MD80 SYSTEMS REVIEW

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david130
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76434
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MD80 SYSTEMS REVIEW
Updated:
2014-03-10 00:11:28
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MD80
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SYSTEMS REVIEW
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  1. Do not take off if ANY Brake Temperature exceeds ____
    205o C
  2. What is the Maximum tire rotation speed?
    195 knots
  3. Red Landing Gear Position lights illuminate when:
    The Gear is up and locked and one or both throttles are at idle.

    The gear is in TRANSIT

    The Gear is not down and locked and the handle is DOWN.
  4. The gear warning horn is inhibited until descending to 1000 feet on the Captain's Radio Altimeter. However, if the Captain's Radio Altimeter is inop, gear warning horn and aural warning will sound when:
    • The airplane is less than 210 knots.
    • Either one or both Throttles are closed.
    • The gear is not down-and-locked.
  5. Nose Wheel Steering Maximum turn capability:

    1. Steering Wheel (tiller)
    2. Rudder Steering

    3. Towing:
    Towing: 90o

    Steering Wheel: 82o

    • Rudder Steering: 17o
  6. Maximum Brake temperature during taxi?
    205o C.
  7. Scenario:

    Rejected Takeoff, over 70 knots, Auto Brakes Armed.

    What Happens?
    Raising the Reverse Thrust Levers automatically cause the Spoiler Lever to move Aft deploying the spoilers. Spoiler Lever movement TRIGGERS Autobrakes. Maximum braking is applied using fill pressure from BOTH Brake hydraulic systems - the same is true if the spoiler lever is deployed manually at speeds above 70 knots.
  8. Scenario: Rejected Takeoff, UNDER 70 knots, Auto Brakes Armed.

    What Happens?
    • Below 70 knots, Auto Brakes Armed
    • The system reverts to Landing mode.
    • Minimum Auto Braking is applied using the Right Brake System.
  9. Auto Braking delays after main gear touchdown:

    MIN or MEDIUM:
    MAX BRAKES
    • MIN or MED setting: 3 seconds
    • MAX setting: 1 second
  10. What are the 5 ways to disarm Auto Brakes?
    • 1. Advancing either throttle
    • 2. Depressing the brake pedals.
    • 3. Turning the Anti-Skid OFF
    • 4. Auto Brake selector OFF
    • 5. Raise flaps above 26 degrees with airspeed above 70 knots.
  11. What does the Wheel Not Turning light indicate?
    One Main Gear wheel is turning 20% slower than the fastest Main Gear wheel.
  12. At what temperature will Brake Overheat light illuminate?

    When will it extinguish?
    • On: 305*C
    • Off: 260*C.
  13. What is the temperature range when the Brake Temperature test button is depressed?
    Test Range: 425 - 475*C
  14. Hot Brakes temperature range?

    Overheated Brakes?
    • HOT: 200-400o C.
    • OVERHEAT: over 400o C.
  15. Engine Pneumatic source from which stages?
    8th and 13th stage bleed air.
  16. What optimum starting pneumatic pressure (valve closed )?

    AA:

    TWA
    AA: 15 - 22 PSI.

    TWA: 36 PSI
  17. "Normal" idle engine indications:

    N2 RPM range:
    EGT range:
    Fuel flow range:
    • N2 RPM : 50-61%
    • EGT: 300-480°C
    • Fuel Flow: 800-1100 pph.
  18. What are the cabin vertical speed limits when THE AUTOMATIC PRESSURIZATION limit knob is set to the index mark?
    • +700 fpm
    • -300 fpm.
  19. Designed Cabin Altitude and differential pressure at FL370?
    • Cabin Altitude of 8000 feet and
    • 7.77 (+/- .3) differential pressure ratio.

    ~ 7,300 - 8700 ft
  20. Max limit pressure relief ?
    8.32 psi
  21. How is NEGATIVE pressure relief provided?
    Inward movement of galley service, pax entrance door seals AND...

    relief pressure valve in aft pressure bulkhead.
  22. When will AUTO PRESS system start to pressurize the cabin ?
    When the throttles are positioned for takeoff.
  23. Aircraft will automatically depressurize on the ground, ___ seconds after throttles are brought forward for take off.
    60 seconds after throttles are brought forward for take off.
  24. What is AUTO system NORMAL MAX differential pressure?
    8.07 psi
  25. The airplane is equipped with two Pratt and Whitney JT8D-219 engines. The engines have a normal static takeoff thrust rating of _______pounds and a maximum takeoff thrust rating of _______pounds.
    21,000 pounds.

    21,700 pounds.
  26. What are ART system arming requirements?
    Think "NO-GAS"

    • N1 ...Gauges working
    • O ...Operational ART system
    • G ...Ground shift
    • A ...ART switch in AUTO
    • S ...Slats
  27. What is required to trigger the ART system?
    Think "WAND"

    • W Windshear
    • A ART system failure
    • N N1 Differential of 30%
    • D DFGC is changed or interrupted
  28. ART is ARMED under what conditions:
    Throttles are advanced above 64% N1
  29. ART is DISARMED under two occassions:
    • SLATS retracted
    • Throttles are reduced to 58% N1, but will rearm when the throttles are advanced to 64% N1
  30. An ART INOP Light illuminates when:
    • ART system failure or
    • ART Switch is OFF position and the airplane is on the ground with slats extended.
  31. The ART system self-test is initiated when:

    When tests are complete, the ______ will light
    Think "SEA"

    • S Slats
    • E Engines running
    • A ART switch is in auto

    • READY light will light!
  32. ATR means:
    Automatic Thrust Restoration (ATR) System
  33. The ATR system is armed when:
    Think "TRAP" or set the "TRAP"

    • T TAK OFF mode
    • R Radio altitude above 350'
    • A AUTOTHROTTLE ON
    • P Power less than GO AROUND thrust
  34. Once armed, if the DFGC detects either:
    A vertical speed decrease to less than 0 for 5 seconds, OR

    A difference between the engines is greater than or equal to 0.25 EPR AND7% N1 (in the same direction).
  35. When armed, the ATR system is disarmed when:
    • Pitch mode is changed from TAK OFFselected
    • ie; ALT HLD, VERT SPD, IAS HLD, etc
  36. When activated. The ATR system will:
    • Unclamp the throttles (if the autothrottle system is engaged) and
    • Move both throttles equally until one of the engines reaches the Go-Around EPR.
  37. On Departure, the
    Rudder Unrestricted Light should be extinguished by:

    ____KIAS -82
    ____KIAS -83
    • 180 KIAS -82
    • 200 KIAS -83


    22-2.5 degrees at 300 knots
  38. On approach the RUDDER TRAVEL UNRESTRICTED LIGHT should be illuminated by:

    ____KIAS -82
    ____KIAS -83
    • 144 KIAS -82
    • 165 KIAS -83
  39. What is the DC BUS VOLTS range

    and Load Limit?
    22-30 volts

    with a load limit of 1.0
  40. What is the NORMAL Battery voltage range?
    25-33 volts
  41. What is the normal travel of the primary and secondary trim?
    Primary: 1/3 degree per second. Secondary: 1/10 degree per second.
  42. When does the aural trim warning sound?
    Aural warning 2 degrees in 30 seconds.
  43. What will cause the APU to shutdown inflight?
    • 1. APU Fire
    • 2. Overspeed. 108%
    • 3. Speed Sensing Failure.
    • 4. DC Power Interruption.
    • 5. Misc other Faults.
  44. What is the Minimum Airfoil Anti-ice Pressure?
    20 psi
  45. What temperature range is considered as
    HOT BRAKES?
    200o - 400 oc
  46. What are OVERHEATED brakes?
    Over 400 c
  47. Describe the Stall Sequence:
    • SPD LOW the FMA Pitch Window
    • • Slats go to full extend (if at mid-sealed position)
    • • Approaching stall the stick shaker will activate
    • • At stall speed, the klaxon and aural warning of "STALL" will sound and
    • STALL Lights will illuminate
    • • Stick pusher activates (if slats are fully extended, and both computers
    • detect the stall).
  48. RUDDER CONTROL MANUAL

    When does the rudder go manual?
    • 1. RUDDER LEVER selected to manual.
    • 2. Right Hydraulic system pressure is low (950 psi)

    • Note: 135 knots or min approach speed
    • 12 knot max crosswind.
  49. What are the fuel tank quantities?
    L /R Main Tanks _____lbs
    Center Tank _____
    Aux Tanks _____
    • L /R Main Tanks: 9266 lbs
    • Center Tank: 20596
    • Aux Tanks 3785
  50. What is the MAX POSITIVE pressure relief?
    8.32 psi
  51. Power Back EPR LIMIT.
    1.30 EPR
  52. MAX / MIN OAT for operational purposes.
    +50 / -54 c
  53. NORMAL MAX limits for Takeoff:
    N1 and N2 EPR.
    Orange Radial Lines.
  54. Maximum and Minimum Limits.
    Red Radials.
  55. Use of Reverse Thrust In flight is ____.
    PROHIBITED
  56. Minimum oil on a through flight?

    Overnight?
    • Through flight - 10 quarts.
    • Overnight- 14 quarts.
  57. Minimum oil quantity for dispatch.
    4 quarts plus 2 quarts per hour

    up to a maximum of 12 quarts (4 hours).
  58. APU Air must be ____ for flight.
    OFF
  59. Start Temp Limits:

    on the Ground _____o C
    In Flight? _____o C

    How Long?
    on the ground

    625o C in flight

    Momentary.
  60. MTOW

    - 82
    - 83
    • 149,500#
    • 160,000#
  61. Max Ramp Weight Wt:

    -82
    -83
    • -82: 150,500#
    • -83: 161,000#
  62. Engine Driven Generator Load Limits?
    • 1.0 continuous.
    • 1.5 up to 5 minutes.
    • > 1.5 5 seconds.
  63. APU Starter duty -
    THREE consecutive starts w/ FIVE minutes in between, then 1 hour rest.
  64. TWA EFIS Pannels-

    Max Limits N1, N2, EGT :
    Normal TO N1, N2, EGT :
    Precautionary EGT:
    RED Radials Flashing Numbers

    Orange Radial or ARC

    Amber Arc
  65. APU Overspeed _____%
    108%
  66. What is on the
    LEFT HYDRAULIC SYSTEM.
    • Think "LIE"
    • Left thrust reverser.
    • Inboard Flight Spoilers.
    • Elevator Augmentation.
  67. Nosewheel steering is reduced _______ the failed Hydraulic System?
    Opposite
  68. What is on the RIGHT HYDRAULIC SYSTEM?
    • Aft Stairs
    • Rudder
    • Right thrust reverser
    • Gear
    • Outboard flight spoilers
  69. Do not arm the ground spoilers prior to _____________.
    Gear Extension.
  70. Flap Selection which is prohibited?
    13 to 15 degrees (14)
  71. Vmo and Mmo?
    .84 /340
  72. Max Tail Wind?
    10 knots.
  73. Max crosswind, dry runway?
    30 knots
  74. How much pressure from the transfer pump can you expect in a system with a failed main pump?
    Apx. 2000 psi to the unpowered side.
  75. Maximum Landing Weight is ________
    130,000#
  76. Max Altitude / service ceiling is_____
    FL 370
  77. Max continuous (AFM) Climb EGT:

    Max Cruise EGT:
    580o C (below amber arc)

    540o C
  78. Takeoff (AFM)
    Reserve thrust / time limits

    Max thrust / time limits
    • 625o C for five minutes
    • 630o C for two minutes (red radial line)

    • 590o C for five minutes
    • 595o C for two minutes (orange radial line)
  79. Where do the Hydraulic Pressure gauges measure pressure?
    At their respective pumps.
  80. Takeoff Reserve Thrust Limit?

    ETG and Time?
    • 630c and 2 min Red Radial
    • 625 / up to 5 min.
  81. Max Fuel Imbalance?

    L/R Main tanks?

    FWD / AFT AUX?
    • 1500 L/R
    • 400 Aux Tanks.
  82. Max Tire Speed?
    195 kts
  83. When MUST autobrakes be used?
    • Runway < 7000'
    • RVR < 4000 3/4
    • Breaking Action < GOOD
    • Contamination
  84. the Hydraulic LOW PRESSURE lights are sensing from what location?
    The end of the L/R spoiler lines.
  85. When MUST Flaps 40 be used?

    When is it also reccomended?
    Anti-Skid inoperative (must)

    • Tailwind
    • Wet/slippery
    • RW < 7000ft
    • BA< Good
  86. What are the considerations for weather below 4000 RVR 3/4 miles?
    • FO landings can  now be made to CAT I mins
    • WET
    • 15 Kt Crosswind.
    • Autobrakes Mandatory.
    • Takeoff Alt?
    • Landing Data Braking Chart.
  87. What is the Main Engine Starter Duty Cycle?
    • 30+30+30 = 90 seconds on then 5 min off.
    • Subsequent starts 30 sec on / 5 min off.
  88. the Hydraulic HIGH TEMP lights are sensing from what location?
    The resevoir.
  89. APU Limits?

    Momentary?
    • 100%
    • 106% Momentary.
  90. Main Engine Start Temp writeup? (changed 5/29/12)
    465o to 500o.   Maintenance writeup req'd 

    Over 500o  Hot Start.
  91. Brake Overheat Light on? off?
    • ON 305o C.
    • OFF at 260o C.
  92. What are the normal hydraulic pressures? High? Low?
    • 2800-3100 psi
    • 1400 psi
  93. What does the WHEEL NOT TURNING light indicate?
    1 wheel turning 20% slower than the others.
  94. When does the voice recorder "record"?
    anytime there is electric power.
  95. When does the APU LOW OIL PRESSURE Light go out?
    It must be out at 95%.
  96. Max Temp to set parking brake:
    300o C
  97. Turbulence penetration speed?
    • .75 to .79
    • 275 to 285kts.
  98. When is the Flight Recorder recording?
    At least 1 engine running and brakes released.
  99. TWA EFIS-
    High Oil Temp
    High Oil Pressure
    Min Low Oil Pressure
    Precautionary Ranges?
    • High Oil Temp...Red light
    • High Oil Pressure..Flashing.
    • Min Low Oil Pressure..Red Light
    • Precautionary Ranges..Amber Lights.
  100. Mach Trim Inop Speed Limit?
    .78 mach
  101. Inner ply of cracked windshield glass speed limits?
    • This is the most restrictive crack.
    • 235 below 10,000.
    • No restriction above 10,000.
    • Windshield Heat selected OFF!
  102. When you set the Standby Altimeter, what are you setting with the "setting"?
    • The Standby Altimeter.
    • The CADC for Altitude Capture/Levelout and Altitude Alert.
  103. At touchdown the autospoilers deploy. Describe the sequence.
    • Main wheel spin up causes Flight Spoilers up to 60 degrees.
    • Strut compression drive the inboard Ground Spoilers up 60 degrees.
  104. Landing Gear Extension Speed Limit?

    Retraction speed Limit?
    • 300 to extend.
    • 250 to retract.
  105. 219 thrust rating:

    MAX

    RESERVE
    • 21,000 MAX
    • 21,700 RSV Thrust.
  106. Which Fuel Pump is powered when only the Ground service bus is powering the aircraft?
    The Right Aft Pump.
  107. No more than ____# of fuel may be used from the Center Tank before transferring _____ the fuel from the Aux Tanks.
    8500# / ALL
  108. During takeoff you select reverse thrust to ABORT...what else then happens in a Non-TWA aircraft?
    • Reverse.
    • Spoilers up 60o.
    • MIN autobrakes below 70 KIAS
    • MAX above 70 knots MAX.
  109. If a Fuel Tank quantity reads 9999 , what is indicated?
    A Tank Fault is indicated.
  110. What will automatically shutdown the APU on the ground?
    Any APU FAULT light.
  111. If a Fuel TAnk quantity reads
    [BLANK] , what is indicated?
    A channel fault is indicated.
  112. How many lights do you get on a Fire test?
    14
  113. When is Fuel Heat Required?
    • Before takeoff or landing if .....Fuel Temp 0c or below. (at least 1 min prior)
    • Note: Fuel Filter Pressure Drop is a QRH Procedure which will also direct application of Fuel Heat.
  114. What shuts down the APU ? (five items)
    • Overspeed 108%
    • Loss of Speed Sensing.
    • Fire
    • DC Power Loss / Interruption.
    • Other Misc Faults.
  115. The main engine LOW OIL PRESSURE LIGHT and the OIL PRESSURE GUAGE come from __________ sources.
    Different.
  116. With only battery power available, what boost pump will be powered?
    The 28V DC START PUMP in the right main tank.
  117. When do you hear the APU FIRE aural warning?
    • Only when the APU is really on FIRE!
    • (not during the test)
  118. What happens when you pull an Engine Fire Handle?
    • Electric:  Trips generator control
    • Hydraulics:  isolated
    • Pneumatics: mechanically closed
    • Fuel shutoff at the Spar/Wing.
    • Silences the Bell
    • Arms the Bottle.
  119. When the Cabin Altitude goes above 10,000ft what happens?

    14,000 feet?
    • 10,000
    • 1. Warning Light
    • 2. Aural Warning.
    • 3. Seat Belt Sign ON

    • 14,000
    • 1. Masks Deploy (15 min of O2)
  120. When do the Emergency Lights come on? How are they extinguished?
    • 1. Select them on OR,
    • 2. Lose DC Emergency Bus Power.

    You need Emer DC BUS power AND DC Transfer Bus power to extinguish.
  121. When you press the CARGO FIRE extinguisher, what happens?
    • The first bottle is discharged.
    • The second is armed to discharge 15 min later at a slower rate.
  122. What are the sources of power for the DC transfer Bus?
    • Left DC Bus,
    • Right DC bus
    • Battery, during initial powerup
    • Ground Service bus via TR 2
  123. What Busses will you have with the Emergency Power selected ON?
    • Emergency AC
    • Emergency DC
    • Battery
    • Battery Direct
    • DC Transfer bus
    • (The Battery Charger is disconnected)
  124. What instruments do you have with ONLY the battery?
    • N1
    • N2
    • EGT
    • Standby Horizon/AS/ Altimeter.
    • Mag compass
  125. What is the OVRD IGN limit?
    2 min on, 3 min off; 2 min on , then 23 minutes OFF.
  126. What is "ALPHA SPEED"?
    Min Maneuvering speed for the existing configuration.
  127. When does the STANDBY LIGHTING come on?
    When the Emergency Power is selected "ON".
  128. "SPEED LOW" is flashing, why?
    Your speed is 10% below ALPHA SPEED.
  129. Where are the first Excessive Pitch Cheverons?
    • +25 degrees nose up.(
    • -7) degrees nose down.
  130. Describe the engine runup during ground operation in icing conditions.
    • 70% N1, for 15 seconds, every 10 minutes.
    • Make a stable runup before takeoff.
  131. How many joules is the ignition?
    • 20 joule in Override and Start.
    • 4 Joul normal and continuous.
  132. When does the PLI (Pitch Limit Indicator) come into view?
    • Displayed whenever Windshear Computer (WSC) is operational.
    • The IAS is 60 knots or greater and the airplane is at or below 1500 feet radio altitude.
    • If the slats are extended, the PLI will be displayed at any altitude.
  133. What does the Radio Rack Fan Light indicate?
    On the Ground:
    Inflight:
    • On the ground: Primary fan has failed
    • inflight: Primary and Secondary fans have failed
  134. When "should" the engine Anti-Ice be on and when "MUST" the airfoil Anti-Ice be on?
    At or below 6c with visible moisture.
  135. A pack will "trip" for what 3 reasons?
    • Low flow over the heat exchanger.
    • Low flow through the pack (psi)
    • Over temp conditions (compressor discharge, turbine inlet, or outlet duct temperature is excessive.)
  136. What does the elevator Augmentation system do?
    • A 3000 psi hydraulic power augmentor system provides elevator control for
    • additional nosedown capability in extreme, high angle-of-attack flight
    • conditions. Supplied by the left hydraulic system, the power augmentor
    • system activates during an extreme stall condition after elevator control tabs
    • have been displaced approximately 10° airplane nosedown with respect to
    • the elevator surface. A blue ELEVATOR PWR Light on the annunciator
    • panel is provided to indicate when hydraulic pressure is used to drive the
    • elevator.
  137. What are the APU Load Limits and Altitudes?
    • 1.25 On the Ground.
    • 1.0 Inflight
    • .70 FL250 to FL300
    • .625 above FL300
  138. What parts of the airfoils are anti-iced?
    • The leading edge slats, fwd strakes, ram air scoop.
    • When selected TAIL, the Horizontal Stabilizer.
  139. What are the engine driven generator limits?
    • 115 +/- 8 volts
    • 400 +/- 20 cycles.
  140. How can you check to see if the EMERGENCY DC Bus is powered in addition to BUS OFF lights?
    The Capt's Pitot Heat Meter will indicate zero.
  141. In addition to an instrument failure, a FLAG in the STANDBY HORIZON may indicate what failure?
    The DC Transfer Bus May be unpowered.
  142. Procedures for tail deice:
    Every ____minutes inflight;
    Prior to________________

    and after________________
    • Every 20 min (15 auto mode)
    • 1 min prior to extending landing flaps.
    • After exiting icing condition prior to shutting off the system.
  143. What pitch will cause a tail-strike on takeoff?
    10.5 degrees.
  144. APU Starter Motor Duty Cycle
    Three attempts, with 5 minute intervals. After the third attempt, 60 minutes off.
  145. Wing landing lights should be allowed to cool for _____min. after initial Extension / Retraction and ______ minutes after each subsequent Extension/ Retraction.
    • Initial: 1 1/2 Minutes
    • Subsequent: 3 1/2 minutes
  146. Max speed following Emergency Landing Gear Extension:
    300kts / .70M
  147. Minimum Takeoff and Landing Pressure Altitude..............................
    -1000 ft
  148. Maximum Zero Fuel Weight?
     122,000 #
  149. Maximum Landing Weights
    MD-82 and MD-83: 130,000 #
  150. Takeoff and Landing Temperature Limits: Minimum and Maximum
    • Minimum : -54o C
    • Maximum: +50o C
  151. Slat Extended Speed:
    Mid Pos:
    Full Ext:
    • Mid: 280 /.57M
    • Full: 240/ .57M
  152. Maximum Takeoff and Landing Pressure Altitude...
    8500 ft.
  153. Landing Gear Operating (VLO / MLO) (AFM)
    Extension :
    Retraction:
    Landing Gear Extended (VLE):
    NOTE Maximum speed following use of Emergency Gear Extension System is:
    • VLO /MLO Extension: 300 KIAS / .70 Mach
    • " " Retraction: 250 KIAS / .70 Mach
    • Landing Gear Extended (VLE): 300 KIAS / .70 Mach
  154. Flight Maneuvering Load Acceleration Limits
    Flaps retracted: +____g to -___g
    Flaps Extended: +____g to -___g
    • Flaps Up: +2.5g to -1g
    • Flaps Down: +2.0 to 0g
  155. Max Altitude for unpressurized flight following an in-flight depressurization is ______ft. May be exceeded when terrain requirements dictate.
    14,000 feet.
  156. Turbulence Penetration Speed:
    • 275 to 285 Knots or
    • M.75 to M.79 (whichever is lower).
    • 10,000 feet and below: The greater of Minimum Maneuvering Speed or 250 knots.
  157. AIRSPEED LIMITATIONS: General. Airspeed limitations are given in both airspeed and Mach Number.
    The limiting value is (higher/lower) of the two.
    Altitude determines which value will be lower.
    LOWER
  158. Maximum Operating Speed (AFM)
    VMO:
    MMO:
    • VMO: 340 KIAS
    • MMO: .84 Mach
  159. Landing Light lamps shall not be operated in still ambient air for periods of _____due to excessive heat build up.
    More than 10 minutes
  160. MAXIMUM WIND LIMITS - TAKEOFF AND LANDING
    Tailwind:
    Crosswind (max demonstrated)
    • Tailwind: 10 kts
    • Crosswind: 30 kts
  161. Airport Operation Limits: RUNWAY SLOPE T/O and LDG
    • Takeoff: +1.7% to -2.0%
    • Landing: +2.0% to -2.0%
  162. Where is the PRESS gage on the Air Conditioning panel of some aircraft monitoring pressure from?
    Between pressure regulator valve and the flow control valve.
  163. What is being monitored on the Flow gages of some Air conditioning panels?
    Flow is measured between the Water Separator and the mixing chamber.
  164. APU fuel normally fed from ____ tank or the ____ tank at captains discretion.
    Normally fed from right tank or Center tank at captain's discretion.
  165. Feeding APU from Center tank requires cockpit monitoring when tank quantity is less then ______?
    1400 lb.
  166. APU Air switch has a _____ delay, starting when the APU reaches operating speed of ____?
    One minute delay starting when APU reaches 95%.
  167. What is the APU start cycle limitation?
    • Once RPM is observed:
    • 3 consecutive starts may be made with a 5 minute cooling period between starts. Then followed by 1 hour cooling period prior to subsequent start attempts.
  168. APU Air switch must be ____ for all ______ operations.
    Off for all flight operations.
  169. Length and Wing Span?
    Length: 147 ft , 10" Width: 107' 10"
  170. Minimum turning radius for a 180-degree turn?
    94 feet
  171. Powerplants?
    P&W JT8D-217 and -219 engines.
  172. Summarize cargo heating:
    Forward cargo heated only. Not the aft.
  173. Nominal nose wheel tire pressure?
    160-170 psi
  174. Nominal main gear tire pressure?
    190-200 psi.
  175. Brake Wear limits on MD-82?
    Must be replaced when indicator pin is flush or below housing
  176. Brake Wear limits on MD-83?
    When pin is 1/2" above flush, must replace brake assembly.
  177. In right gear wheel well, Spoiler Depressurization Valve handle must be in ____ position and _____. The handle will be _______ to the incoming tubing when in the correct position.
    • ON position and SAFETIED.
    • PERPENDICULAR to the incoming tube when in the correct position.
  178. Pulling the Fire Handle causes what 5 actions?
    • Trips Generator Control Relay. 
    • Shuts off fuel at the tank 
    • Shuts of hydraulic fluid supply to the engine-driven pump. 
    • If open, closes pneumatic crossfeed valve and moves crossfeed lever to CLOSED. 
    • Positions the Fire Handle to discharge the fire agent bottles.
    • Note: Fire Handle remains illuminated as long as the overheat condition exists.
  179. Where is the Lavatory Smoke Detector Panel located?
    Either under the sink or behind the toilet paper dispenser.
  180. EGPWS Caution Alert is activated how long before conflict ?
    40 - 60 seconds prior
  181. EGPWS WARNING: "Terrain, Terrain, PULL UP, PULL UP!" Time prior?
    20-30 seconds prior to conflict.
  182. If an engine stall (surge) is detected during take off,________________
    More than 10 minutes
  183. Minimum altitude for use of Autopilot - during Approach - Auto Land ?
    None
  184. Minimum altitude for use of Autopilot: IFR Coupled, IFR conditions ?
    70 ft AFL
  185. Minimum altitude for use of Autopilot - ILS coupled - no Autoland, VFR conditions?
    50 Ft AFL
  186. Minimum altitude for use of Autopilot during Non-Precision approaches?
    50 ft. Below MDA.
  187. Do not conduct Automatic Landing if these six conditions occur, or exist...
    • Align (ALN) mode is not displayed by 100' RA.
    • Either engine becomes inoperative at an altitude greater than 50' above the runway.
    • Automatic Ground Spoilers are not armed and operational.
    • Any unusual control position or other abnormal conditions exist in the manual flight control system.
    • Rudder Control Manual light is illuminated.
    • Landing Overweight.
  188. Wind limitations for Autoland?
    • Headwind: 25 knots
    • Tailwind: 10 knots
    • Crosswind: 15 knots ( unless reduced further by FM Part 1).
  189. Ground Starting EGT limit:
    475o C momentary ( higher EGT requires immediate shutdown.)
  190. Starting EGT limit INFLIGHT:
    625o C momentarily
  191. EGT/Time limit- Take Off - Reserve Thrust
    • Reserve Thrust:
    • 625o C 5 Minutes
    • 630o C 2 minutes ( Red Radial Line)
  192. EGT Limit - Take Off, Max Thrust - Orange Radial?
    • 590o C maximum 5 minutes
    • 595o C maximum 2 minutes.
  193. EGT Limit - Max Continuous / Climb?
    Max Continuous / Climb: Below Amber Arc -580o C/ Continuous .
  194. EGT Limit - Max Cruise
    540oC continuous
  195. Oil Quantity minimums per engine?
    • Scheduled 4 hours or greater: 12 quarts
    • Scheduled less than 4 hours: Four quarts + 2 quarts/ hour.
  196. Reverse Thrust operation in flight is ____________
    prohibited
  197. Reverse Thrust EPR limit during power back :
    Do not exceed 1.3 EPR.
  198. Pulling the Fire Handle causes what 5 actions?
    • Trips Generator Control Relay.
    • Shuts off fuel at the wing spar.
    • Shuts of hydraulic fluid supply to the engine-driven pump.
    • If open, closes pneumatic crossfeed valve and moves crossfeed lever to CLOSED.
    • Positions the Fire Handle to discharge the fire agent bottles.
    • Note: Fire Handle remains illuminated as long as the overheat condition exists.
  199. [MD-80 Flight Controls]
  200. Do nor use flap settings between ___o and___o
    between 13o and 15o
  201. Do not arm spoiler prior to ______ ______.
    Gear Extension
  202. Use Speed Brakes only in _____ or _______ configuration.
    • UP/RET or
    • 0/EXT configuration.
  203. Do not take off if any Brake Temperature exceeds ____oC
    205o C
  204. What is the Maximum tire rotation speed?
    195 knots
  205. Red Landing Gear Position lights illuminate when:
    • The Gear is up and locked and one or both throttles are at idle.
    • The gear is in TRANSIT
    • The Gear is not down and locked and the handle is DOWN.
  206. The gear warning horn is inhibited until descending to 1000 feet on the Captain's Radio Altimeter. However, if the Captain's Radio Altimeter is inoperative, gear warning horn and aural warning will sound when:
    • Either throttle is fully retarded AND...
    • Airspeed is less than 210 knots AND ...
    • Landing Gear is not down and locked.
  207. Nose Wheel Steering Maximum turn capability:
    Towing:
    Steering Wheel:
    Rudder Steering:
    • Towing: 90o
    • Steering Wheel: 82O
    • Rudder Steering: 17O
  208. Maximum Brake temperature during taxi?
    205o C.
  209. With the battery switch off, as in the "cold dead airplane" scenario, which bus is powered?
    The BATTERY DIRECT BUS.  It is tied to the battery.
  210. What does the BATTERYDIRECT BUS provide in regards to the APU?
    It provides APU Starter
  211. Turning on the battery activates which buses?
    • Battery Bus
    • Battery Direct Bus.  Technically, it was already on before hitting the switch...
    • DC Transfer Bus.
  212. Name some items associated with the DC Transfer Bus:
    • DC Start Pump
    • Engine ignition
    • Fire Warning
    • Fire Detection
    • Fire Protection
    • Master Warning/Master Caution
  213. The battery charger is operative under the following two conditions:
    • Ground Service Bus is powered
    • Battery switch is in the ON position
  214. During normal inflight operations, DC Power is normally provided how?
    Four Transformer rectifiers;  two attached to the LEFT AC BUS, one on the GROUND SERVICE BUS and one linked to the RIGHT AC BUS
  215. The BATTERY BUS provides:
    APU control.

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