Language Disorders Test 2

Card Set Information

Language Disorders Test 2
2011-03-20 22:30:29
Language Disorders Test2

Language Disorders Test 2
Show Answers:

  1. Evaluation of an individual using observations, tests, and other procedures that result in the identification of behaviors or other criteria to determine the presence or absence of a disorder. (may determine placement for special services for intervention)
    Diagnostic Assessment
  2. Refers to the importance of being alert to etiologic factors that may be perpetuating factors.
  3. Refers to the important role of evaluating strengths and weaknesses so deficits can be addressed with specific goals.
  4. What are the main objectives of Assessment?
    • Determine Existence of problem
    • Goals of intervention
    • Intervention Procedures
  5. An approach mindset, or overall philosophy assumed in one's approach to assessment would be referred to as ___________.
    Assessment Plan
  6. What model of assessment plan identifies symptoms including characteristic performance patterns on tests?
    Medical Model
  7. What model of assessment plan identifies strengths and how they might be used to remediate deficits?
    Remedial Model
  8. What model of assessment plan uses patterns in test results to confirm or refute hypotheses about underlying causes?
    Scientific Method
  9. In assessment, what are the specific test instruments and clinical procedures used to collect the evidence?
    Assessment Procedures
  10. What are some examples of assessment procedure tools?
    • Case Hx
    • Standardized Tests
    • Language Sample
  11. Assessment that is performed to determine the existence of a disorder.
    Initial Assessment
  12. What specific assessment tools are used to determine the existence of a disorder?
    • Case Hx
    • Standardized Tests
    • Language Sample
  13. Assessment performed to determine the progress of goals.
    Ongoing Assessment
  14. What specific assessment tools are used to determine the progress of goals?
    • Baserates
    • Language Samples
  15. What are 2 important requirements of an observer?
    • Basic understanding and discernment of behavior
    • Ability to relate observations to a conceptual framework
  16. Observer that makes first-hand observations to assemble and interpret in contribution to the evidence.
    Direct Observer
  17. Observer who provides information, anecdotes, et. to the SLP as evidence is collected and may include teachers and doctors.
    Indirect Observer
  18. Context or setting for evaluating language can vary in 2 ways--what are those variables?
    • Familiarity
    • Structure
  19. Contexts should be as representative of the child's _______________ as possible.
    Natural Environment
  20. Observation locations may not be as easily controlled as the presence of ____________.
    Familiar Persons
  21. Which assessment tool is most structured and all materials, stimuli, & instructions are carefully controlled to maintain uniform procedures to minimize variations in administrations and results?
    Standardized Test
  22. What's the rationale of using standardized testing?
    Ensures differences are between children themselves NOT the administration
  23. What's the primary purpose of standardized testing?
    Identify existence of a disorder
  24. Which assessment tool is midway structured where behaviors are evoked in structured tasks for in-depth testing of specific behaviors?
  25. What's the rationale of baserating?
    In-depth measurement of skills or areas of suspected need
  26. What's the primary purpose of baserating?
    Determine the Goals of treatment
  27. Which assessment tool is the least structured and uses natural conversation interactions?
    Language sample
  28. What is the rationale of language sampling?
    Strong Face Validity
  29. What's the primary purpose of language sampling?
    Determine Goals of Treatment
  30. What are 2 factors that can affect the amount and type of communication behavior that is observed?
    Context and Structure
  31. The value of observations is based on the ability to relate them to a relevant _______ or ________.
    • Scheme
    • Framework
  32. Categorization or classification scheme for observed characteristics or behaviors based on some ordered system.
  33. What type of taxonomic classification scheme exists due to someone else's prior efforts such as Brown's 14 Grammatical Morphemes?
  34. What type of taxonomic classification scheme that emerges as observations are organized?
  35. Taxonomies of ________ follow characteristics of adult language and can be organized in terms of either comprehension or production (Receptive or Expressive language) & language sample and baserating may be organized accordingly.
  36. What are traditional measures of common categorical schemes?
    • Utterance lengths
    • Grammatical categories
    • Morphological structures
    • Sentence types
    • Transformational types
  37. Most standardized tests primarily examine the _________ of the taxonomies of content.
  38. Production of content is most often measured through determining the variety of meanings produced in __________________.
    Expressive Language Samples
  39. Taxonomies of ____ are almost exclusively based on "low structure" observations of social behavior of natural interactions and very few standardized test attempt to classify this category of observation.
  40. Speech Acts, Communicative Functions, & Discourse Skills are some common categorical schemes of __________ of ____.
    Taxonomies of Use
  41. Frequency, Proportions, Ratios, Weights, & Normative Scores are all ways that ________ & ________ observations are accomplished.
    • Quantifying
    • Summarizing
  42. _______________ are meaningful contexts in which to interpret the evidence.
    Frames of Reference
  43. Frame of reference that compares an individual's performance to the performances of a representative sample of his/her peers.
  44. Norm-References frames of reference my be reported in terms of:
    • Standard Scores
    • Percentile Ranks
    • Equivalent Scores
  45. What is the primary purpose of norm-referenced frames of reference?
    Determine Existence of a Disorder
  46. Norm-referencing is most useful in _______ and least useful in __________.
    • Screening
    • Treatment Goals
  47. Frame of reference that compares the performance of one child to a predetermined standard of performance.
  48. Criterion-Referenced frames of reference by be reported in terms of:
    • Percentages of Correct responses
    • Number of Occurences
  49. What is the primary purpose of criterion-referencing?
    • Determine Goals for Intervention
    • Mastery of specific skills information
  50. Criterion-referencing is most helpful in __________ & assessing ____________ during intervention.
    • Goal selection
    • Ongoing Progress
  51. What frame of refernce describes general communication behaviors and classifies those behaviors that are relevant to an individual's overall communication system (observations can be gathered during any of the 3 levels of structured situations).
  52. In Communication-Referencing, there are NO _________ or ________ that can be used for comparison or quantification.
    • Norms
    • Criteria
  53. What are the variables that are typically controlled in standardized testing?
    • Stimuli
    • Instructions
    • Prompts
    • Time requirements
    • Scoring criteria
  54. In standardization, the entire group of individuals who exhibit a trait or characteristic of interest.
    Normative Population
  55. In standardization, a subgroup of individuals chosen to be representative of the population of interest.
    Normative Sample
  56. What variables related to "representativeness" of individuals are included in samples?
    • Intelligence
    • Socio-economic
    • Ethnic/cultural
    • Geographic regions
    • Number of individuals
  57. The Normative Sample ________ the population.
  58. As more individuals are included in a sample, the mean becomes increasingly _________.
  59. A bell-shaped curve representing the theoretical distribution of an infinitely large number of scores in a population with deviation occuring only by chance.
    Normal (Distribution) Curve
  60. The likelihood for observations or values to cluster around some value.
    Central Tendency
  61. Measure of central tendency that's the arithmetic average of a set of scores; the sum of the scores is divided by the number of scores in the set.
  62. Measure of central tendency score that divides the top 50% from the bottom 50% in a distribution of scores.
  63. Measure of central tendency that is the most frequently occurring score or value in a distribution of scores.
  64. A theoretical curve derived mathematically to represent the nomal (random) distribution of a trait, value, or score.
    Normal Curve
  65. Tendencies for values to vary, disperse, or scatter around or away from the average value.
    Dispersion or Variablility
  66. A weak measure of dispersion/variablility that is the difference between the highest and lowest scores and doesn't reveal anything about the distribution of the scores.
  67. A strong measure for expressing the amount of dispersion/variablility in a set of scores with reference to the mean.
    Standard Deviation
  68. The mean and standard deviation for a set of values are __________ that mark how much of the distribution is clustered near the mean or scattered away from the mean.
  69. Smaller SDs indicate more scores are clustered _________ around the mean.
    More Densely
  70. Larger SDs indicate more scores are dispersed _________ from the mean.
  71. The words "typical, average, or expected" or "absence of abnormalities or deficiencies" are associated with defining _________.
  72. Statistical parameters using standard deviations to define how far away from the mean/average an observation/score can fall and still be considered normal.
    Statistical Definition of Normal
  73. Statistical definition of normal based on the set of values that fall between 1 SD above and 1 SD below the mean.
    Narrow View of Normal
  74. According to the narrow view of normal, disordered scores are those that fall what percent below or 1 SD below the mean?
    16% below
  75. Statistical definition of normal based on the set of values that fall between 2 SD above and 2 SD below the mean.
    Broad View of Normal
  76. According to the broad view of normal, disordered scores are those that fall what percent below or 2 SD below the mean?
    3% below
  77. Original, unconverted score obtained on a test (number of items, credits, or points obtained on items administered); meaningless until referenced to norms for the test.
    Raw score
  78. Normalized score obtained by comparing the raw score to the normative sample distribution score.
    Derived score
  79. Normalized score expressed in its equivalent form on another standardized scale.
    Converted score
  80. General term referring to transformed/normalized scores used to compare individual's performance to that of his peers (same population); based on mean and SD in the standardized sample.
    Standardized Scores
  81. What specific scores are considered Standard Scores?
    • Deviation Quotient/SSE--100/15
    • T-Score--50/10
    • Z-Score--0/1
    • Stanine--5/2
    • Scaled scores (based on indiv. mean/SD)
  82. Standard score which has a mean=100 and SD=15.
    Deviation Quotient/Standard Score Equivalent
  83. Standard score which has a mean=50 and SD=10.
  84. Standard score which has a mean=0 and SD=1.
  85. Standard score which represents the normal distribution with nine bands or ranges; has a mean=5 (scores w/in the 5th band) and SD=2 (bands).
  86. Scores expressed using arbitrary value ranges representing a standard score distribution with a set mean and SD.
    Scaled Scores
  87. Scores expressed as a point in the distribution of scores below which the given percent of scores fall (not a standard score--isn't based on mean/SD). Some align with important points in the normal distribution.
    Percentile Rank
  88. What are important percentile ranks to remember?
    • 50%=Normal
    • 16% below 1 SD=Disordered
    • 3% below 2 SD=Disordered
  89. Derived score expressed as the chronological age or grade placement of that group for whom an obtained score was typical; based only on the means obtained by each of the peer groups included in the standardized sample.
    Equivalent Score (Age/Grade)
  90. It's difficult to make judgments regarding normalcy using equivalent scores because there my be considerable ________ in the distributions of adjacent age/grade levels because info. on the _________ is not considered.
    • Overlap
    • Variability (SDs)
  91. Greater discrepancy between ____________ and ___________, the greater the confidence that a disorder exists.
    • Chronological Age
    • Age Equivalent Score
  92. _________ scores are most useful for helping parents understand the discrepancy between their child's age/grade abilities.
  93. Hypothetical score that most accurately represents the subject's actual level of ability in the skill being measured.
    True Score
  94. Actual obtained score derived from the subject's performance on a given measure.
    Observed Score
  95. The measure of variablility evident in test scores over re-administrations of a test instruments to subgroups of the standardized sample. Smaller=less variablilty / Larger=greater variability (Equivalent to SD).
    Standard Error of Measurement (SEM)
  96. Statistically derived range of probable scores in which the hypothetical true score for a subject might be expected to fall; based on variability evidenced by standardized sample. (Observed score + 1 SEM - 1 SEM)
    Confidence Interval (Band)
  97. Extent to which an instrument measures what it claims to measure.
  98. Extent to which items in a test represent the theoretical construct being measured and requires expert analysis for comparison.
    Construct validity
  99. Extent to which an expert determines items in a test represent the skill being measured.
    Content validity
  100. Extent a layperson recognizes the relationship between test items and the skill being measured.
    Face validity
  101. Extent to which the instrument performs according to some established criterion. (2 types: Concurrent & Predictive)
    Criterion validity
  102. Type of criterion validity comparing performances to those on currently established instruments.
    Concurrent Criterion Validity
  103. Type of criterion validity predicting future performance from the measure obtained by the instrument.
    Predictive Criterion Validity
  104. Extent to which results obtained by an instrument with a given subject are similar or consistent.
  105. Extent to which similar scores are obtained with the same subject on subsequent administrations by the same examiner.
    Intra-Examiner/Test-Retest reliability
  106. Extent to which similar scores are obtained with the same subject on subsequent administrations by different examiners.
    Inter-Examiner reliability
  107. Extent to which similar scores are obtained with the same subject on different forms of same test.
    Equivalence of Forms/Split-Half reliability
  108. Highest set of items that satisfies the specified sequence of successful items.
  109. Basal item is the _______ item in the basal sequence.
  110. Lowest set of items that satisfies the specified sequence of unsuccessful items.
  111. Ceiling item is the ______ item in the ceiling sequence.
  112. Unsuccessful/error items that occur between the basal and ceiling item.
  113. Basal-Ceiling administration procedure requires that test items be arranged ________.
    Hierarchically (least-most difficult)
  114. Basal-Ceiling administration procedure is intended to only ________ the skill of interest.
    Sample (less than complete info is obtained)
  115. Advantage of Basal-Ceiling administration procedure is that items administered can be reduced in number in turn reducing _______ and ______.
    • Time
    • Effort
  116. What are 4 basic considerations when preparing for test administration procedures?
    • Setting
    • Subject
    • Instructions
    • Cueing
  117. What should be considered when interpreting test scores?
    • Accuracy
    • Reliability
  118. What must be considered when test results in a low score?
    Confounding Factors (illness, fatigue, poor admin., etc.)
  119. What range in terms of SD is considered normal?
    • >-1SD (> 16th percentile)
    • (Low range of normal is -1SD/16th percentile)
  120. What range in terms of SD is considered Mildly Disordered?
    -1 SD to -1.5 SD (7th to 16th percentile)
  121. What range in terms of SD is considered Moderately Disordered?
    -1.5 SD to -2 SD (3rd-7th percentile)
  122. What range in terms of SD is considered Severely Disordered?
    < -2 SD (> 3rd percentile)
  123. What 2 modalities of testing are used in assessment?
    • Receptive
    • Expressive
  124. What skills are assessed in testing?
    • Vocabulary
    • Morphology
    • Syntax/Grammar
  125. What does the Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test-Revised (PPVT-4) test?
    Receptive "Common" Vocabulary
  126. What does the Receptive One-Word Picture Vocabulary Test-Revised (ROWPVT-2000) test?
    Receptive Single Word "Common" Vocabulary
  127. What do both the Boehm Test of Basic Concepts-Preschool & Revised versions test?
    Receptive Semantic "Classroom" Vocabulary
  128. What do both The Word Test Revised Elementary & Adolescent versions test?
    Expressive Semantic Vocabulary--"vocabulary skills"
  129. What does the Expressive One-Word Picture Vocabulary Test (EOWPVT-2000) test?
    Expressive Single Word "Common" Vocabulary
  130. What does the Expressive Vocabulary Test (EVT) test?
    Expressive "Common" Vocabulary
  131. What does the Test for Examining Expressive Morphology (TEEM) test?
    Expressive Morphology
  132. What does the Structure Photographic Expressive Language Test-II (SPELT-II) test?
    Expressive Syntax (Grammar & Morphology)
  133. What does the Test of Problem Solving (TOPS-3) test?
    Expressive (and receptive?) Syntax Problem Solving
  134. Which 2 tests have subtests?
    • Test of Language Development (TOLD-4)--subtests for all modalities/skills
    • Test of Auditory Comprehension of Language (TACL-3)--All Receptive skills
  135. What are the purposes of Language Sampling?
    • Describe CURRENT language behaviors
    • Det. which lang. behaviors child's READY to learn
    • Measure behavioral CHANGE
  136. What should be considered in language sample observations?
    • Direct vs. Indirect
    • Context
    • Length
    • Recording
    • Transcription
  137. When determining the analysis of language sampling what should be considered?
    • Quantity--Length/MLU
    • Quality--Grammar
    • Variety--Semantics
    • Appropriateness--Pragmatics
  138. What is the purposes of Baserating (nonstandardized elicitation)?
    • Supplement language samples & test results
    • Prioritize goal selection
    • Effectiveness evaluation
  139. What 3 techniques are used in baserating?
    • Spontaneous--non-modeled elicitations
    • Imitative--modeled elicitations
    • Patterning, Sentence completion--non-imitative modeled elicitations
  140. In selecting goals for intervention what criterion should be considered?
    • Productivity criterion
    • Mastery criterion or Properant
    • General "Rules of Thumb"