
    Packet filtering firewall; it stops messages with inappropriate network addresses.
  692. What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas?
    A bastion host type of firewall.
  693. What are network attacks that bypass the firewall?
    Tunneling and application-based attacks.
  694. What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message (that would be rejected by the firewall) inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?
    Tunneling
  695. What is the simplest and least expensive type of firewall to stop messages with inappropriate network addresses?
    Packet filtering
  696. What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas?
    Bastion host
  697. What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes?
    Bastion host
  698. What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?
    Vulnerability scanners
  699. What is the security classification of sanitized storage media?
    Unless prohibited by other policies, sanitized storage media is unclassified.
  700. What software program protects classified data by erasing it from the disk so that it is unrecoverable, even with the most sophisticated hardware and software recovery techniques?
    Wipeinfo
  701. What action must be done to floppy disks, diskettes and magnetic cards before they are considered sanitized?
    They must be degaussed to be considered sanitized.
  702. What are the recommended destruction techniques for core memory units?
    Pulverizing, smelting or disintegrating the core arrays.
  703. What software program protects classified data by erasing it from the disk so that it is unrecoverable?
    Wipeinfo
  704. What is the preferred method of clearing magnetic tapes?
    Degaussing
  705. What action does DoD CERT take when a new vulnerability is documented that poses an immediate, potentially severe threat to DoD systems?
    An IAVA is disseminated.
  706. Within how many days must a unit comply with disseminated IAVAs?
    30 days
  707. Who conducts operations involving intrusion detection, incident response, computer security information assistance and vulnerability assessment of Air Force automated information systems?
    AFCERT
  708. What type of TCNO identifies vulnerabilities not yet being widely exploited in the commercial world or which have not been extensively targeted against DoD networks?
    Urgent TCNOs
  709. Who initiates the notification of a TCNO at base level?
    NCCs
  710. What web-based process incorporates identification and evaluation of new vulnerabilities, disseminates technical responses, and tracks compliance within the DoD community?
    IAVA
  711. Who is the IAVA process manager?
    DISA
  712. Within the DoD computer emergency response team three-tiered �vulnerability hierarchy� for notifications, what tier documents a new vulnerability that poses an immediate, potentially severe threat to DoD systems?
    Information assurance vulnerability alert
  713. Within the DoD computer emergency response team three-tiered �vulnerability hierarchy� for notifications, what tier addresses new vulnerabilities that do not pose an immediate threat to DoD systems but are significant enough that noncompliance with the corrective action could escalate the threat?
    Information assurance vulnerability bulletin
  714. What feature of the DMS allows the individual components to be remotely managed?
    Service management capability
  715. What does writer-to-reader messaging mean?
    The middleman is eliminated; an individual introduces a message into DMS and it goes directly to the intended recipient�s desktop, laptop, PDA, or whatever.
  716. On what two OSs does DMS work?
    Windows and UNIX
  717. What standards does DMS utilize to ensure application interoperability?
    X.400 and X.500
  718. What is the maximum number of personalities (users) for each Fortezza card?
    27
  719. What standard is utilized by the defense messaging system for messaging services?
    X.400
  720. What standard is utilized by the Defense Messaging System for directory services?
    X.500
  721. What is one of the most important parts of security in the defense messaging system (DMS)?
    Fortezza cards

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