Test 2 review

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Test 2 review
2011-03-28 23:26:25
Theory II test review

Ch 21ish Theory review #2
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  1. what is the voluntary agreement to an action proposed by another called?
  2. which consent is a pt's voluntary agreement to a tx plan after details of the proposed tx have been presented and comprehended by the pt?
    informed consent
  3. which consent is a pa's decision to REFUSE recommended tx after all options, potential risks, and potential benefits have been thoroughly explained?
    informed refusal
  4. t/f an informed consent can be lacking even when a document has been signed if the pt has not had the opportunity to comprehend and evaluate the risks and benefits of the tx.
  5. _______ consent is given ORALLY or in WRITING
    expressed consent
  6. ______ consent is the pt's presence in the dental chair, only applies to data collection, data analysis, and tx planning
    implied consent
  7. what do you do if someone chooses refusal of care? (3)
    • have them sign informed refusal
    • have respect for that patients decision
    • document in the pt's permanent record
  8. T/F a consent:
    May exist without written documentation
    May be lacking with written documentation
  9. what are the three risk factors for oral cancer?
    • alcohol
    • tobacco
    • sun exposure (lips and face)
  10. IE, CVD, diabetes mellitus, respiratory disease, and adverse pregnancy outcomes are examples of RISK FACTORS for _______ ________ from _______ ________
    • periodontal disease
    • systemic conditions
  11. Would someone require premed for:
    All instrumentation, including probing, exploring, mobility determination
  12. Manipulation of gingival tissue
    Procedures that involve periapical region of teeth
    Perforation of oral mucosa
    are all examples of someone that would need to ________ for their appt
  13. t/f smoking cessation procedure is a dh supplemental care procedure
  14. desensitization of sensitive areas is a dh __________ care procedure
  15. Special care for implants and fixed prostheses and
    referral for retreatment evaluation are both dh ______ _________ procedures
    supplemental care
  16. what are the 4 dh supplemental care procedures?
    • Smoking cessation assistance
    • Desensitization of sensitive areas
    • Special care for implants and fixed prostheses
    • Referral for retreatment evaluation
  17. when does recolonization of pathogens occur?
    42 days!
  18. bacteria grows after ____ hours
  19. if recolonization of pathogens occur in 42 days, why do we schedule patients that are more at risk, in a 3 mo recall?
    for pt compliance
  20. what are six contributing factors that can affect the recolonization of pathogens quicker?
    • inadequate biofilm control,
    • lack of compliance w/maintenance appts.,
    • incomplete professional tx.,
    • tobacco use,
    • systemic disease,
    • genetic factors.
  21. Adequate control of etiologic factors
    Adequate pt. self-care ability
    Adequate periodontal support
    These are all _____ dh prognoses
  22. Adequate control of etiologic factors
    Adequate pt. self-care ability
    Less than 25% attachment loss
    Class I or less furcation involvement
    What dh prognosis does this describe?
  23. Greater than 50% attachment loss with Cl II furcation
    Patient self-care difficult due to location and depth of furcation
    Which dh prognoses is this?
  24. If someone has:
    Greater than 50% attachment loss with poor crown to root ration
    Poor root form
    Inaccessible class II furcation or class III furcation
    Greater than 2+ mobility
    Significant root proximity
    Which dh prognosis is this?
  25. what is a HOPELESS dh prognosis?
    Inadequate attachment to maintain the tooth
  26. some expected clinical outcomes of the gingiva/periodontal are: (7)
    • reduce dental biofilm
    • no BOP
    • reduce probe depths
    • no further loss in attachment level
    • decrease or no change in mobility
    • resolution of erythematous tissue
    • reduced swelling and edema
  27. what are some dental caries expected outcomes? (6)
    • no new demineralized areas
    • demineralized areas resolved
    • no new carious lesions
    • reduced intake of cariogenic foods/beverages
    • dental sealants placed
    • increased fl2 use
  28. what is the three-part care plan for expected outcomes?
    • gingival/periodontal
    • dental caries
    • prevention
  29. elimination of iatrogenic factors, increased biofilm-free areas, tobacco-free status achieved, and modification of systemic risk factors are part of the ___________ expected outcomes
  30. The evidence-based care is:
    Determined by _______ of _________ data, documented evidence of _______, and
    Enhanced by the clinicians ability to assess the value of information available in product advertising and in the __________ __________
    • analysis of assessment
    • success
    • scientific literature
  31. what is the purpose of the pre-procedural rinse?
    to lower the bacterial count in aerosols and decrease the potential for bacteremia