Paramedica exam (Cardio)

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mst2716
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74999
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Paramedica exam (Cardio)
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2011-03-24 22:22:10
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Cardiac Exam
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Cardiac Exam for Paramedic test.
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  1. Damage to the cardiac electrical condution system caused by an acute myocardial infarction Most commonly results in?
    A) severe tachycardia
    B) acute bundle branch block.
    C) bradycardia or heart block.
    D) ventricular arrhythmias.
    C) bradycardia or heart block.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. The appropriate dosing regimen for epinephrine in cardiac arrest is?
    A) 1 ml of a 1:10,000 solution every 3 to 5 minutes.
    B) 0.1 mg/kg of a 1:10,000 solution every 3 minutes.
    C) 10 ml of a 1:1,000 solution every 3 to 5 minutes.
    D) 1 mg of a 1:10,000 solution every 3 to 5 minutes.
    D) 1 mg of a 1:10,000 solution every 3 to 5 minutes.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. You are performing CPR on an 80-year-old woman whose cardiac arres was witnessed by her husband. Several intubation attempts have been unsuccessful, but ventilations with a bag-mask device are producing adequate chest rise. IV access has been obtained and 1 mg of epinephrine has been administered. The cardiac monitor displays a narrow QRS complex rhythm at a rated of 70 beats/minutes. according to the patients husband, she has had numerous episodes of diarrhea over the past 24 hours and has not had much of an appetite. The MOST appropriate next action should be to?
    A) continue CPR and administer crystalloid fluid boluses.
    B) administer 50% dextrose for presumed hypoglycemia.
    C) administer 1 mg of atropine while CPR is ongoing.
    D) assess the rhythm and pulse after 3 minutes of CPR.
    A) continue CPR and administer crystalloid fluid boluses.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Which of the following mechanisms causes hypertension?
    A) Arteriosclerosis results in increased elasticity of the arteries, causing vasodilation and increased arteriolar capacity.
    B) Atherosclerotic plaque narrows one or more of the coronary arteries, resulting in increased cardiac perfusion.
    C) Increased afterload stimulates the Frank-Starling reflex, which raises the pressure behind the blood leaving the heart.
    D) Heart rate that is persistenly above 80 Beats/min causes an increase in cardiac output and a resultant increase in blood pressure.
    C) Increased afterload stimulates the Frank-Starling reflex, which raises the pressure behind the blood leaving the heart.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. A Patient with orthopnea:
    A) experiences dyspnea during periods of exertion.
    B) prefers a semisitting position to facilitate breathing.
    C) experiences worsened dyspnea while lying down.
    D) sleeps in a recliner due to severe right heart failure.
    C) experiences worsened dyspnea while lying down.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. The point of macimal impulse (PMI) usually can be felt on the:
    A) left anterior chest, in the midclavicular line, at the fifth intercostal space.
    B) left anterior chest, in the midaxillary line, at the fifth intercostal space.
    C) left lateral chest, in the midaxillary line, at the fourth intercostal space.
    D) medial aspext of the chest, just below the third intercostal space.
    A) left anterior chest, in the midclvicular line, at the fifth intercostal space.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. The ability of the heart to vary the degree of it contraction without stretching is called:
    A) automaticity.
    B) Frank-Starling effect.
    C) chronotropy.
    D) contractility.
    D) contractility.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. It is MOST important to evaluate a cardiac arrhythmia in the context of the:
    A) patient's heart reate.
    B) patient's medical history.
    C) patient's overall condition.
    D) width of the QRS complex.
    C) patient's overall condition.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Immediate treatment for a patient with an acute myocardial infarction involves:
    A) elevating the patient's legs 6 to 12 inches.
    B) reducing myocardial oxygen demand.
    C) administering up to 3 doses of nitroglycerin.
    D) giving oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.
    B) reducing myocardial oxygen demand.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Which of the following clinical findings is LEAST suggestive of left side heart failure?
    A) Crackles in the lungs
    B) an S3 gallop
    C) Sacral edema
    D) Shortness of breath
    C) Sacral edema
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. What is the approximate maximum dose of lidocaine for a 200 pound patient?
    A) 275 mg
    B) 300 mg
    C) 350 mg
    D) 325 mg
    A) 275 mg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Repolarization begins when:
    A) the inside of the cell returns to a positive charge.
    B) potassium ions rapidly escape from the cell.
    C) the sodium and calcium channels close.
    D) calcium ions slowly enter the cardiac cell.
    C) the sodium and calcium channels close.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Which of the following patients would MOST likely present with atypical signs and symptoms of an acute myocardial infarction?
    A) 71 year old woman with hypertension
    B) 60 year old man with anxiety
    C) 58 year old diabetic woman
    D) 49 year old obese man
    C) 58 year old diabetic woman
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Which of the following statements regarding the right side of the heart is MOST correct?
    A) It receives blood exclusively from the venae cavae.
    B) It pumps against the high resistance of the pulmonary circulation.
    C) The right side of the heart pumps blood through the pulmonary veins.
    D) The right side of the heart is a low pressure pump.
    D) The right side of the heart is a low pressure pump.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Infarctions of the inferior myocardial wall are MOST often caused by:
    A) occlusion of the right coronary artery.
    B) acute spasm of the circumflex artery.
    C) blockage of the left coronary artery.
    D) a blocked left anterior descending artery.
    A) occlusion of the right coronary artery.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Death in the prehospital setting following an acute myocardial infarction is MOST often the result of:
    A) ventricular fibrillation.
    B) asystole.
    C) myocardial rupture.
    D) cardiogenic shock.
    A) ventricular fibrillation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. The numerous connectins among the arterioles of the various coronary arteries, which allow for the development of alternate routes of blood flow if a larger coronary artery is blocked, are called:
    A) the coronary sinus.
    B) cardiac myocytes.
    C) coronary microcirculation.
    D) collateral circulation.
    D) collateral circulation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. A prolonged Q-T interval indicates that the heart:
    A) has a shorter than normal refractory period, increasing the likelihood of severe bradycardia.
    B) is depolarizing too quickly, which significantly increases the potential for reenty in the AV junction
    C) is experiencing an extended refractory period, making the ventricles more vulnerable to arrhythmias.
    D) has a shortened refractory period and may be caused by factors such as hypocalcemia or pericarditis.
    C) is experiencing an extended refractory period, making the ventricles more vulnerable to arrhythmias.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Common complaints in patients experiencing an acute coronary syndrome (ACS) include all of the following EXCEPT:
    A) palpitations
    B) fatigue
    C) chest pain
    D) headache
    D) headache
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. The downslope of the T wave:
    A) is the strongest part of ventricular depolarization and is often the origin of dangerous ventricular arrhythmias.
    B) represents a vulnerable period during which a strong impulse could cause depolarization, resulting in a lethal arrhythmia.
    C) represents a state of absolute ventricular refractoriness in which another impulse connot cause depolarization.
    D) is the point of ventricular repolarization to which a defibrillator is synchronized to deliver electrical energy.
    B) represents a vulnerable period during which a strong impulse could cause depolarization, resulting in a lethal arrhythmia.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. A major complication associated with atrial fibrillation is:
    A) pulmonary congestion and hypoxemia.
    B) a profound increase in the atrial kick.
    C) clot formation in the bivrillating atria.
    D) a significant reduction in atrial filling.
    C) clot formation in the fibrillating atria.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. The duration of the QRS complex should be less than:
    A) 0.12 seconds.
    B) 0.14 seconds.
    C) 0.16 seconds.
    D) 0.10 seconds.
    A) 0.12 seconds.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. The heart's anatomic location is MOST accurately described as being:
    A) retrosternal.
    B) submediastinal.
    C) supradiaphragmatic.
    D) hemithoracic.
    A) retrosternal.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. A 17 year old man complains of palpitations and light headedness that began suddenly about 20 minutes ago. his blood pressure is 118/74 mm Hg, heart rate is rapid and regular, respirations are 18 breath per minute. The cardiac monitor reveals a narrow QRS complex tachycardia at 180 beats/min. As you are applying supplemental oxygen, the cardiac rhytm spontaneously converts to a sinus rhythm. Closer evaluation of his rhythm reveals a rapid up slope to the R wave immediately after the end of the P wave. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is most correct?
    A) In this patient, there is a delay in ventricular depolarization.
    B) The patient's ECG abnormality is called an Osborn Wave.
    C) The ECG abnormality is caused by failure of the AV node.
    D) This patient likely has Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
    D) This patient likely has Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Common signs of left-sided heart failure include all of the following, EXCEPT:
    A) hypotension.
    B) hypertension.
    C) confusion.
    D) tachycardia.
    A) Hypotension.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. In Contrast to the right side of the heart, the left side of the heart:
    A) is a high- pressure pump that sends blood through the pulmonary circulation and to the lungs.
    B) drives blood out of the heart against the relatively low resistance of th pulmonary circulation.
    C) drives blood out of the heart against the relatively high resistance of the systemic circulation.
    D) is a relatively low-pressure pump that must stretch its walls in order to force blood through the aorta.
    C) drives blood out of the heart against the relatively high resistance of the systemic circulation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. You respond to the scene of an assault, where a 20 year old man was struck in the chest with a steel pipe. Your assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. the most appropriate next intervention is to.
    A) look for evidence of a pericardial tamponade.
    B) give 2 minutes of 15 compressions and 2 breaths.
    C) perform 5 cycles of well-coordinated CPR.
    D) immediately assess the patient's cardiac rhythm.
    C) perform 5 cycles of well coordinated CPR.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which of the following differentiates an atrial rhythm from a sinus rhythm?
    A) Dissociated P waves
    B) Profound bradycardia
    C) Varying shapes in P waves
    D) Tachycardia
    C) Varying shapes in P waves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. The MOST common cause of cardiac arrest in adult patients is:
    A) electrocution.
    B) respiratory failure.
    C) an arrhythmia.
    D) acute myocardial infarction.
    C) an arrhythmia.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is MOST accurately defined as:
    A) any tachycardic rhythm with a heart rate greater than 130 beats/min and absent P waves.
    B) a tachycardic rhythm originating from a pacemaker site above the level of the ventricles.
    C) an irregular tachycardic rhythm that originates just below the atrioventricular junction.
    D) a regular tachycardic rhythm between 150 and 180 beats/min with P waves buried in the QRS complexes.
    B) a tachycardic rhythm originating from a pacemaker site above the level of the ventricles.
  31. Cardiac related chest pain is often palliated by:
    A) stress.
    B) exertion.
    C) mild exercise.
    D) nitroglycerin.
    D) Nitroglycerin.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. To increase myocardial contractility and heart rate and to relax the bronchial smooth muscle, you must give a drug that:
    A) blocks beta-1 and beta-2 receptors.
    B) stimulates beta-2 and alpha receptors.
    C) blocks beta receptores and stimulates alpha receptors.
    D) stimulates beta-1 and beta-2 receptors.
    D) stimulates beta-1 and beta-2 recptors.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Stable angina:
    A) occurs after a predictable amount of exertion.
    B) usually requires both rest and nitroglycerin to subside.
    C) typically subsides within 10 to 15 minutes.
    D) is characterized by sharp chest pain rather than pressure.
    A) occurs after a predictable amount of exertion.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Jugular venous distention in a patient sitting at a 45o angle:
    A) indicates right heart compromise.
    B) is not clinically significant.
    C) is a sign of reduced preload.
    D) suggests left side heart failure.
    A) indicates right heart compromise.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. The area of conduction tissue in which electrical activity arises at any given time is called the:
    A) pacemaker.
    B) myocyte.
    C) sinus node.
    D) bundle of His.
    A) Pacemaker.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. You receive a call to a residence for a 44 year old man who is "ill." The patient, who receives dialysis treatments three times a week, tells you that he has missed his last two treatments because he was not feeling well. As your partner takes the patient's vitals signs, you apply the ECG, which reveals a sinus rhythm with tall T waves. the 12 lead ECG reveals a sinus rhythm with inverted complexes in lead VR. On the basis of your clinical findings, you should be most suspicious that the patient is:
    A) hypernatremic.
    B) hypocalcemic.
    C) having an acute MI.
    D) hyperkalemic.
    D) hyperkalemic.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Premature ventricular complexes (PVCs) that originate from different sites in the ventricle:
    A) are also called fusion PVCs.
    B) will appear differently on the ECG.
    C) are called unifocal PVCs.
    D) produce a palpable pulse.
    B) will appear differently on the ECG.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. In a patient with left heart failure and pulmonary edema:
    A) diffusely collapsed alveoli cause blood from the right side of the heart to bypass the alveoli and return to the left side of the heart.
    B) increased pressure in the left atrium and pulmonary veins forces serum out of the pulmonary capillaries and into the alveoli.
    C) an acute myocardial infarction or chronic hypertension causes the left ventricle to pump against decreased afterload, resulting in hypoperfusion.
    D) the right atrium and ventricle pump against lower pressures, resulting in the systemic pooling of venous blood.
    B) increased pressure in the left atrium and pulmonary veins forces serum out of the pulmonary capillaries and into the alveoli.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. You are dispatched to a grocery store for a 39 year old woman with a severe headache. The patient advises you that her headache, which was present when she woke up this morning,k is located in the back of her head. She is conscious and alert, with a blood pressure of 194/112 mm Hg, pulse of 100 beats/min and strong, and respirations of 14 breaths/min and regular. She denies a history of hypertension or any other significant medical problems. The closest appropriate facility is located 15 miles away. You should:
    A) administer oxygen as tolerated, give up to 5 mg of morphine intramuscularly, and transport proptly.
    B) administer supplemental oxygen, start an IV line of normal saline at a keep open rate, and transport.
    C) give high flow oxygen, establish vascular access, begin transport, and administer labetalol en route.
    D) start an IV line of normal salin, give her 0.4 mg of sublingual nitroglycerin, and transport at once.
    B) administer supplemental oxygen, start an IV line of normal saline at a keep open rate, and transport.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Patients with a heart rate greater than 150 beats/min usually become unstable because of:
    A) a significantly reduced afterload.
    B) reduced ventricular filling.
    C) increased right atrial preload.
    D) an increase in the atrial kick.
    B) reduced ventricular filling.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. In contrast to stable angina, unstable angina:
    A) is less frequent but is associated with more pain.
    B) often awakens the patient from his or her sleep.
    C) indicates that myocardial necrosis has occured.
    D) occurs following periods of strenuous exertion.
    B) often awakens the patient from his or her sleep.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. The right atrium, right ventricle, and part of the left ventricle are supplied by the:
    A) circumflex artery.
    B) left main coronary artery.
    C) right coronary artery.
    D) left anterior descending artery.
    C) right coronary artery.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. A woman found her 48 year old husband semiconscious on the couch. As she is escorting you to the patient, she tells you that he had an episode of chest pain the day before but refused to go to the hospital. The patient is responsive to pain only and is markedly diaphoretic. His blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg, pulse is 140 beats/min and thready, and respirations are 28 breaths/min and shallow. The cardiac monitor reveals sinus tachycardia in lead II and a 12 lead ECG reveals signs of myocardial injury. your should:
    A) start an IV line, administer 5 mg of midazolam, intubate the patient's trachea, ventilate him at a rate of 15 breaths/min, begin transport, and start a dopamine infusion at 5 micrograms/kg/min en route to the hospital.
    B) place the patient in a semi fowler position to facilitate breathing, administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, begin transport, establish vascular access en route, and administer 20 ml/kg fluid boluses to improve his blood pressure.
    C) elevate the patient's legs, ventilate him with a bag-mask device, begin transport, establish access en route, administer 6 mg of adenosine to slow his heart rate, and begin an infusion of epinephrine to increase his blood pressure.
    D) keep the patient in a supine position, insert a nasal airway, assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device, begin transport, establish vascular access en route, consider a 100-200 ml saline bolus, and start an infusion of dopamine.
    D) keep the patient in a supine position, insert a nasal airway, assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device, begin transport, establish vascular access en route, consider a 100-200 ml saline bolus, and start an infusion of dopamine.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. A 56 year old man complains of chest tightness, shortness of breath, and nausea. During your assessment, you note that he appears confused. He is profusely diaphoretic, and has a blood pressure of 98/68 mm Hg and a rapid radial pulse. The cardiac monitor reveals a wide QRS complex tachycardia at a rate of 200 beats.min. After administering high-flow oxygen, your should:
    A) establish vascular access and administer 150 mg of amiodarone over 10 minutes.
    B) establish IV access, consider sedation, and perform synchronized cardioversion.
    C) attempt to slow his heart rate with vagal maneuvers and then start an IV line.
    D) obtain a 12 lead ECG tracing to determine the origin of his tachycardic rhythm.
    B) establish IV access, consider sedation, and perform synchronized cardioversion.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. A patient in cardiogenic shock without cardiac arrhythmias will benefit MOST from:
    A) supplemental oxygen.
    B) a 250 mL bolus of a crystalloid solution.
    C) a high dose vasopressor infusion.
    D) rapid transport to an appropriate hospital.
    D) Rapid transport to an appropriate hospital.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Acute Coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term to describe:
    A) a sudden cardiac rhythm disturbance that causes a decrease in cardiac output.
    B) acute chest pressure or discomfort that subsides with rest or nitroglycerin.
    C) any group of clinical symptoms consistent with acute myocardial ischemia.
    D) a clinical condition in which patients experience chest pain during exertion.
    C) any group of clinical symptoms comsistent with acute myocardial ischemia.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. In contrast to a patient with asthma, a patient with left-sided heart failure:
    A) Experiences acute weight gain and takes medication such as digoxin and a diuretic.
    B) presents with a dry, nonproductive cough and diffuse wheezing in all lung fields.
    C) is typically a younger patient with a history of a recent upper respiratory infection.
    D) presents with a hyperinflated chest, use of accessory muscles, and expiratory wheezing.
    A) experiences acute weight gain and takes medications such as digoxin and a diuretic.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. You have applied the defibrillator pads to a pulseless and apneic 60 year old woman and observe a slow, wide QRS complex rhythm. Your next action should be to:
    A) immediately begin CPR.
    B) check the carotid pulse.
    C) assess breathing effort.
    D) attempt cardiac pacing.
    A) immediately begin CPR.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Hypertensive disease is characterized by:
    A) persistent elevation of the diastolic pressure.
    B) a diastolic blood pressure above 90 mm Hg.
    C) constant fluctuation in the systolic blood pressure.
    D) a systolic blood pressure greater than 140 mm Hg.
    A) persistent elevation of the diastolic pressure.
  50. a 70 year old man called 9-1-1 becuase of generalized weakness. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient seated in his recliner. He is conscious and alert and is breathing without difficulty. Your physical exam reveals tenderness to his right upper abdominal quadrant, edema to his ankles, and distended jugular veins. The patient tells you that he takes Vasotec for hypertension and Maxide for his swollen ankles. His vital signs are stable. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes:
    A) High flow oxygen, vascular access, 1 mg/kg of furosemide, and transport.
    B) oxygen, cardiac monitoring, an IV line at a keep open rate, and transport.
    C) 12 Lead ECG acquisition, vascular access, 4 mg of morphine, and transport.
    D) an IV of D5W, 0.4 mg of sublingual nitroglycerin, ECG, and transport.
    B) oxygen, cardiac monitoring, an IV line at a keep open rate, and transport.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. In contrast to coarse ventricular vibrillation, fine ventricular fivrillation indicates that:
    A) a perfusing rhythm is not possible following defibrillation.
    B) the arrhythmia is more likely to respond to defivrillation.
    C) energy reserves of the cardiac cells have been expended.
    D) The cardiac cells temporarily have adequate energy stores.
    C) energy reserves of the cardiac cells have been expended.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. A patient with cardiogenic pulmonary edema and shock should be positioned:
    A) in a semi-Fowler's position.
    B) supine with the legs elevated.
    C) in a lateral recumbent position.
    D) in the Trendelenburg position.
    A) in a semi-Fowler's position.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. The administration of dopamine or any other vasopressor drug requires:
    A) online medical control approval.
    B) an electromechanical infusion pump.
    C) concomitant crstalliod fluid boluses.
    D) careful titration and blood pressure monitoring.
    D) careful titration and blood pressure monitoring.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. a Loud S3 heart sound, when heard in older adults,often signifies:
    A) valve repture.
    B) emphysema.
    C) pulmonary hypertension.
    D) heart failure.
    D) heart failure.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. You have just performed synchronized cardioversion on a patient with unstable ventricular tachycardia. Upon reassessment, you note that the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. you should:
    A) desynchronize the defivbrillator, defibrillate one time, and check for a pulse.
    B) ensure that the synchronizer is off, defibrillate, and immediately begin CPR.
    C) increase the energy setting on the defibrillator and repeat the cardioversion.
    D) perform 5 cycles of CPR, reassess the cardiac rhythm, and defivrillate if needed.
    B) ensure that the synchronizer is off, defibrillate, and immediately begin CPR.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. The MOST common cause of right sided heart failure is:
    A) left sided heart failure.
    B) pulmonary hypotension.
    C) acute pulmanary embolism.
    D) long- standing emphysema.
    A) left sided heart failure.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. A 56 year old man presents with an acute onset of chest pressure and diaphoresis. He has a history of hypertension and insulin dependent diabetes. His airway is patent and his breathing is adequate. You should:
    A) obtain baseline vitals signs.
    B) acquire a 12 lead ecg tracing.
    C) administer high flow oxygen.
    D) establish vascular access.
    C) administer high flow oxygen.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. When assessing a patient's 12 lead ECG, it is MOST important to remember that:
    A) an unremarkable 12 lead ECG rules out an acute MI.
    B) the ECG's analysis of the rhythm is more accurate than yours.
    C) the 12 lead alone should be used to guide your treatment.
    D) it may take hours for changes to appear on the ECG.
    D) it may take hours for changes to appear on the ECG.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Cardiogenic shock occurs when:
    A) more than 40% of the left ventricle has infarcted.
    B) any condition causes an increase in atrial preload.
    C) left ventricular ejection fraction is less than 50%.
    D) blood backs up into the pulmonary circulation.
    A) more than 40% of the left ventricle has infarcted.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Injury to the inferior wall of the myocardium would present with:
    A) pathologic Q waves in leads V4 and V5.
    B) T wave inversion in leads V1 through V4.
    C) ST segment elevation in leads II, III, and AVF.
    D) ST segment depression in leads V5, V6, and AVL.
    C) ST segment elevation in leads II, III, and AVF.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. When monitoring a patient's cardiac rhythm, it is MOST important to remember that:
    A) many patients with acute myocardial infarction experience asystole.
    B) the ECG does not provide data regarding the patient's cardiac output.
    C) a heart rate below 60 beats per minute must be treated immediately.
    D) the presence of a QRS complex correlates with the patient's pulse.
    B) the ECG does not provide data regarding the patient's cardiac output.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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