LAM-Ch11 Dog

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vet1999
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LAM-Ch11 Dog
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2011-04-01 10:49:05
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ACLAM Dog Blue Book Chapter
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Questions on Chapter 11 Blue Book Dog
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  1. Que. Order, suborder, family, genus and species of domesticated dog?
    • Ans. Order Carnivora, suborder Caniformia, family Canidae; Canis familiaris.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 395.
  2. Que. The domesticated dog is descended from what ancestor?
    • Ans. Eurasian subspecies of gray wolf (C. lupus), possibly the Indian wolf (C. lupus pallipes) or the Chinese wolf (C. lupus chanco).
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 395.
  3. Que. Genus/species of jackal, red wolf and gray wolf? Can dogs and wolves produce viable offsrping?
    • Ans. Canis latrans; C. rufus, C. lupus; yes.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 395.
  4. Que. The most common breed of dog used in biomedical research is the:
    • Ans. Beagle
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed, Ch 11, p396
  5. Que. Beagles are used most often in what types of research?
    • Ans. Pharmacology and toxicology
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed, Ch 11, p396
  6. Que. What dog breed is used as a model of Duchenne muscular dystrophy in human children?
    • Ans. Golden Retrievers affected with muscular dystrophy
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed, Ch 11, p396
  7. Que. What breed of dog has been used to study copper storage diseases (such as Wilson�s disease)?
    • Ans. Bedlington terriers
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed, Ch 11, p396
  8. Que. Dogs used for research are generally segregated into what two categories?
    • Ans. Random-source and purpose-bred
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed, Ch 11, p396
  9. Que: What vaccines do purpose-bed dogs usually receive?
    • Ans: 1) canine distemper virus; 2) parvovirus; 3) adenovirus type 2; 4) parainfluenza virus; 5) Leptospira serovars canicola and icterohemorrhagiae; 6) Bordetella bronchiseptica 7) Rabies.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  10. Que: What are purpose-bred dogs typically treated for prophylactically?
    • Ans: 1) helminths; 2) ectoparasites; 3) intestinal coccidia; 4) bacterial ear infections
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  11. Que: Which dogs are not bred specifically for use in research?
    • Ans: Random-source dogs
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  12. Que: What are conditioned dogs?
    • Ans: Random-source dogs that have been treated and vaccinated in preparation for use in research
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  13. Que: Can conditioned dogs be used on long-term studies?
    • Ans: Yes
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  14. Que: Why are conditioned dogs often tested for heartworm antigen?
    • Ans: Because of the implications that heartworm manifestations can have on cardiovascular status and surgical risk.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  15. Que: How useful are nonconditioned random-source dogs in research studies?
    • Ans: They are useful only in a limited number of research studies.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  16. Que: What options are there for procurement of dogs for biomedical research?
    • Ans: 1) USDA designated Class A or Class B dealer; 2) municipal pound
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  17. Que: Dealers that purchase the dogs from other individuals (including unadopted animals from municipal pounds) and then resell them to research facilities are known as: Class A licensees or Class B licensees
    • Ans: b, Class B licensees
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  18. Que: Breeders who raise all animals on their premises from a closed colony (suppliers of purpose-bred dogs) are known as: Class A licensees or Class B licensees
    • Ans: a, Class A licensees
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  19. Que: What kinds of additional documentation are required by Class B dealers?
    • Ans: holding records and recordkeeping documentation
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  20. Que: Why do additional regulations apply to Class B dealers?
    • Ans: Because of public concern that stolen pets could enter biomedical research facilities.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  21. Que: What are the regulations regarding dale of pound dogs to research facilities or Class B dealers?
    • Ans: They vary from state to state
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  22. Que: What is the best source for identification of possible vendors for purpose bred and random-source dogs?
    • Ans: The �Buyer�s Guide� issue of Lab Animal
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  23. Que: What features does the �Buyers Guide� denote for purose bred and random-source dogs?
    • Ans: 1) pathogen-free status, 2) documentation of health status; 3) documentation of health status; 4) availability of specific breeds; 5) timed pregnant females.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  24. Que: What part of the 9 CFR specifically pertain to the care of dogs used in reresearch?
    • Ans: Chapter 1, Subchapter A, Subpart A, Specification for the Humane Handling, Care Treatment and Transportation of Dogs
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  25. Que: Which Section of Chapter 1, of the 9 CFR describes primary enclosures and additional requirements for dogs?
    • Ans: Section 3.6c
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  26. Que: How does the housing requirement for dogs differ from other species?
    • Ans: The dogs space requirement is calculated by the length of the dog rather than the body weight..
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  27. Que: What section describes what dealers, exhibitors, and facilities must follow in order to provide sufficient exercise for dogs?
    • Ans: Section 3.8
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  28. Que: What publication has ILAR written for dogs?
    • Ans: �Dogs, Laboratory Animal Management�
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  29. Que: What does the publication describe?
    • Ans: �features of housing, management, and care that are related to the expanded use of dogs as models for human diseases� and �an interpretive summary of the Animal Welfare Regulations and the requirements of the PHS policy on Humane Care and Use of Laboratory Animals�
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p397
  30. Que. Most commercially available balanced dog diets are �closed-formula� diets in which the labeled specific _________ requirements for protein and fat and the ________ values for ash and fiber are met. These diets do not necessarily provide the ________ composition of ingredients from batch to batch. Ingredient composition varies depending upon the _________ of various ingredients.
    • Ans. Minimum; maximum; identical; cost
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p398
  31. Que. An � open-formula� or �fixed formula� diet provides more precise dietary control. In these diets the ingredients are _________ and the percentage of each ingredient is kept __________ from batch to batch.
    • Ans. Specified; constant
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p398
  32. Que. __________ diets provide for the strictest control of ingredients and are formulated from the purified components: amino acids, lipids, carbohydrates, vitamins, and minerals.
    • Ans. Semipurified
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p398
  33. Que. Diets are generally safe for consumption up to ________ months following the manufacture date when stored at room temperature.
    • Ans. 6
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p398
  34. Que. Recommendations for feeding the appropriate amount of diet are determined by the dog�s ______________.
    • Ans. Metabolic requirements
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 398
  35. Que. ___________ or the ________________ refers to the amount of energy expended following sleep, 12-18 hours after food consumption and during thermoneutral conditions.
    • Ans. Basal metabolic rate; basal energy requirement (BER)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 398
  36. Que. The _____________is the amount of energy used by a moderately active adult animal in a thermoneutral environment, which in the dog is approximately ____ times the BER
    • Ans. Maintenance energy requirement; 2
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 398
  37. Que. For dogs weighing greater than 2 kg, the MER may be calculated using the following equation: ___________
    • Ans. MER (metabolizable kcal/day) = 2(30 weight kg + 70)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 398
  38. Que. Fat provides three major dietary functions 1. Adsorption of ____________2. Enhancement of __________ and provision of _______________. Dietary fat is an excellent, highly digestible energy source, providing ______ times more energy on a per weight basis than either soluble carbohydrates or proteins. However, fats are not needed for this purpose when adequate carbohydrate and protein are present.
    • Ans. Fat-soluble vitamins (A,D,E and K); palatability; essential (unsaturated) fatty acids; 2.25
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 398
  39. Que. Consumption of fat in excess of an animal�s ability to metabolize it results in ___________ and has been related to the development of ___________, whereas lack of dietary fat may lead to fatty acid/energy deficiency. Fatty acid deficiency is associated with _______, _________, __________, and __________.
    • Ans. Steatorrhea; acute pancreatitis; poor growth; poor physical performance; reduced reproductive performance; weight loss
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 398
  40. Que. Dogs are considered ________ because they do not have as many absolute nutritional requirements as the cat. However, they do possess a unique requirement for certain ___________, a deficiency of which may predispose them to decreased growth rates and dermatologic abnormalities such as �hot spots�.
    • Ans. Easy keepers; polyunsaturated fatty acids
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 398
  41. Que. Dogs require ___________ an essential fatty acid and it has been recently demonstrated that the _______, an essential fatty acid may play a role in maintaining healthy skin. Supplementation with a balanced essential fatty acid product may alleviate allergy-related __________. Essential fatty acid deficiency may occur in dogs receiving _____dry dog food that has been stored too long, particularly under warm, humid conditions.
    • Ans. Linoleic (?-6) acid; ?�3 fatty acid; dermatoses; low-fat
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 398
  42. Que. There are 22 ?� amino acids, _______ of which cannot be synthesized in sufficient quantity to meet a dog�s normal metabolic demands. These essential amino acids are required by all dogs and must be required in their diets.
    • Ans. 10
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 398
  43. Que. Chronic excessive protein intake may be detrimental to the __________ by contributing to accelerated __________ and __________. Conversely, inadequate protein intake results in __________ and ___________.
    • Ans. Kidney, renal aging; glomerulosclerosis; retardation of growth; reduction in production
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 398
  44. Que. In dogs, calorie needs must be met before ____ needs.
    • Ans. Protein
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., p399
  45. Que. A good quality _____ ____ for dogs will ensure nutritional stability and promote longevity.
    • Ans. Commercial Diet
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., p399
  46. Que. The fat-soluble vitamins include ___, ___, ___, and ___?
    • Ans. A, D, E, K
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p 400
  47. Que. The ovaries of the bitch are attached to the dorsolateral walls of the abdominal cavity caudal to the kidneys by the _____ ______ and are not palpable abdominally.
    • Ans. Broad ligaments
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11 p. 401
  48. Que. When the bitch is in _______ and _________, the cervix can be distinguished during abdominal palpation as an enlarged, turgid, walnut-shape structure.
    • Ans. proestrus and estrus
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p.402
  49. Que. The bitch has a _________ cycle, with clinical estrus occurring predominantly in _______ or _________ and again in ______or ______.
    • Ans. January or February and again in July or August (although it can occur at any time of year).
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p.402
  50. Que. Components of the canine spermatic cord include the _________.
    • Ans. ductus deferens, the testicular artery and vein, the lymphatics and nerves, and the cremaster muscle.
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p.402
  51. Que. The ______ and ______ aid in thermoregulation of the testicles, which are maintained at ______ than basal body temperature.
    • Ans. cremaster muscle and pampiniform plexus, 2 deg -7 degs
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p.402
  52. Que. The accessory sex glands of the dog consist of ___________.
    • Ans. only a well-encapsulated prostate gland that surrounds the pelvic urethra and ampullary glands at the termination of the vas deferens in the urethra.
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p.402
  53. Que. The entire process from initiation of spermatogonial mitosis to delivery of mature sperm to the ejaculate is ___________.
    • Ans. 60 days
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p.402
  54. Que. Factors affecting male fertility include ______, ______, _____ and _____.
    • Ans. libido, ability to copulate, testicular size, and quality and number of sperm produced.
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p.402
  55. Que. There is a positive correlation with the size of the testicles as measured by scrotal circumference and the _________.
    • Ans. number of sperm produced.
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p.402
  56. Que. The normal dogs arterial pH _____, arterial PCO2 (mm Hg) _______ Arterial P O2 (mm Hg) _________, and arterial HCO3 (mEq/liter) _______.
    • Ans. 7.30-7.43, 30-49, 91-97, 18-22
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p.402
  57. Que. What is a good indicator of normal fertility for male dogs?
    • Ans. 5 ml ejaculate contains approximately 500 million progressively motile sperm without significant morphological abnormalities (ie kinked tail).
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p403
  58. Que. In general, for dogs, erection, which involves muscular contractions and increased arterial blood flow to the penis is controlled by the ------- nervous system,, whereas ejaculation is under ------- control.
    • Ans. parasympathetic nervous system, ejaculation is under sympathetic control
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p403
  59. Que. Where does fertilization occur in female dogs?
    • Ans. oviduct
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p403
  60. Que. How long are canine oocytes viable, once ovulated?
    • Ans. 12-24 hours
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p403
  61. Que. Based on vaginal cytology, early proestrus has what type of cells?
    • Ans. intermediate and superficial cells, red blood cells, and neutrophils
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p403
  62. Que. Based on vaginal cytology, late proestrus has what types of cells?
    • Ans. superficial cells, anuclear squames, and red blood cells
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p403
  63. Que. Based on vaginal cytology, estrus has what types of cells?
    • Ans. more than 50% intermediate cells, superficial ells, with or without red blood cells.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p403
  64. Que. Based on vaginal cytology, diestrus has what types of cells?
    • Ans. more than 50% intermediate cells, superficial cells and squames early, but becoming completely noncornified with neutrophils present as diestrus proceeds.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p403
  65. Que. Based on vaginal cytology, anestrus has what types of cells?
    • Ans. small numbers of parabasal cells and intermediate cells, with or without neutrophils
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p403
  66. Que. What is the behavioral hallmark of canine estrus?
    • Ans. standing receptivity toward the male
    • Ref. LAM, 2ed ed., Ch. 11, p403
  67. Que. What is canine flagging?
    • Ans. elevation of her tail with muscular elevation of the vulva to facilitate penetration by the male
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p403
  68. Que. In dogs, in order to maximize the conception rate, and the number of pups whelped per egg ovulated, it is recommended to breed the bitch on what days?
    • Ans. days 1, 3, and 5 of standing heat.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p403
  69. Que. In dogs, is there a correlation between the number of corpora lutea and the number of fetuses in the corresponding uterine horn?
    • Ans. No, suggesting transuterine migration of embryos
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p403
  70. Que. What are the various classification of the dog placenta?
    • Ans. endotheliochorial placentation, zonary and deciduate placentation
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p403
  71. Que. Why is the dog classified as endotheliochorial placentation/
    • Ans. endothelium of uterine vessels lies adjacent to the fetal chorion, mesenchymal, and endothelial tissues, so that maternal and fetal blood are separated by four layers.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p403
  72. Que. Why is the dog classified as zonary and deciduate placentation?
    • Ans. placenta villi are arranged in a belt and that maternal deciduate cells are shed with fetal placentas at parturition.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p403
  73. Que. What is the gestation length of dogs?
    • Ans. 59-63 days
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p403
  74. Que. What is the role of progesterone during gestation?
    • Ans. Progesterone is essential for endometrial gland growth, secretion of uterine milk, attachment of the placentas, and inhibition of uterine motility. Luteal progesterone is responsible for maintaining pregnancy, and canine corpora lutea retain their structural development throughout gestation.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p403
  75. Que. What is the serum progesterone level during gestation?
    • Ans. 30-60 ng/ml
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p403
  76. Que. When can abdominal palpation of the uterus detect pregnancy in dogs?
    • Ans. 28 days
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p403
  77. QUE. Canine fetal skeletons become calcified and are radiographically evident by day _____.
    • ANS. 42
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 11, p404
  78. QUE. T/F Posterior presentation of the fetus is common in the dog but does not predispose to dystocia.
    • ANS. true
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 11, p404
  79. QUE. What is the major event during stage 2 of canine labor?
    • ANS. fetal expulsion
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 11, p404
  80. QUE. Puppies open their eyes at approximately _____ days.
    • ANS. 12
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 11, p404
  81. QUE. Canine ears become patent at approximately _______ days.
    • ANS. 12-20
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 11, p404
  82. QUE. What does the third fraction of canine semen consist of primarily?
    • ANS. prostatic fluid
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 11, p404
  83. QUE. Canine breeding, whether natural or AI, should occur on which days of the standing heat?
    • ANS. 1, 3 and 5
    • Ref. LAM, 2 ed, Ch. 11, p404
  84. Que. False pregnancy (________), a stage of mammary gland development and lactation associated with nesting or mothering behavior, is common in the bitch.
    • Ans. pseudocyesis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 405
  85. Que. __________ does not predispose the bitch to reproductive disease or infertility.
    • Ans. Pseudopregnancy
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 405
  86. Que. Reproductive performance in the bitch is optimal prior to __ years of age.
    • Ans. four
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 405
  87. Que. Dogs are sexually mature by __ to __ months of age, but are not socially mature until 18-36 months of age.
    • Ans. Six, nine
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 405
  88. Que. ________ _________ (ITB) is a highly contagious illness of the canine respiratory tract that usually manifests as an acute but self-limiting disease.
    • Ans. Infectious tracheobronchitis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 405
  89. Que. Name 3 disease agents commonly associated with infectious tracheobronchitis in dogs.
    • Ans. Bordetella bronchiseptica, CPIV, CAV-2
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P406
  90. Que. Clinical infectious tracheobronchitis can be subdivided into mild or severe forms. The ________ form is the more common presentation and is characterized by an acute onset of a loud, dry, hacking cough.
    • Ans. mild
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P406
  91. Que. The _________ form of infectious tracheobronchitis generally results from mixed infections complicated by poor general health, immunosuppression, or lack of vaccination.
    • Ans. severe
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P406
  92. Que. The natural reservoir for Bordetella bronchiseptica (in dogs) is considered to be what?
    • Ans. The respiratory tract of infected animals
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P406
  93. Que. The characteristic lesion from CPIV or CAV-2 infection (in dogs) is ___________.
    • Ans. Necrotizing tracheobronchitis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P406
  94. Que. Name 3 (of 6) differential diagnoses for persistent cough of >14 days in a canine.
    • Ans. Bordetella bronchiseptica, distemper, pneumonia, heartworm dz, tracheal collapse, mycotic infection
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P406
  95. Que. Intranasal vaccine combinations for Bordetella bronchiseptica (in dogs) protect against both __________ and __________.
    • Ans. Infection, disease
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P406
  96. Que. Proper ventilation and humidity are important in controlling spread of infectious tracheobronchitis. ___________ air changes per hour and ________ relative humidity are recommended.
    • Ans. 15-20, 50%
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P406
  97. Que. How does infectious tracheobronchitis affect pulmonary studies?
    • Ans. Altered respiratory tract histology and impaired mucociliary clearance
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P406
  98. Que. Beta Hemolytic Lancefield�s group C streptococcus (Strep zooepidemicus) is an etiologic agent for __________ and __________ in dogs.
    Ans. Pneumonia, septicemia
  99. Que. __________(Genus) __________(Species) is a ?-hemolytic Lancefield group _____ gram-positive non-spore forming coccus and an etiologic agent for pneumonia and septicemia in dogs.
    • Ans. Streptococcus zooepidemicus, Lancefield group C
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, pg. 407
  100. Que. In dogs, Lancefield�s group C streptococcal epizootics have commonly been associated with recent __________, usually within the past 7 days.
    • Ans. transportation
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, pg. 407
  101. Que. In the dog, a common pathologic finding of peracute Streptococcus zooepidemicus disease is ___________, occurring in many organs throughout the body.
    • Ans. hemorrhage (ecchymosis, petechiation)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, pg. 407
  102. Que. Several serovars of the spirochete __________(Genus) __________(Species) cause canine leptospirosis. Disease in dogs is primarily due to serovars canicola, icterohemorrhagiae, grippotyphosa, pomona, and bratislava.
    • Ans. Leptospira interrogans
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, pg. 407
  103. Que: What are the clinical signs associated with pneumonic disease caused by ?-Hemolytic Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus in dogs?
    • Ans: Coughing, weakness, fever, dyspnea, and hematemesis.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  104. Que: What are other clinical signs associated with ?-Hemolytic Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus in dogs?
    • Ans: Peracute death without clinical signs and conjunctivitis
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  105. Que: Lancefield�s group C streptococci have been isolated in dogs as a commensal flora in what regions of the body?
    • Ans: upper respiratory tract and the vagina
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  106. Que: Epizootics in greyhounds and research colonies reported Lancefield�s group C streptococci are associated with what?
    • Ans: recent transportation within 7 days and may be an opportunistic pathogen.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  107. Que: What peracute pathologic findings have been associated with ?-Hemolytic Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus in dogs?
    • Ans: hemorrhage from the mouth and nose and within the pleural cavity
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  108. Que: What type of hemorrhages associated with ?-Hemolytic Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus in dogs are seen on organs?
    • Ans: ecchymotic and petechial
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  109. Que: What is the term used for the pathologic lesions seen in the lungs that is associated with ?-Hemolytic Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus in dogs and are characterized by areas of ringed pale areas and central ulcerations that ooze blood.
    • Ans: Bull�s eye lesions
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  110. Que: The pathological findings associated with ?-Hemolytic Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus in dogs are characterized histologically by what lesions?
    • Ans: Areas of hemorrhage surrounding foci of degenerative neutrophils, blood, and necrotic debris. Gram-positive cocci were seen in both the lung and tonsils
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  111. Que: What is the pathogenesis for the disease caused by Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus in dogs?
    • Ans: it is unclear
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  112. Que: How is a definitive diagnosis made for Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus?
    • Ans: bacterial culture and identification
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  113. Que: What the bacterial pneumonias or septicemia differentials for Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus in dogs?
    • Ans: Streptococcus spp., Staphlococcus spp., Escherichia coli, Pasteurella multocida, pseudomonas spp., Klebsiella pneumoniae, and bordetella bronschiseptica
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  114. Que: What are the nonbacterial differentials for Lancefield�s Group C streptococcus in dogs?
    • Ans: rodenticide intoxication, coagulopathies, heartworm disease, pulmonary thromboembolism, ruptured aneurysm, and left-sided congestive heart failure.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  115. Que: How can Lancefield�s group C streptococcus be controlled?
    • Ans: Too little is known about the pathogenesis to make and recommendations
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  116. Que: How can Lancefield�s group C streptococcus in dogs be treated?
    • Ans: Antibiotic therapy based on culture and sensitivity. Febrile or systemically ill patients � IV fluids. Dyspneic patients � oxygen therapy and activity restriction.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  117. Que: What is recommended for dogs due to the association of epizootics of the Lancefield�s group C streptococcus and transportation shipment?
    • Ans: Providing an acclimation period to animals upon arrival at research facilities to evaluate health status and enable the animals to normalize physiologically.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  118. Que: What is the etiologic agent associated with leptospirosis in dogs?
    • Ans: Leptospira interrogans sensu lato
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  119. Que: What are the primary serovars associated with leptospirosis in dogs?
    • Ans: canicola, icterohemorrhagiae, grippotyphosa, Pomona, and Bratislava
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  120. Que: What is the duration of leptospirosis in dogs?
    • Ans: It can be acute or chronic
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  121. Que: What are some nonspecific clinical signs associated with leptospirosis in dogs?
    • Ans: lethargy, depression, abdominal discomfort, stiffness, and anorexia and vomiting
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  122. Que: Dogs with leptospirosis may be febrile and reluctant to move. What may be the cause for these clinical signs?
    • Ans: muscle or renal pain or meningitis
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  123. Que: What are some clinical signs associated with the cardiovascular system in dogs with leptospirosis?
    • Ans: icterus, congested mucous membranes, signs referable to DIC (due to petechial/ecchymotic hemorrhages, melena, epistaxis or hematemisis).
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11., p 407
  124. Que. What two factors have markedly decreased the prevalence of leptospirosis in dogs over the last thirty years?
    • Ans. Vaccination and reduced exposure to reservoir hosts
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 408
  125. Que. Rats have been implicated as important in the transmission of leptospirosis in dogs. Name the serovars known to be associated with rats.
    • Ans. Canicola and icterohemorrhagiae
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 408
  126. Que. True or false: transmission of leptospirosis is primarily from animal to animal.
    • Ans. False: transmission occurs primarily by environmental contact
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 408
  127. Que. Describe the usual transmission of leptospirosis in the dog.
    • Ans. Infected hosts shed leptospires in the urine, thereby contaminating the environment; na�ve animals are infected when the organisms contact mucous membranes or abraded skin.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 408
  128. Que. What environmental conditions favor survival of leptospires?
    • Ans. Moisture, moderate temperatures, and alkaline soil
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 408
  129. Que. Which of the following has been documented as a means of leptospirosis transmission? More than one answer may be accepted. Close contact, Bites, Ingestion of infected meat, Transplacental, Venereal?
    • Ans. All of the above
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 408
  130. Que. What is the public health significance of leptospirosis?
    • Ans. Leptospirosis is a zoonotic disease.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 408
  131. Que. What other condition mimics the clinical syndrome of leptospirosis in dogs and should be included in the differential diagnoses?
    • Ans. Zinc toxicity
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 408
  132. Que. What is considered the most reliable means of definitive diagnosis of leptospirosis in dogs?
    • Ans. Paired serology (note: seroconversion may not occur until after the first week of infection)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 408
  133. Que. True or false: immunization of dogs with the Leptospira bivalent vaccination will not prevent development of the carrier state.
    • Ans. True
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 408
  134. Que. Besides vaccination, what other control measures should be considered for leptospirosis, especially for dogs with outdoor runs?
    • Ans. Contact with wildlife reservoirs; identification of carriers; treatment or elimination of carrier animals.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 408
  135. Que. True or false: most adult dogs with Campylobacter jejuni are asymptomatic carriers.
    • Ans. True
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 408
  136. Que: What specimen is preferred for the diagnosis of Campylobacteriosis in dogs ?
    • Ans: fresh feces (per rectum)
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 409.
  137. Que: What is demonstrated for the presumptive diagnosis of Camplylobacteriosis in
    • dogs ?
    • Ans: highly motile curved or spiral organism with dark-field or phase contrast
    • microscopy
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 409.
  138. Que: Campylobacter jejuni appear as _______________ when Gram stained.
    • Ans: gull-winged rods
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 409.
  139. Que: The differential diagnosis for diarrhea in dogs include:
    • Ans: canine parvovirus, coronavirus, distemper virus, Giardia, and Salmonella
    • infections, helminth infestations, and hemorrhagic gastroenteritis.
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 409.
  140. Que: What clinical signs are produced by the enterotoxin produced by C. jejuni :
    • Ans: a secretory diarrhea
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 409.
  141. Que: What intestinal pathology is produce by C. jejuni infection ?
    • Ans: erosive enterocolitis, by invasion of the ileal and colonic epithelium along with
    • production of a cytotoxic agent.
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 409.
  142. Que: C. jejuni can be a zoonotic agent, which persons are at greatest risk of infection
    • and disease
    • Ans: children, and immunocompromised individuals
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 409.
  143. Que: What is the route of transmission of C. jejuni infection ?
    • Ans: fecal-oral route
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 409.
  144. Que: Which antibiotics are effective for treating C. jejuni infections in dogs ?
    • Ans: neomycin, enrofloxacin, chloramphenicol, and doxycycline (treatment should be
    • for 10-14 days)
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 409.
  145. Que: The causative agent of Monocytic ehrlichiosis in dogs is:
    • Ans: Ehrlichia canis
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 409.
  146. Que: What are the common names used for Monocytic ehrlichiosis in dogs ?
    • Ans: canine tr�pical pancytopenia, tracker dog disease, canine hemorrhagic fever, or
    • canine typhus
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 409.
  147. Que: The classification of Ehrlichia canis is:
    • Ans: a small, pleomorphic, gram-negative bacteria in the family Rickettsiaceae
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 409.
  148. Que: What are the three phases of disease seen in dogs infected with Ehrlichia canis ?
    • Ans: acute, subclinical and chronic
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 409.
  149. Que: What are the clinical signs are associated with the acute phase of Ehrlichia canis
    • infection in dogs ?
    • Ans: lethargy, fever, generalized lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, dyspnea,
    • petechial or ecchymotic hemorrhages, peripheral edema, CNS signs;
    • hyperaesthesia, myoclonus, and cranial nerve deficits.
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 409.
  150. Que: What are the clinical signs are associated with the chronic phase of Ehrlichia
    • canis infection in dogs ?
    • Ans: the chronic phase develops 1-4 months after the initial infection. An extremely
    • varied clinical picture can be seen and can mimic several other clinical
    • syndromes.
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 409.
  151. Que. Ocular clinical signs of monocytic ehrlichiosis consist of ____________ and ___________.
    • Ans. uveitis; chorioretinitis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  152. Que. ___________ ___________ is the most consistent laboratory abnormality noted for all 3 stages of ehrlichiosis.
    • Ans. Persistent thrombocytopenia
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  153. Que. List 2 hematologic abnormalities associate with ehrlichiosis.
    • Ans. regenerative or nonregenerative anemia; positive Coombs� test; bicytopenia or pancytopenia; splenic plasmacytosis or lymphocytosis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  154. Que. ____________ may occur as a result of polyclonal or monoclonal gammopathy.
    • Ans. Hyperglobulinemia
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  155. Que. Ehrlichia canis is an obligate intracellular parasite that infects __________ cells.
    • Ans. mononuclear
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  156. Que. The primary vector and reservoir of E. canis is __________ ___________. Give the common name of this vector.
    • Ans. Rhipicephalus sanguineus; brown dog tick
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  157. Que. Ehrlichia is most prevalent in what geographic areas of the US?
    • Ans. Southeastern and southwestern US
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  158. Que. Within the tick population, E. canis is transmitted _____________.
    • Ans. transstadially
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  159. Que. The primary mechanism of disease caused by Ehrlichia canis is _____________.
    • Ans. vasculitis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  160. Que. Anemia develops in Ehrlichia infection as a result of what 2 things ?
    • Ans. red blood cell destruction; suppression of erythrocyte production
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  161. Que. Breeds of dog most severely affected by ehrlichiosis include which of the following?
    • Ans. German shepherds and Doberman pinschers
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  162. Que. True or False??? Infection with Ehrlichia canis confers protective immunity in dogs that recover from the disease.
    • Ans. False
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  163. Que. The most common gross lesions of ehrlichiosis consist of what two basic vascular changes?
    • Ans. hemorrhage and edema
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  164. Que. The most common histologic abnormality associated with ehrlichiosis is ________ _________ __________.
    • Ans. lymphocytic-plasmacytic inflammation
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  165. Que. What is the most sensitive and specific method used in the diagnosis of E. canis infections? What other assay can be used to identify E. canis?
    • Ans. indirect fluorescent antibody test (IFA); polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  166. Que. Other Ehrlichia sp. that may cross react during testing are ___________ and ___________.
    • Ans. E. chaffeensis, E. ewingii
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  167. Que. Titres greater than _______ are considered positive for infection.
    • Ans. 1:10
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  168. Que. What stain can be used to demonstrate E. canis morulae?
    • Ans. Giemsa
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  169. Que. ____________ is the drug of choice for treatment of monocytic ehrlichiosis in dogs.
    • Ans. Doxycycline
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  170. Que. Tretracycline, chloramphenicol and enrofloxacin are all effective against Ehrlichia; however, ____________ should not be used in animals with cytopenias.
    • Ans. chloramphenicol
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p410
  171. Que. With respect to Monocytic Ehrlichiosis (Ehrlichia canis), what is the most significant research complication?
    • Ans. thrombocytopenia.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0411
  172. Que. What is the etiological agent for Thrombocytic Ehrlichiosis?
    • Ans. Ehrlichia platys.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0411
  173. Que. Is spontaneous bleeding a common symptom of Thrombocytic Ehrlichiosis?
    • Ans. No, despite the cyclic thrombocytopenia (10-14 day intervals as low as 20,000 platelets/�l), bleeding is not reported. The disease is usually subclinical with generalized lymphadenopathy as the only gross lesion noted.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0411
  174. Que. What is the etiological agent for Lyme disease?
    • Ans. Borrelia burgdorferi sensu lato.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0411
  175. Que. What is the most common clinical sign reported for Lyme disease in dogs?
    • Ans. lameness due to polyarthritis which can shift form leg to leg.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0411
  176. Que. What is the characteristic rash seen in humans infected with Lyme disease called? and is it commonly seen in dogs?
    • Ans. erythema chronicum migrans; no. (note: also seen in humans is severe arthritis and neurologic sequelae not observed in dogs)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0411
  177. Que. True or False. Lyme disease in dogs is an arthropod-borne disease.
    • Ans. True (Borrelia burgdorferi)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p412
  178. Que. Borrelia burgdorferi is transmitted in dogs exclusively by what species of tick?
    • Ans. Ixodes
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p412
  179. Que. Which tick is the prototypical vector of Lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi) in North American dogs?
    • Ans. Ixodes scapularis, a three-host tick with a two to three year life cycle.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p412
  180. Que. What stages of ticks spread Borrelia burgdorferi spirochetes when they bite dogs?
    • Ans. nymphs and adults
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p412
  181. Que. How do ticks become infected with Borrelia burgdorferi? (dog chapter)
    • Ans. Ticks become infected by feeding on an infected mammal and by transstadial transmission. Transovarial passage is rare.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p412
  182. Que. What is the primary reservoir species for Borrelia burgdorferi? (dog chapter)
    • Ans. The white-footed deer mouse, Peromyscus leucopus, which can carry spirochetes for its life span without becoming ill.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p412
  183. Que. What is the drug of choice to treat Lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi) in dogs?
    • Ans. Doxycycline
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p412
  184. Que. True or False. Antibiotic therapy used to treat Lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi) in dogs results in resolution of clinical signs but may not result in elimination of the organism.
    • Ans. True
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p412
  185. Que. In what types of studies are dogs that are clinically infected with Borrelia burgdorferi probably not appropriate models?
    • Ans. orthopedic or rheumatological research
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p412
  186. Que. Helicobacters are gram-__________, _______aerophilic, ________ bacteria that typically reside in and infect the gastrointestinal tract in dogs and many other species.
    • Ans. negative; micro; spiral
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p412
  187. Que. What species of helicobacter that naturally infect dogs are considered zoonotic?
    • Ans. Helicobacter bizzozeronii (formerly H. heilmannii), H. rappini, and H. canis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p412
  188. Que. What are the possible clinical signs you might see in dogs infected with Helicobacter spp.?
    • Ans. Most infections are subclinical in the dog. Clinical infections may present with vomiting, diarrhea, fever, and anorexia, pica, or polyphagia.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p412
  189. Que. The mechanism by which Helicobacter cause disease may be related to the host�s inflammatory response to colonization and the Helicobacter�s ability to produce __________.
    • Ans.urease.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, p413
  190. Que. Definitive diagnosis of Helicobacter infections require either ________ or ______ followed by demonstration of the organism in biopsy samples by _________, __________ or _______________
    • Ans.endoscopic, surgical biopsy, histopathology, culture or recognition by PCR
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p 413
  191. Que. True or False. Combination therapy has proven to be the most effective method for treating Helicobacter spp infections in dogs.
    • Ans. True
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p413
  192. Que. Clinical signs of canine parvovirus usually appear ___ days after inoculation by the ________ route.
    • Ans. 5, fecal-oral
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p413
  193. Que. Puppies between ____ and ____ weeks of age appear to the most susceptible to parvovirus.
    • Ans. 6, 20
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p413
  194. Que. Canine parvovirus has an affinity for rapidly dividing cells of the _________ and causes an acute, highly contagious enteritis with __________ necrosis and _______ atrophy.
    • Ans. Intestine, intestinal crypt, villus
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p413
  195. Que. Prevention of transmission begins with isolation of affected animals and quarantine for _____week(s) after full recovery.
    • Ans. One
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p413
  196. Que. Canine Distemper Virus (CDV) belongs to the family of __________, within the genus _______.
    • Ans. Paramyxoviridae, Morbillivirus.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p414
  197. Que. The genus Morbillivirus includes the human ________ virus and _______ virus of ruminants.
    • Ans. Measles, Rinderpest.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p414
  198. Que. CDV is the most common cause of __________ in dogs less than 6 months of age.
    • Ans. Seizures.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p414
  199. Que. In CDV, an immune-mediated __________ ________ may develop on the abdomen and is usually a favorable prognostic sign, because dogs that develop ________ lesions often recover.
    • Ans. Pustular Dermatitis, Skin.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p414
  200. Que. What are general signs of canine herpesvirus (CHV) in newborn puppies (< 2 weeks), versus adults?
    • Ans. Newborns � hemorrhagic disease w/high mortality; adults � persistent, latent infection of reproductive tract w/recrudescence and shedding during stress.
    • Ref. LAM, 2d ed., Ch. 11, p. 415.
  201. Que. What are some clinical signs of CHV in affected newborns? In adults?
    • Ans. Petechial hemorrhages and erythema; adults � repro problems, raised vesicular lesions in genital areas.
    • Ref. LAM, 2d ed., Ch. 11, p. 415.
  202. Que. What are the routes of transmission of CHV?
    • Ans. Puppies - Via passage through birth canal or horizontally by littermates; adults- venereally .
    • Ref. LAM, 2d ed., Ch. 11, p. 415.
  203. Que. What are some path findings with CHV ? Differential diagnoses?
    • Ans. Gross � multifocal ecchymotic hemorrhage of kidneys,liver, lungs, GI tract; basophilica INIB in necrotic areas of parenchymal tissue. DDX = canine ehrlichiosis and causes of DIC (e.g. endotoxemia).
    • Ref. LAM, 2d ed., Ch. 11, p. 415.
  204. Que. Is an effective vaccine available for CHV? Do affected newborns usually live or die?
    • Ans. No; usually die.
    • Ref. LAM, 2d ed., Ch. 11, p. 415.
  205. Que. In what family is rabies virus? What animals does it affect ?What are the stages of infection?
    • Ans. Rhabdoviridae; all species of warm-blooded animals; three stages � prodromal (change in behavior), furious stage (hyperreactive) and paralytic stage (ascending ataxia of hindlimbs due to damage to motor neurons).
    • Ref. LAM, 2d ed., Ch. 11, p. 415.
  206. Que. What is the incubation period for rabies? How long do untreated animals live once the clinical signs of rabies have started, and what causes death?
    • Ans. 3-8 weeks from time of exposure (however, can range from 1 wk to 1 year); death occurs 2-7 d after clinical signs start, due to respiratory failure.
    • Ref. LAM, 2d ed., Ch. 11, p. 415.
  207. Que. What is the pathogenesis of rabies virus?
    • Ans. The virus travels centripetally via peripheral nerve fibers to the CNS and neurons in the brain (neuro dysfunction), then migrates centrifugally to the salivary glands (shedding/transmission).
    • Ref. LAM, 2d ed., Ch. 11, p. 415.
  208. Que. Voluminous, light-colored, foul smelling, soft to watery diarrhea is associated with what protozoan agent in dogs?
    • Ans. Giardia duodenalis (lamblia)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed, Ch 11, p416
  209. Que. What is the best method to prevent giardiasis within an animal research facility?
    • Ans. Use of high-quality water sources.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed, Ch 11, p416
  210. Que. What is the most common treatment for giardiasis?
    • Ans. Metronidazole (25-30 mg/kg PO BID for 5-10 days)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed, Ch 11, p416
  211. Que: What intestinal coccidia have been associated with enteropathy in dogs?
    • Ans: Cystoisospora canis, C. ohioensis, C. burrowsi, C. neorivolta
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  212. Que: What are clinical signs associated with coccidiosis?
    • Ans: asymptomatic, diarrhea (may be soft or watery and may contain blood or mucous), vomiting, lethargy, and weight loss.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  213. Que: How is cystoisospora oocysts usually transmitted in dogs?
    • Ans: fecal-oral transmission. It is usually by ingestion of fecal-contaminated food or other objects in the environment.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  214. Que: How can cystoisospora oocytes be transmitted indirectly?
    • Ans: An indirect form of transmission is possible by the dog consuming a rodent or other animals that serves as a transport host.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  215. Que: What is the lifecycle of Cystoisospora canis?
    • Ans: a. Cysts enters small intestine
    • b. Cyst releases sporozoites that infect enteric epithelium
    • c. Asexual reproduction can occur several generations in enterocytes before sexual reproduction occurs.
    • d. Sexual reproduction produces gamonts
    • e. Gamonts fuse to become a zygote that encysts and ruptures enterocytes.
    • f. Cysts pass in feces
    • g. cysts sporolate in environment for ingestion by another host
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  216. Que: What gross pathological findings are associated with coccidiosis in dogs?
    • Ans: hyperemia or fluid retention at affected intestinal segments
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  217. Que: What histopathological findings are associated with coccidiosis in dogs?
    • Ans: necrosis of enterocytes, hyperemia and submucosal inflammation, oocysts apparent within the epithelial cells.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  218. Que: Are intestinal coccidia are opportunistic organisms. True or false?
    • Ans: True
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  219. Que: Intestinal coccidia do not typically cause illness unless other predisposing factors are present. Give examples of some of these clinical factors.
    • Ans: immunodeficiency, malnutrition, and/or concurrent disease
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  220. Que: What can promote clinical coccidiosis by providing a high population of infective oocyst to stressed animals?
    • Ans: Overcrowding and unsanitary conditions
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  221. Que: How can coccidian oocyst be diagnosed?
    • Ans: fecal examination
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  222. Que: Can coccidian oocyst be found in clinically healthy dogs, dogs with diarrhea, or both.
    • Ans: the oocyst can be found in both clinically healthy dogs and dogs with diarrhea.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  223. Que: How can coccidiosis be prevented?
    • Ans: 1) adhere to proper sanitation guidelines, 2) reduce overcrowding, 3) provide a stress-free environment.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  224. Que: Why is treatment for coccidial oocysts of Cystoisospora infections often not necessary?
    • Ans: because they are typically self-limiting and clinically insignificant.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  225. Que: What are possible choices of treatment for coccidial oocysts of Cystoisospora infections?
    • Ans: 1. sulfadimethoxine (25 � 30 mg/lb PO x 10 days)
    • 2. trimehtoprim sulfa (15 mg/lb PO x 10 days)
    • 3. quinacrine (5mg/lb PO x 10 days)
    • 4. amprolium (100mg gelatin capsules for 7-12 days for small-breed pups and 200mg for larger breeds)
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  226. Que: What research complications can clinical coccidiosis cause?
    • Ans: aberrations in gastrointestinal physiological parameters.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  227. Que: What is the most common ascarid in dogs
    • Ans: Toxocara canis
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  228. Que: What ascarid can infect both dogs and cats?
    • Ans: Toxocara leonine
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  229. Que: What clinical signs can infestation of ascarids cause in dogs?
    • Ans: diarrhea, vomiting, dehydration, abdominal discomfort with vocalization, dull hair coat, intussusception and/or intestinal obstruction, visceral larval migrans.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  230. Que: What kind of appearance can puppies have with heavy ascarid infestations?
    • Ans: pot-bellied appearance
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  231. Que: Visceral larval migrans caused by Toxocara canis can cause what in dogs?
    • Ans: pneumonia
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  232. Que: How is Toxocara canis transmitted?
    • Ans: 1. transplacental migration
    • 2. transmammary
    • 3. ingestion of infective eggs shed in feces
    • 4. ingestion of a transport or intermediate host
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  233. Que: What are the pathological findings associated with ascarid infestations?
    • Ans: a. large worm population in lumen of small intestines
    • b. intestinal obstruction resulting in intussusception or intestinal perforation
    • c. severe pulmonary parenchymal damage from ascarid lung migration causing fatal pneumonia.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p.417
  234. Que. The infective stage of T. canis is the _________ stage larva.
    • Ans. Third-stage
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 418
  235. Que. Infections of T. canis are initiated in 3 ways: _______ migration which leads to intestinal infection, ________ migration and _________ migration.
    • Ans. Liver-lung, somatic tissue, intestinal wall,
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 418
  236. Que. Older dogs that become infected typically have an age related resistance to ________ migration. These larval migrations are often asymptomatic and progression of the L3 larva is ________ in the tissues. It is these larvae that become reactivated in a pregnant bitch, thus establishing the ________ and __________ routes of transmission.
    • Ans. liver-lung, arrested, transplacental, transmammary
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 418
  237. Que. If the source of T. canis infection is transplacental, puppies may be born with L3 larvae in their ________, because larval migration is already in place.
    • Ans. lungs
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 418
  238. Que. T. canis eggs are large ( __ to ___ um in diameter) and round and readily identified by standard fecal flotation methods.
    • Ans. 70, 85
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 418
  239. Que. Monthly administration of _________ or ______ is recommended for prevention and control of canine ascarid and hookworm infestations.
    • Ans. Milbemycin, ivermectin plus pyrantel pamoate
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 418
  240. Que. Most anthelmintics are effective for treatment of ascariasis and ______ and _______ are commonly used. Treatment should be started early in puppies at ____, _____, _____ and _____ weeks of age because of the possiblity of prenatal or neonatal infection.
    • Ans. Pyrantel pamoate (nemex), fenbendazole (panacur), 2,4,6,8
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 418
  241. Que. Pyrantel pamoate dosed at ______ mg/kg per os is safe for puppies and is also effective in treatment of ________
    • Ans. 5, hookworms
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 418
  242. Que. In breeding colonies in which ascarid infestation is a known problem, treatment of the _____and _______bitch may be advantageous. Extended fenbendazole therapy ( ______mg/kg per os ______ for 14 days or ____ from day 40 of gestation) has been shown to be experimentally safe and effective in decreasing ascarid burdens in puppies.
    • Ans. Pregnant, nursing, 50, BID, SID
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 418
  243. Que. The most common and most pathogenic hookworm of dogs is ___________. Other, less pathogenic canine hookworms found in North America are ___________ which can be found in the American tropics and southern U.S. and _______ which is distributed in the northern U.S. and Canada. Only ________ results in clinical illness, because of the amount of blood it consumes.
    • Ans. Ancylostoma caninum, A. braziliense, Uncinaria stenocephala, A. caninum,
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 418
  244. Que. Infective larvae are ingested typically ingested by puppies and develop directly in the _______. Ingestion can be from the bitch�s milk (transmammary), food, objects contaminated with infective larvae or ingestion of a ____________. Transplacental migration ________ occur with A. caninum. Larvae can also penetrate intact skin, migrate to the _________ via somatic or circulatory routes and be coughed and swallowed to reach the ________. The prepatent period is ______ weeks.
    • Ans. Intestinal tract, paratenic host, does, lung, intestine, 3
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 418
  245. Que. Infected puppies often have severe anemia and _______. The anemia can be from acute blood loss or be iron-deficiency anemia caused by chronic blood loss coupled with limited _____ reserves. ______ caused by hookworm attachment is evident on histopathologic examination.
    • Ans. Eosinophilia, iron, ulcerative enteritis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 418
  246. Que. Adult A. caninum can consume _____ to ____ ml of blood. In contrast A. braziliense and U. stenocephala consume ____ to ____ ml per worm, respectively.
    • Ans. 0.01, 0.2, 0.001, 0.0003
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 418
  247. Que. Diagnosis of ancylostomiasis is by identification of eggs or larvae from fecal samples by either ______ or ________. _________ should be considered as a differential diagnosis for puppies with bloody diarrhea and _________ should be considered for a young dog with anemia.
    • Ans. Flotation, direct smear, parvovirus, hemolytic anemia
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 418
  248. Que. Unlike ______ eggs, hookworm eggs are readily killed by drying, sunlight or cold; however, they do survive readily in warm, moist environments.
    • Ans. ascarid
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 418
  249. Que. The larvae of Strongyloides stercoralis must be distinguished from larvae of __________ and hatched ____________?
    • Ans. Filaroides hirthi, Ancyclostoma caninum
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p 420
  250. Que. The adult whipworm typically resides in the ________ or _____________?
    • Ans. Cecum, ascending colon
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p 420
  251. Que. __________ or _____________ is the only completely effective means to eradicate whipworm eggs from the environment.
    • Ans. Dessication, incineration
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11 , p 420
  252. Que. Have whipworm infestations been documented to interfere with research protocols?
    • Ans. No
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p 420
  253. Que. Heartworm disease of dogs is caused by the filarial worm, _______ _____.
    • Ans. Dirofilaria immitis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11 p. 421
  254. Que. Adult heartworms reside in the _____ _____; severe infestations can result in the prescence of worms in the right ventricle and atrium.
    • Ans. Pulmonary artery
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11 p. 421
  255. Que. Microfilariae, the immature worms produced by the adult heartworms, circulate in the bloodstream until a _______ (intermediate host) ingests them.
    • Ans. Mosquito
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11 p. 421
  256. Que. Microfilaria progress through several larval stages within the mosquito, eventually terminating in the _____ stage, which is then returned to the canine bloodstream during feeding.
    • Ans. Third
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11 p. 421
  257. Que. Use of adult heartworm antigen tests have virtually eliminated the historical status ______ heartworm disease, which was caused by infestation of adult worms without corresponding microfilarial circulation.
    • Ans. Occult
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11 p. 421
  258. Que. Microfilarial detection can be done by microscopic examination of the buffy coat of a microhemtocrit tube or by concentration techniques, such as the modified ______ test and filter tests.
    • Ans. Knott
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11 p. 421
  259. Que. Tests that examine for microfilariae have the inherent problem of false positives caused by the microfilariae of ________ _______, a non-pathogenic filarial worm.
    • Ans. Dipetalonema reconditum
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11 p. 421
  260. Que. What is the differential diagnosis for symptomatic heartworm disease (coughing, dyspnea, and exercise intolerance)?
    • Ans. canine distemper, canine infectious tracheobronchitis (complicated), streptococcal or other bacterial pneumonia, nocardiosis, and congestive heart failure
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p423
  261. Que. What drugs are use as adulticidal and microfilaricidal agents for heartworm in dogs?
    • Ans. adulticides; thiacetarsamide, melarsomine: microfilaricides; ivermectin, milbemycin, levamicole or fenthion
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p423
  262. Que. What is the most consistent finding of the physiomodulative properties of heartworm infection?
    • Ans. endothelial cell-dependent relaxation of pulmonary arterial smooth muscle is depressed compared to control dogs, and platelet reactivity is enhanced in heartworm infected dogs
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p423
  263. Que. What is the most common species of tapeworm in dogs?
    • Ans. Dipylidium caninum
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p423
  264. Que. Where do tapeworms parasitize the intestinal tract of the dog?
    • Ans. small intestine
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p423
  265. Que. What are the intermediate hosts of Dipylidium caninum?
    • Ans. fleas and lice
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p423
  266. Que. What are the intermediate hosts for Taenia pisiformis?
    • Ans. small ruminants, rabbits, rodents
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p423
  267. Que. What is the intermediate host for Echinococcus granulosus?
    • Ans. sheep and humans, thus a zoonotic potential
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p423
  268. Que. What medications can be used in the treatment of Dipylidium caninum?
    • Ans. praziquantel, fenbendazole, mebendazole, oxfendazole. Praziquantel is standard treatment for cestodiasis, especially Taenia or Echinococcus species.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p423
  269. Que. Canine lung fluke infestation is caused by ___________ in the Western hemisphere.
    • Ans. Pargonimus kellicoti
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 424
  270. Que. Eggs of Paragonimus infestation can be identified readily in either transtracheal washes or in _______.
    • Ans. feces
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 424
  271. Que. Identification from fecal samples of Paragonimus requires ________ techniques.
    • Ans. sedimentation
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 424
  272. Que. The Demodex species of the dog is _____?
    • Ans. canis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 424
  273. Que. Clinical demodicosis often presents which body sites?
    • Ans. feet, face and around the ears
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 424
  274. Que. Localized ______ is typically seen in juvenile dogs (<18 months) and usually resolves without treatment as natural immunological control develops.
    • Ans. demodicosis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 425
  275. Que. ______ is readily identified from deep skin scrapings of lesioned areas.
    • Ans. Demodex
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 425
  276. Que. Dogs that receive _________ agents could develop generalized demodicosis as an unexpected consequence of the experimentation.
    • Ans. immunosuppressive
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 425
  277. Que. Canine sarcoptic mange is caused by _____ ____ var. ____.
    • Ans. Sarcoptes scabiei, canis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 425
  278. Que. Sarcoptes mites live their entire lives in the _____ _____ of the host animal.
    • Ans. Stratum corneum
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 425
  279. Que. Many institutions use _______ as a means to control both endoparasites and ectoparasites.
    • Ans. Ivermectin
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 425
  280. Que. What is the genus and species of the sucking louse that infests dogs?
    • Ans. Linognathus setosus
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P426
  281. Que. What are is the genus and species of the two biting lice that infest dogs?
    • Ans. Trichodecties canis, Heterodoxus spiniger
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P426
  282. Que. Which of the dog lice species feeds on blood?
    • Ans. Linognathus
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P426
  283. Que. Are lice host specific? Zoonotic?
    • Ans. Yes, no
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P426
  284. Que. The most severe complication of infestations by the sucking louse is _________.
    • Ans. Anemia
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P426
  285. Que. How is pediculosis diagnosed?
    • Ans. Direct observation of the lice or nits on the dog�s skin
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P426
  286. Que. Which tick is host specific for the dog?
    • Ans. Rhipicephalus sanguineous (brown dog tick)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P426
  287. Que. Name two species of tick that produce a salivary neurotoxin that can cause an ascending flaccid paralysis (in dogs) aka tick paralysis.
    • Ans. Dermacentor andersoni, D. variabilis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P426
  288. Que. Which tick may reside within kennels (attics, bedding, wall insulation)?
    • Ans. Brown dog tick
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P426
  289. Que. Dogs with tick-bite paralysis, once the tick has been removed, usually show improvement within _____ hours, with complete recovery within _____ hours.
    • Ans. 24 hours, 72 hours
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, pg. 427
  290. Que. The most common flea to infest dogs is ________(Genus) _________ (species).
    • Ans. Ctenocephalides felis, the cat flea
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, pg. 427
  291. Que. Dogs that are hypersensitive to antigenic proteins in flea saliva often develop _________, which features pruritis, papules and crusting.
    • Ans. Flea allergy dermatitis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, pg. 427
  292. Que. Because fleas require host blood for food, they can survive off a host for only _____ to _____ months.
    • Ans. one to two
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, pg. 427
  293. Que. Fleas can also transmit or serve as vectors for other pathogens. The genus of tapeworm that is transmitted by the flea is __________.
    • Ans. Dipylidium
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, pg. 427
  294. Que. What is considered the most effective method for treating canine housing areas for fleas?
    • Ans. Direct spraying; flea �bombs� or foggers do not penetrate adequately into tight areas where fleas may hide.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 428
  295. Que. What other clinical condition may have to be treated in dogs infested with fleas?
    • Ans. Flea allergy dermatitis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 428
  296. Que. Name the three primary causative agents of ringworm in dogs in the United States.
    • Ans. Microsporum canis; M. gypseum; Trichophyton mentagrophytes
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 428
  297. Que. Define a kerion as part of a fungal skin infection in dogs.
    • Ans. At the sight of the fungal infection, a secondary bacterial infection may develop, called a kerion. It is self-limiting.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 428
  298. Que. True or false: a dog with inflamed skin is more likely to contract a ringworm infection.
    • Ans. False; the fungus cannot survive in inflamed skin
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 428
  299. Que. What is the public health significance of ringworm infection in dogs?
    • Ans. Ringworm may be transmitted to humans as well as other species.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 428
  300. Que. Name the histological stains used to best visualize the fungal elements of ringworm seen on a dog.
    • Ans. Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) or the Gomori methenamine-silver
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 428
  301. Que. Where do dermatophytes reside with respect to the hair shaft of the dog�s fur?
    • Ans. Typically dermatophytes infect the hair shaft itself, the hair follicle, and sometimes the skin around the follicle.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 428
  302. Que. What is/are the diagnostic method(s) used to determine ringworm infestation on a dog?
    • Ans. Skin scraping of the affected area; digest with KOH to facilitate observation of fungal elements. Dermatophyte testing media (DTM) or Sabouraud�s media may be used to speciate the fungus. Wood�s lamp fluorescence may be helpful.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 428
  303. Que. Which ringworm species will not fluoresce under Wood�s lamp?
    • Ans. M. gypseum and T. mentagrophytes (note: M. canis typically will fluoresce, but there are some strains of M. canis that do not).
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 428
  304. Que. List the active ingredients in shampoos, rinses, and creams most noted for topically treating ringworm in dogs.
    • Ans. Miconazole, ketoconazole, enilconazole, or chlorhexidine
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 428
  305. Que: What is the differential diagnosis list for systemic fungal infection in dogs ?
    • Ans: Blastomyces dermatitidis, Histoplasma capsulatum, Coccidioides immitis,
    • Cryptococcus neoformans var. neoformans
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 429.
  306. Que: The majority of cases of canine hypothyroidism are due to:
    • Ans: lymphocytic thyroiditis, an autoimmune disorder or idiopathic atrophy of the
    • thyroid gland.
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 429.
  307. Que: Lymphocytic thyroiditis is a major cause of hypothyroidism in which breed of dog?
    • Ans: laboratory beagles (appears to be familial)
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 429.
  308. Que: What are the clinical signs of hypothyroidism in dogs ?
    • Ans: obesity, lethargy, cold intolerance, constipation, dermatological
    • abnormalities including alopecia, hyperpigmentation, seborrhea, and pyoderma
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 429.
  309. Que: What are the clinicopathologic abnormalities reported in a large percentage of
    • hypothyroid dogs ?
    • Ans: increased serum cholesterol and triglycerides due to a decreased number of low-
    • density lipopolysaccharide receptors. Also a normocytic normochromic
    • nonregenerative anemia and increased serum alkaline phosphatase and creatine
    • kinase.
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 429.
  310. Que: What neurologic signs can be exhibited in hypothyroid dogs ?
    • Ans: lameness, foot dragging and paresis due to segmental nerve demyelination or
    • nerve entrapment secondary to myxedema. Mental impairment / dullness
    • secondary to atherosclerosis and cerebral myxedema.
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 429.
  311. Que: What are the causes of the myopathies associated with canine hypothyroidism ?
    • Ans: metabolic dysfunction and atrophy of type II muscle fibers
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 429.
  312. Que: What ECG abnormalities are exhibited in hypothyroid dogs ?
    • Ans: bradycardia due to decreased myocardial conductivity. ECG abnormalities
    • include decreased P and R wave amplitude and inverted T waves.
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 429.
  313. Que: What is the cause of the electrocardiographic abnormalities seen in hypothyroid
    • dogs ?
    • Ans: lowered activity�of ATPases and calcium channel function
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 429.
  314. Que. The prevalence of hypothyroidism in the general canine population has been reported to be less than _____.
    • Ans. 1%
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p430
  315. Que. __________ and ____________ are the two breeds with the highest incidence of hypothyroidism when compared with other breeds.
    • Ans. Doberman pinschers; golden retrievers
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p430
  316. Que. Currently, the ability to diagnose hypothyroidism relies heavily on the measurement of serum total and free _____ or _______________.
    • Ans. T4 ; thyroxine
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p430
  317. Que. Drugs such as ___________ and ___________ can falsely lower values of serum total and free T4.
    • Ans. glucocorticoids, anticonvulsants (also phenylbutazone and salicylates)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p430
  318. Que. The most biologically active form of thyroid hormone in the body is _____.
    • Ans. T3
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p430
  319. Que. ______________ can be responsible for false elevations in the concentrations of T3 and T4.
    • Ans. Autoanitibodies
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p430
  320. Que. The treatment of choice for hypothyroidism in the dog is _________________.
    • Ans. L-thyroxine (sodium levothyroxine)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p430
  321. Que. Define obesity in the dog?
    • Ans. Obesity is defined as a body weight 20-25% over ideal weight.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0431
  322. Que. In a United Kingdom study, what breed of dog was most likely to be obese?
    • Ans. Labrador retriever. (also: Cairn terrier, dachshund, basset hound, golden retriever, cocker spaniel; beagle was also listed as predisposed in a household environment)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0431
  323. Que. Does neutering promote weight gain?
    • Ans. yes.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0431
  324. Que. Define ideal body condition?
    • Ans. The ideal body condition for dogs is considered to be achieved when the ribs are barely visible but easily palpated beneath the skin surface.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0431
  325. Que. At what site of the dog were ultrasound measurement taken of subcutaneous fat and reported to be a reliable measure for total body fat?
    • Ans. lumbar area.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0431
  326. Que. To what percent of the calculated energy requirement to maintain ideal body weight, should intake be restricted for a suggested good weight loss program?
    • Ans. 60%.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0431
  327. Que. At what rate should weight loss occur per week?
    • Ans. 1-2% of body weight per week.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0431
  328. Que. What do studies indicate regarding increased fiber in the diet?
    • Ans. NO effect of satiety and therefore NOT beneficial effect in weight loss programs (caloric restriction is most important).
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0431
  329. Que. Obesity in dogs over ten years of age appears to be related to what conditions?
    • Ans. an increase in cardiovascular problems; hypertension; joint problems (i.e. osteoarthritis and hip dysplasia); diabetes mellitus
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p432
  330. Que. What factors must be considered prior to initiating traumatic wound care in dogs?
    • Ans. the type and size of the wound; the degree of wound contamination; and the capability of the host�s defense systems
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p432
  331. Que. The vast majority of wounds seen in dogs in the laboratory setting will fall into what contamination categories?
    • Ans. clean and clean-contaminated; These wounds may be treated with basic wound care and primary closure of the wound.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p432
  332. Que. Adequate tissue irrigation can be achieved by using a _____ ml syringe and an ____ or ____ gauge needle.
    • Ans. 35, 18 or 19
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, p433
  333. Que. ___________is an important part of initial therapy for contaminated or dirty wounds.
    • Ans. Debridement
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p 433
  334. Que. True or False. Necrotic fat should be resected liberally, because it does not have a large blood supply and will provide an environment for infection.
    • Ans. True
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p433
  335. Que. _____ wound closure is defined as closure of the wound at the time of initial wound therapy.
    • Ans. primary
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p433
  336. Que. ____________ primary closure occurs when wound closure within 3-5 days of wounding.
    • Ans. delayed
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p433
  337. Que. ____________ healing involves allowing the wound to heal without surgical intervention.
    • Ans. Second intention
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p433
  338. Que. In skin wounds, infection with _________ spp are generally of concern.
    • Ans. Staphylococcus
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p433
  339. Que. ________________ should be considered with infections of bite wounds.
    • Ans. Pastuerella multocida
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p433
  340. Que. _______________ result from compression of the soft tissues between the hard surfaces due to vascular occlusion, ischemia and ultimately tissue death.
    • Ans. Decubital ulcers
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p433
  341. Que. Factors contributing to decubital ulcer formation include__________, ___________, _____________, __________, ___________, __________, and ________
    • Ans. Poor hygiene, self-trauma, low-protein diet, preexisting tissue damage, muscle wasting, inadequate bedding, ill-fitting casts or bandages.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p433
  342. Que. Part of the treatment for pressure sores should include
    • Ans. Care of the wound and attention to factors causing the wound.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p434
  343. Que. Acral lick granuloma is a form of self-trauma called.
    • Ans. Psychodermatosis.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p434
  344. Que. The majority of acral lick granuloma cases are seen in dogs that are _______ and lack of _________ stimuli.
    • Ans. Confined, external.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p434
  345. Que. Important aspects of preventing acral lick granulomas include ______.
    • Ans. Behavioral modification and relief of boredom.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p434
  346. Que. What is the prognosis for acral lick granluoma?
    • Ans. Guarded because lesions often recur or new lesions develop when treatment is discontinued.
    • Ref. LAM, 2d ed., Ch. 11, p. 435.
  347. Que. What are elbow hygromas and what breeds are most commonly affected?
    • Ans. Fluid-filled sacs (but are NOT true cysts), found over bony prominences due to repeated trauma; large / giant breeds.
    • Ref. LAM, 2d ed., Ch. 11, p. 435.
  348. Que. Is this condition painful? What is the recommended treatment?
    • Ans. No, but if infected can be. Conservative treatment to relieve pressure via padding or placement of drains with padding are both mentioned in BBII as being used successfully. Injection of steroids, drainage or surgical removal not recommended due to potential for infection, etc. The primary aim should be to remove predisposing factors (hard floor surface, etc.)
    • Ref. LAM, 2d ed., Ch. 11, p. 435.
  349. Que. What are signs of corneal ulceration? How are deep versus superficial ulcers treated?
    • Ans. Blepharospasm, epiphora, photophobia; deep � debridement and primary repair +/- conjunctival or third eyelid flap; superficial � topical antibiotics w/out steroids
    • Ref. LAM, 2d ed., Ch. 11, p. 435.
  350. Que. What is the leading complication associated with the use of indwelling vascular catheters in dogs?
    • Ans. Infection
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed, Ch 11, p436
  351. Que. What type of material should indwelling vascular catheters in dogs be made of?
    • Ans. Nonthrombogenic
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed, Ch 11, p436
  352. Que: What is an advantage for using vascular access ports that lie entirely under the skin?
    • Ans: it eliminates many problems with infection
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  353. Que: Long extension of tubing connected to the vascular port does what in regards to catheter infections?
    • Ans: It reduces the potential for infection of the catheter.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  354. Que: What is recommended for placement of indwelling catheters?
    • Ans: 1) it must be done under aseptic conditions; 2) it should by individuals who are familiar with the procedure.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  355. Que: The placement of the catheter should be verified by ____________.
    • Ans: radiography
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  356. Que: Catheters that are used for delivery of drugs or blood sampling should be placed in the ______ _____ and not in the __________ __________ minimizing trauma to the tricuspid valve.
    • Ans: vena cava; right atrium
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  357. Que: After catheter placement, how often is the animal observed for signs of local or systemic infection?
    • Ans: daily
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  358. Que: What three things should be done to the catheter site every other day?
    • Ans: Disinfected, coated with an antibiotic ointment, and rebandaged.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  359. Que: If retention of a catheter is important, what is done to the catheter line if catheter infection is present?
    • Ans: The catheter lumen is disinfected by filling with chlorine dioxide solution
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  360. Que: How often should the catheter line be disinfected with chlorine dioxide?
    • Ans: once a month
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  361. Que: If catheter infection occurs, what is usually done with the catheter?
    • Ans: It is removed
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  362. Que: How is catheter wound irritation or infection treated locally?
    • Ans: With an antibiotic ointment, sterile dressing changes and minimal catheter movement.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  363. Que: How long is systemic antibiotic therapy initiated for catheter infections?
    • Ans: 10 days
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  364. Que: The drug of choice for catheter infections is based on what?
    • Ans: previous experience and culture results
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  365. Que: What type of blood cultures should be performed in cases of catheter infections?
    • Ans: aerobic and anaerobic blood cultures
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  366. Que: How are localized abscesses or sinus tracks managed with catheter infections?
    • Ans: establishing a drainage and flushing with chlorhexidine
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  367. Que: Are there adverse effects associated with chlorine dioxide in catheters?
    • Ans: No
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  368. Que: How is the catheter line disinfected in cases of catheter infections?
    • Ans: The chlorine dioxide is placed in the line, removed after 15 minutes, and replaced with heparinized saline.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  369. Que: What is done with all extension lines and fluids used with a catheter that has become infected?
    • Ans: it is discarded
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  370. Que: Blood cultures should be repeated ______ days after antibiotic therapy has ceased?
    • Ans: 3 days
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  371. Que: What have intestinal access ports been used for?
    • Ans: to study the pharmacokinetics of drugs at various levels in the intestinal tract
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  372. Que: What is the most frequently reported complication associated with catheters of intestinal access ports?
    • Ans: infection around the port site
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  373. Que: What other complications have been associated with catheters an intestinal access ports?
    • Ans: 1) catheter dislodging from the intestinal tract and resulting peritonitis
    • 2) Migration of catheter end within the lumen of the intestine (caused by peristaltic motion to egest the catheter).
    • 3) Extensive intra-abdominal adhesions
    • 4) Intestinal torsion
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  374. Que: What has eliminated the complication of catheter dislodging from the intestinal tract?
    • Ans: improved security by a synthetic cuff added to the end of the catheter.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  375. Que: What may help form a firm adhesion with intestinal access ports?
    • Ans: omental patch placed over the site of entry.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  376. Que: What adverse reaction can excess catheter length within the peritoneal cavity cause?
    • Ans: adhesion formation
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  377. Que: Insufficient catheter length while result in what problem?
    • Ans: detachment due to visceral organ motion
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  378. Que: How is patency of the catheters of intestinal access ports verified periodically?
    • Ans: 1) Contrast radiography using iodinated contrast material
    • 2) Fecal occult blood testing after a small amount of blood has been injected through the catheter.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  379. Que: What is defined as the systemic response to infection?
    • Ans: sepsis
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  380. Que: Most often, sepsis is a result of infection with _________ ____________.
    • Ans: gram-negative bacteria.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  381. Que: Sepsis may also be associated with _________ _________ and _________.
    • Ans: gram-negative bacteria and fungi
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  382. Que: What are the early clinical signs associated with sepsis in the dog?
    • Ans: 1) hyperdynamic response, including and increased heart rate.
    • 2) Increased respiratory rate
    • 3) Red mucous membranes
    • 4) A normal to increased capillary refill time
    • 5) Systemic blood pressure and cardiac output will be increased or within the normal range.
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  383. Que: What are the latter clinical signs associated with sepsis in the dog?
    • Ans: 1) Septic shock
    • 2) Decreased temperature
    • 3) Pale mucous membranes
    • 4) prolonged capillary refill time
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  384. Que: Cardiac output and blood pressure are _________ as shock progresses.
    • Ans: decreased
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  385. Que: What other clinical signs have also been reported in dogs with septic shock?
    • Ans: peripheral edema and mental confusion
    • Ref: LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p. 437
  386. Que. The pathophysiology of sepsis is complex and mediated by _________ responses involving mediators such as cytokines, eicosinoids, complement, superoxide radicals and nitric oxide.
    • Ans. immune
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 438
  387. Que. If the body is unable to compensate the result is _______ collapse.
    • Ans. cardiovascular
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 438
  388. Que. The presumptive diagnosis of sepsis is made based on the occurrence of several in a group of signs including altered body temperature, increased respiratory and _______ rate, increase or decreased WBC, increased number of _________ neutrophils, decreased platelet count, _________ blood pressure, hypoxemia and altered cardiac output.
    • Ans. Heart,immature, decreased
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 438
  389. Que. However, __________ without infection may create signs similar to sepsis.
    • Ans. inflammation
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 438
  390. Que. The pathophysiology of sepsis is complex and mediated by _________ responses involving mediators such as cytokines, eicosinoids, complement, superoxide radicals and nitric oxide.
    • Ans. immune
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 438
  391. Que. If the body is unable to compensate the result is _______ collapse.
    • Ans. cardiovascular
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 438
  392. Que. The presumptive diagnosis of sepsis is made based on the occurrence of several in a group of signs including altered body temperature, increased respiratory and _______ rate, increase or decreased WBC, increased number of _________ neutrophils, decreased platelet count, _________ blood pressure, hypoxemia and altered cardiac output.
    • Ans. Heart,immature, decreased
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 438
  393. Que. However, __________ without infection may create signs similar to sepsis.
    • Ans. inflammation
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p 438
  394. Que. All septic dogs should be treated with ______ to replace deficits and to maximize cardiac output.
    • Ans. Fluids
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., p439
  395. Que. After the dog has stabilized, the treatment of sepsis should be aimed to removing the _____ _____.
    • Ans. Septic focus
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., p439
  396. Que. The final treatment for sepsis in dogs is aimed at blocking the _____ of the systemic response.
    • Ans. Mediators
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed.,p439
  397. Que. Aspiration lung injury in canines demonstrates a bronchoaveolar pattern in the _____ lung fields on thoracic radiographs.
    • Ans. Cranioventral
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., p439
  398. Que. Aspiration provokes an inflammatory response probably mediated by _________.
    • Ans. Cytokines
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., p439
  399. Que. Accidental burns usually result from thermal injury or harsh chemicals such as strong alkalis, acids, and _________?
    • Ans. Disinfectants
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p 440
  400. Que. Deep burns develop a thick covering, or ________, composed of coagulating proteins and dessicated tissue fluid.
    • Ans. Eschar
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p 440
  401. Que. Several drugs have been shown to cause problems when injected perivascularly, including ___________, thiamylal, thiopental, thiacetarsemide, vincristine, vinblastine, and doxorubicin.
    • Ans. Pentobarbital
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p 440
  402. Que. In most cases of perivascular extravasation, dilution of the drug with ________ injections of saline is recommended.
    • Ans. Subcutaneous
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11 p. 441
  403. Que. Hepatic encephalopathy may be seen in young dogs with congenital ______ shunting of blood flow.
    • Ans. Portosystemic
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11 p. 441
  404. Que. Elevated levels of serum _____ ____ and blood ammonia also verify the loss of liver function.
    • Ans. Bile acids
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11 p. 441
  405. Que. Most importantly, the treatment of dogs with hepatic encephalopathy must be aimed at ______________.
    • Ans. reducing the levels of toxic metabolites in the bloodstream
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed. Ch. 11, p 442
  406. Que. Because protein metabolism is a major source of ______, all oral food intake should cease until the signs of hepatic encephalopathy have abated.
    • Ans. ammonia
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed. Ch. 11, p 442
  407. Que. The majority of the tumors in the dog were ________ and ________.
    • Ans. lymphomas (32%) and sarcomas (29%), including hemangiosarcomas of the skin and fibrosarcomas.
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed. Ch. 11, p 442
  408. Que. Excisional biopsies surgical margins should extend at least _____ around the tumor, and ____ if mast cell tumors are suspected.
    • Ans. 1cm, 3 cm
    • Ref. LAM 2nd ed. Ch. 11, p442
  409. Que. What are the symptoms of multicentric lymphoma?
    • Ans. enlarged lymph nodes and nonspecific signs such as anorexia, weight loss, polyuria, polydypsia, and lethargy. Organomegaly may be felt on abdominal palpation if present.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p443
  410. Que. What are the symptoms of alimentary lymphoma?
    • Ans. vomiting, diarrhea in addition to enlarged lymph nodes and nonspecific signs such as anorexia, weight loss, polyuria, polydypsia, and lethargy. Organomegaly may be felt on abdominal palpation if present.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p443
  411. Que. The incidence of lymphoma is highest in dogs of what age group?
    • Ans. 5-11 years
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p443
  412. Que. Histologically, what is the most common lymphoma classification in dogs?
    • Ans. intermediate to high grade and of large-cell (hystiocytic) origin
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p443
  413. Que. What is the average survival time for dogs without treatment for lymphoma?
    • Ans. 4-6 weeks
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p443
  414. Que. What is the paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lymphoma?
    • Ans. hypercalcemia
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p443
  415. Que. Where is the most common location for fibrosarcomas in dogs?
    • Ans. skin, subcutaneous tissues, and oral cavity
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p443
  416. Que. What are the histological findings in canine fibrosarcoma?
    • Ans. interwoven bundles of densely packed spindle-shaped fibroblasts, large numbers of mitotic figures, undifferentiated cells may exhibit multinucleated giant cells and cells of bizarre shapes
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p443
  417. Que. What is the pathogenesis of canine fibrosarcoma?
    • Ans. rapid, invasive growth, recurring frequently after excision, with low metastatic risk.
    • Ref. LAM, 2ed ed., Ch. 11, p443
  418. Que. Lipomas typically occur in which age of dogs?
    • Ans. aged (ave 8 yrs)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 444
  419. Que. Histicytomas arise from __________ cells of the skin?
    • Ans. monocyte-macrophace
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 444
  420. Que. Most common site of histiocytomas is the skin of _______.
    • Ans. the head particularly the ear pinna and distal forelegs
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 444
  421. Que. Most histiocytomas will __________ resolve.
    • Ans. spontaneously
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 444
  422. Que. The most commonly observed skin tumor of the dog is the ________ tumor.
    • Ans. mast cell
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 444
  423. Que. ____ ____ tumors in the dog usually appear to be discrete masses, but they frequently extend deep into the surrounding tissues.
    • Ans. Mast cell
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 445
  424. Que. In the mast cell tumor grading system, grade I has the ___ prognosis and grade III has the ___ prognosis.
    • Ans. Best, worst
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 445
  425. Que. ____ ____ have been observed in large numbers (>75%) of dogs with mast cell tumors.
    • Ans. Gastric ulcers
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 445
  426. Que. Mast cell tumors can be distinguished from other round cell tumors by using _____ ___, which metachromatically stains the cytoplasmic granules of the mast cells red or purple.
    • Ans. Toluidine blue
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 445
  427. Que. Because of the possibility of histamine release and tumor recurrence, dogs with ____ ___ ____ are not good candidates for research studies.
    • Ans. Mast cell tumors
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 445
  428. Que. Hemangiosarcomas are malignant tumors that originate from ______ cells.
    • Ans. endothelial
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 445
  429. Que. _________ lesions are most commonly found in the spleen and right atrium.
    • Ans. Hemangiosarcoma
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, pg. 445
  430. Que. ___________ is generally the first choice of treatment for hemangiosarcoma.
    • Ans. Surgical excision
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P446
  431. Que. What is a �sticker tumor?� (aka transmissible sarcoma, contagious venereal tumor)
    • Ans. Transmissible venereal tumor (TVT)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P446
  432. Que. How is a sticker tumor transmitted?
    • Ans. coitus
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P446
  433. Que. Where are sticker tumors located in males? In females?
    • Ans. External genitalia (caudal part of the penis) or prepuce, posterior vagina at the junction of the vestibule and vagina (also seen in the oral cavity, skin, and eyes)
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, P446
  434. Que. _______________ is the most common tumor seen on the penis of a dog.
    • Ans. transmissible venereal tumor
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, pg. 447
  435. Que. Surgery and radiation can be used for the treatment of transmissible venereal tumors, however, chemotherapy is more effective. __________ IV once weekly for 4 � 6 treatments will induce remission and cure in greater than 90% of the cases.
    • Ans. Vincristine
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, pg. 447
  436. Que. Canine mammary gland tumors usually occur on the _____ and _____ pairs of mammary glands.
    • Ans. fourth and fifth
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, pg. 447
  437. Que. Canine mammary tumors occur almost exclusively in female dogs, with most reports in male dogs being associated with endocrine abnormalities, such as estrogen-secreting _______________ tumors.
    • Ans. Sertoli cell tumors
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, pg. 447
  438. Que. True or false: approximately half of the reported mammary tumors in dogs are histologically benign (fibroadenoma, simple adenoma, benign mesenchymal tumor).
    • Ans. True
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 448
  439. Que. Mammary tumors of the dog develop under the influence of __________.
    • Ans. Hormones; receptors for both estrogen and progesterone can be found in 60-70% of tumors.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 448
  440. Que. True or false: the risk of a bitch developing a mammary tumor markedly drops after the first and second estrus cycles.
    • Ans. False; dogs spayed prior to first estrus had a risk of 0.8%; those spayed after the first and second estrus had risks of 8% and 26% respectively.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 448
  441. Que. Besides neoplasia, what other clinical conditions must be included in the differential diagnoses for mammary masses in dogs?
    • Ans. Mammary hyperplasia and mastitis
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 448
  442. Que. How may mammary tumors be prevented in the bitch?
    • Ans. By spaying bitches prior to the first estrus.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 448
  443. Que. __________ is the treatment of choice for mammary tumors in dogs, because chemotherapy and radiation therapy have not been reported to be effective.
    • Ans. Surgery
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 448
  444. Que. If the fourth or fifth mammary glands are removed surgically in a bitch suspected of having mammary cancer, what else should also be excised at the same time?
    • Ans. The inguinal lymph nodes
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 448
  445. Que. What canine breed has the highest prevalence of thyroid carcinoma?
    • Ans. The beagle.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 448
  446. Que. Why should thyroid carcinoma be on your differential list when a dog presents with facial edema?
    • Ans. Precaval syndrome (which causes the edema) may be caused by thyroid carcinoma.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 448
  447. Que. The mean age of dogs presenting with thyroid carcinoma is __________ years.
    • Ans. 9
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 448
  448. Que. True or false: male dogs more than females will present with thyroid carcinoma.
    • Ans. False; both sexes are equally represented
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 448
  449. Que. Thyroid carcinomas in dogs are unilateral/bilateral twice as often as the other.
    • Ans. unilateral
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 448
  450. Que. What is the treatment of choice for a noninvasive thyroid carcinoma in a dog?
    • Ans. Surgery
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 448
  451. Que. What iatrogenic condition must be considered when surgically removing a bilateral thyroid carcinoma?
    • Ans. The parathyroids may not be preserved; treatment for hypoparathyroidism will be necessary.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd Ed., Ch. 11, p. 448
  452. Que: What inherited and/or congenital disorders specifically occur in beagles ?
    • Ans: brachyury (short tail), spina bifida, pulmonic stenosis, cleft palate / lip complex,
    • deafness, cataracts, glaucoma, microphthalmos, optic nerve hypoplasia, retinal
    • dysplasia, tapetal hypoplasia, factor VII deficiency, pyruvate kinase deficiency,
    • pancreatic hypoplasia, epilepsy, GM gangliosidosis, globoid cell leukodystrophy,
    • XX sex reversal and cutaneous asthenia (Ehlers-Danlos syndrome)
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 449.
  453. Que: What are the most common birth defects found by a commercial breeder of
    • purpose bred beagles ?
    • Ans: umbilical hernia (1.82 % of births) and open fontanelle (1.44 % of births).
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 449.
  454. Que: What is the cause of nuclear sclerosis ( an apparent opacification of the lens) ?
    • Ans: compression of older lens fibers in the center of the lens (nucleus) as a
    • consequence of the production of new fibers.
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 449.
  455. Que: What is the pathogenesis of diabetic cataracts ?
    • Ans: excess glucose is metabolized to sorbitol and fructose. These alcohols and
    • sugars accumulate in the lenticular cells, producing an osmotic imbalance, which
    • brings fluid into cells, causing swelling and degeneration of the lens fibers and
    • resultant opacity.
    • Ref: Laboratory Animal Medicine, 2nd Ed., 2002, p 449.
  456. Que. Hip dysplasia is a degenerative disease characterized by laxity of the ______________ joint.
    • Ans. coxofemoral
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p450
  457. Que. Hip dysplasia is classically diagnosed by ________________ of the pelvis and hip joints.
    • Ans. radiography
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p450
  458. Que. Radiographic calculation of the ___________ ___________ to measure joint laxity has proven to be a good means to predict future hip dysplasia before other radiographic changes are evident.
    • Ans. distraction index
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p450
  459. Que. Surgical treatments for hip dysplasia include ____________________ and _______________________.
    • Ans. femoral head ostectomy and total hip replacement
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p450
  460. Que. Benign prostatic hyperplasia is an age-related condition in (neutered/intact) male dogs.
    • Ans. intact
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p450
  461. Que. Hyperplasia of prostatic glandular tissue is a response to the presence of both _______________ and ______________.
    • Ans. testosterone; estrogen
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p450
  462. Que. Clinical signs of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) include: _______________, _________________, and __________________.
    • Ans. tenesmus; urethral discharge; hematuria
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p450
  463. Que. BPH is characterized as (painful/nonpainful) (symmetrical/nonsymmetrical) swelling of the prostate gland.
    • Ans. nonpainful; symmetrical
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p450
  464. Que. How can canine and human BPH be differentiated?
    • Ans. human BPH is stromal in origin, whereas canine is due to hyperplasia of the glandular issue
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p450
  465. Que. The pathogenesis of BPH in older intact male dogs includes the following steps: increased production of estrogens (estrone and estradiol), combined with (increased/decreased) secretion of androgens, which sensitizes prostatic androgen receptors to dihydrotestosterone.
    • Ans. decreased
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p450
  466. Que. What is the primary means for prevention of benign prostatic hyperplasia?
    • Ans. castration.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0451
  467. Que. List some alternatives to castration for treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia?
    • Ans. estrogen; 5?-reductase inhibitor (finasteride (Proscar)) �not approved in United States; androgen inhibitors (flutamide and hydroxyflutamide) �not approved in United States.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0451
  468. Que. What lesion is consistent with Juvenile Polyarteritis Syndrome seen in young beagles?
    • Ans. systemic necrotizing vasculitis which appears to have an auto-immune component and there may be a heredity predisposition.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0451
  469. Que. Clinical signs of Juvenile Polyarteritis Syndrome include fever, anorexia, lethargy and reluctance to move the head and neck. Dogs seem to extend the neck ventrally. Dogs seem to be in pain. Remissions and relapses are characterized by 3-7 days/weeks of illness and 2-4 days/weeks of remission.
    • Ans. days; weeks
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0451
  470. Que. What site is often affected in subclinical vasculitis of Juvenile Polyarteritis Syndrome?
    • Ans. coronary arteries.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0451
  471. Que. What is the primary means for prevention of benign prostatic hyperplasia?
    • Ans. castration.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0451
  472. Que. List some alternatives to castration for treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia?
    • Ans. estrogen; 5?-reductase inhibitor (finasteride (Proscar)) �not approved in United States; androgen inhibitors (flutamide and hydroxyflutamide) �not approved in United States.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0451
  473. Que. What lesion is consistent with Juvenile Polyarteritis Syndrome seen in young beagles?
    • Ans. systemic necrotizing vasculitis which appears to have an auto-immune component and there may be a heredity predisposition.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0451
  474. Que. Clinical signs of Juvenile Polyarteritis Syndrome include fever, anorexia, lethargy and reluctance to move the head and neck. Dogs seem to extend the neck ventrally. Dogs seem to be in pain. Remissions and relapses are characterized by 3-7 days/weeks of illness and 2-4 days/weeks of remission.
    • Ans. days; weeks
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0451
  475. Que. What site is often affected in subclinical vasculitis of Juvenile Polyarteritis Syndrome?
    • Ans. coronary arteries.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p0451
  476. Que. True or False. It is consistent with juvenile polyarteritis syndrome in dogs to see the coronary artery surrounded by rings of inflammatory cells.
    • Ans. True
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p452
  477. Que. True or false. There are prevention and control measures for Juvenile Polyarteritis Syndrome (JPS).
    • Ans. False
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch 11, p453
  478. Que. _____________ is used to relieve clinical symptoms of JPS
    • Ans. Prednisone
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p 453
  479. Que. The common name for hyperplasia and/or prolapse of the nictitating membrane is ________
    • Ans. Cherry eye
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p453
  480. Que. True or False. Cherry eye is considered a congenital anomaly.
    • Ans. False
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p453
  481. Que.The most effective way to treat �cherry eye� is by___________
    • Ans. Surgical reduction or excision.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch. 11, p453
  482. Que. Interdigital cysts are chronic inflammation lesions, not ________.
    • Ans. True cyst.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p454
  483. Que. Interdigital cysts usually occur in the _____ and _______ interdigital spaces.
    • Ans. 4th, 5th.
    • Ref. LAM, 2nd ed., Ch.11, p454

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