BIOL230_Test2

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jswareham
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77233
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BIOL230_Test2
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2011-04-05 19:58:13
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bacteria growth energy glycolosis Kreb fermentation electron transport system metabolism DNA RNA transcription translation protein synthesis replication non specific immunity
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CCBC BIOL230 Dr. Jeffrey Test #2 subjects.
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  1. What is the term used to define the amount of time it takes for a population of bacteria to double its population.
    Generation Time
  2. Generation time in bacteria is approximately how long?
    20-30 minutes
  3. Bacteria with short generation times cause _________ infections.
    acute
  4. Bacteria with long generation times cause _________ infections.
    chronic
  5. What are the 4 periods of bacterial cell growth and death, and the approximate times associated with each period? (graph)
    • 1 - lag period, initial bacteria are "getting ready" to divide, ~30min
    • 2 - log period of growth, ~12 - 24 hours
    • 3 - stationary period, accumulation of toxic end products, depletion of food source, death rate = reproduction rate, ~24 - 48 hours
    • 4 - Decline or Death period of growth, ~48 - 96 hours
  6. What are the 3 categories of bacteria as it pertains to temperature?
    • Psychrophiles
    • Mesophiles
    • Thermophiles
  7. What is the temperature range and optimum growth temperature for psychrophiles?
    • Range: -5 to 25 oC
    • Optimum: 10 to 15 oC
  8. What is the temperature range and optimum growth temperature for mesophiles?
    • Range: 20 to 45 oC
    • Optimum: 37 oC (body temp)
  9. What is the temperature range and optimum growth temperature for thermophiles?
    • Range: 30 to 90 oC
    • Optimum: 55 oC
  10. As it relates to bacteria and temperature, why do we cook and freeze our food?
    Humans are infected by mesophiles, freezing (0oC) is below the range and boiling (100oC) is above the range in which mesophiles can live.
  11. Bacteria that need oxygen to live are called?
    Obligate Aerobes
  12. Bacteria that need oxygen free environments to live are called?
    Obligate Anaerobes
  13. Bacteria that live with or without oxygen are called?
    Facultative
  14. A facultative bacteria that prefers an environment without oxygen is called a ____________?
    Facultative aerobe
  15. A facultative bacteria that prefers an environment with oxygen is called a ____________?
    Facultative anaerobe
  16. What are the pH ranges for an acid, a base, and a neutral substance?
    • acid: pH=0-7
    • base: pH=7-14
    • neutral: pH=7
  17. What is the pH range of blood?
    pH blood = 7.35-7.45
  18. If the pH of your blood drops below _____, it causes a condition called ______.
    7.35, acidosis
  19. If the pH of your blood rises above _____, it causes a condition called ______.
    7.45, alkalosis
  20. What is the pH of skin?
    5-6
  21. What is the range and optimum pH conditions for most bacteria?
    • Range: 3-11
    • Optimum: 6.8-7.2 (Note: the pH of skin and blood is outside the optimum pH for bacteria.)
  22. What does it mean when soaps say they are "pH balanced"?
    The pH of the soap is equal to that of our skin, around 5-6.
  23. As it relates to pH, what can we do to food to protect it from bacteria?
    We can pickle our food to lower the pH.
  24. What is energy?
    The ability to do work.
  25. Organisms that make energy from light are called ________.
    phototrophs
  26. Organisms that make energy from chemicals are called ________.
    chemotrophs
  27. Bacteria that make energy from simple nutrients are called ________.
    Chemoautotrophs
  28. Bacteria that make energy from complex nutrients are called ________.
    Chemoheterotrophs
  29. Bacteria that make energy from very complex nutrients, such as blood and tissue, are called ________.
    Fastidious Chemotrophs
  30. Bacteria that get energy only from living matter are called ________.
    Obligate Parasites
  31. Bacteria that get energy only from non-living matter are called ________.
    Obligate Saprophytes
  32. Bacteria that get energy from living and non-living matter are called ________.
    Facultative
  33. Facultative bacteria that prefer to get energy from non-living matter are called _________.
    Facultative Parasites
  34. Facultative bacteria that prefer to get energy from living matter are called _________.
    Facultative Saprophyte
  35. Information card:
    Some bacteria need the following for survival
    -Chemicals (O2, N2, H2, C, S, P, etc…)
    -Minerals (Ca, Fe, Zn, K, etc…)
    -Vitamins (niacin, riboflavin, etc…)
    -Water
  36. What are enzymes made of and where are they coded for?
    Enzymes are made of proteins and are coded for by DNA.
  37. Explain what it means that bacteria are enzyme specific.
    Every species of bacteria make a very different and specific set of enzymes. This can be useful in identifying different species of bacteria.
  38. Information card:

    Enzymatic reaction
    Substrate (S) + Enzyme (E) → Enzyme/Substrate Complex (ES) → E + Product1 + Product2
    (Note that the enzyme used in the reaction is also one of the end products. Enzymes can be reused about 1 million times.)
  39. Enzymatic breakdown of a substrate is called ______________.
    Catabolism
  40. Enzymatic build of a cell parts and proteins is called ______________.
    Anabolism
  41. Catabolism + Anabolism = __________
    Metabolism
  42. All enzymes names end with the suffix ____.
    "-ase"
  43. Enzymes that work outside of the cell are called ________.
    Exozymes
  44. Enzymes that work inside of the cell are called ________.
    Endozymes
  45. Enzymes that are always present in the cell are called ____________.
    Constituent enzymes
  46. Enzymes that are made only when needed by the cell are called ___________.
    Adaptive enzymes
  47. Some enzymes use _____________, usually a vitamin, in order to function.
    Co-enzyme
  48. What are the 2 forms of cellular energy?
    • Potential energy - stored energy
    • Kenetic energy - working energy
  49. Potential energy in cells is stored in the chemical ________.
    Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) - see pg. 31 of lecture supplement
  50. What are the 3 components that make up ATP?
    • Adenine
    • Ribose sugar
    • 3 phosphate groups

    (adenine and the ribose sugar make up adenosine)
  51. Where in the ATP molucule is energy stored?
    In the bonds between the last 2 phosphate groups.
  52. There are other molecules besides ATP that are capable of storing energy, they are called _______________.
    High Energy Transfer Compounds (HETC)
  53. Where in the bacteria cell are ATP and HETC produced and stored?
    In the cell membrane.
  54. What are the 2 methods cells use to produce energy and store it in the bonds of ATP.
    • Respiration
    • Fermentation
  55. A method of energy production using O2 is called ____________.
    Respiration
  56. A method of energy production without using O2 is called ____________.
    Fermentation
  57. Cellular respiration in cells uses what 3 processes to produce and store energy in ATP?
    • Glycolosis
    • Kreb's cycle
    • Electron Transport System
  58. Cellular fermentation in cells uses what process to produce and store energy in ATP?
    Glycolosis
  59. Information Card:

    -Oxidation - when a chemical loses H+ and/or e-.
    -Reduction - when a chemical gains H+ and/or e-.
    -When an oxidation and reduction occurs energy is released which is then stored.
  60. Where in the bacteria cell does Electron Transport System (ETS) occur?
    In the cell membrane.
  61. What are the starting material and the end products of the Electron Transport System (ETS)?
    • Starting material: 2 H+ and 2 e-
    • End products: 3 ATP's and H2O
  62. What is the final acceptor of the 2 H+ and 2 e- in the Electron Transport System (ETS)?
    Oxygen - it accept the 2 H+ and 2 e- to make H2O
  63. What is the purpose of the Electron Transport System (ETS)?
    Purpose is to produce energy and store it in ATP.
  64. Where in bacteria does glycolosis occur?
    In the cell membrane.
  65. What is the starting material and the end products of Glycolosis in respiration?
    • Starting material: 1 molecule of Glucose + 2 ATP's
    • Products: 2 molecules of Pyruvic Acid + 10 ATP's
    • Overall respiration glycolosis produces 8 ATP's
  66. What is the starting material and the end products of Glycolosis in fermentation?
    • Starting material: 1 molecule of Glucose + 2 ATP's
    • Products: 4 ATP's
    • Overall fermentation glycolosis produces 2 ATP's
  67. Account for the 8 ATP's produced by respiration glycolosis.
    • 4 ATP's are produced directly from Glycolysis
    • 2 sets of (2 H+ and 2 e-) are sent to ETS for a total of 6 ATP's
    • 2 ATP's are used to start process
    • 4 + 6 - 2 = 8 ATP's
  68. Account for the 2 ATP's produced by fermentation glycolosis.
    • 4 ATP's are produced directly from
    • 2 ATP's are used to start process
    • 4 - 2 = 2 ATP's
  69. Where in bacteria does the Kreb's cycle occur?
    In the cell membrane.
  70. What is the starting material and the end products of the Kreb's cycle in respiration?
    • Starting material: 2 molecules of Pyruvic Acid
    • Products: 30 ATP's + 6 CO2
  71. Account for the 30 ATP's produced by the Kreb's cycle.
    Each of the 2 Pyruvic Acids from Glycolosis put into the Kreb's cycle yields 5 sets of (2 H+ and 2 e-) that to go to ETS to give 3 ATP's each for a total of 30 ATP's

    2 pyruvic acids x 5 sets (2 H+ and 2 e-) x 3 ATP's produced from ETS = 30 ATP's
  72. What is the purpose of the Kreb's cycle?
    Purpose is to produce 2 H+ and 2 e- to send to ETS.
  73. What does the acronym DNA stand for?
    Deoxyribonucleic Acid
  74. What 2 main items does DNA contain?
    • Contains the hereditary information for all living cells.
    • Contains the code for all cell proteins.
  75. What are the 3 major subcomponents of DNA?
    • Deoxyribose Sugar
    • Phosphate Group
    • Nitrogenous Base
  76. What 2 subcomponents make up the DNA backbone?
    • Deoxyribose Sugar
    • Phosphate Group
  77. What are the 4 Nitrogenous Bases used in DNA?
    • Purines: Adenin (ADE) & Guanine (GUA)
    • Pyrimidines: Thymine (THY) & Cytosine (CYT)
  78. How is the double stranded helix of DNA held together?
    Each strand is held together by hydrogen bonds of complementary base pairing (pg. 45 of lecture supplement).
  79. What is the base pairing pattern of DNA?
    • Adenine pairs with Thymine
    • Cytosine pairs with Guanine
  80. What does the acronym RNA stand for?
    Ribonucleic Acid
  81. What are the 3 subcomponents of RNA?
    • Nitrogenous Base
    • Ribose Sugar
    • Phosphate Group
  82. What 2 subcomponents make up the RNA backbone?
    • Ribose Sugar
    • Phosphate Group
  83. What are the 4 Nitrogenous Bases of RNA?
    Purines: Adenine (ADE) & Guanine (GUA)Pyrimidines: Cytosine (CYT) & Uracil (URA)
  84. What is the base pairing pattern of RNA?
    • Adenine pairs with Uracil
    • Cytosine pairs with Guanine
  85. List 3 ways RNA differs from DNA.
    • RNA is single stranded, not double stranded.
    • RNA has the nitrogenous base of Uracil instead of Thymine (still pairs with ADE).
    • RNA uses the sugar Ribose in its sugar-phosphate backbone instead of deoxyribose.
  86. What are the 3 types of RNA?
    • Messenger RNA (mRNA)
    • Transfer RNA (tRNA)
    • Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
  87. What is the role of messenger RNA (mRNA)?
    mRNA copies the genetic code in DNA by complementary base pairing acting as a "message" between DNA of the nuclear body and the ribosomes of the cytoplasm, where protein synthesis occurs. (Transcription)
  88. What is the role of transfer RNA (tRNA)?
    tRNA becomes charged with a specific amino acid, carries the amino acid to the ribosome and inserts the correct amino acid in the proper place according to the genetic code. (Translation)
  89. Describe the DNA replication mechanism in bacteria.
    • Most bacteria must cut the circular DNA to make it linear.
    • An enzyme cuts the DNA at a specific starting point.
    • 2 cut ends of the DNA attaches to 2 sites on the cell membrane.
    • The 2 DNA strands unwind.
    • As the strands unwind the hydrogen bonds between base pairs break exposing the nitrogenous bases.
    • New DNA nucleotides attach to original exposed nucleotides and rebuild 2 new complementary strands.
    • New sugar/phosphate backbones are formed on new complementary strands.
    • 2 new strands rewind.
    • 2 new strands separate from cell membrane.
    • 2 new strands reform circular structure.
  90. What are the 2 main steps of protein synthesis?
    • Transcription
    • Translation
  91. In transcription what is made from the DNA code?
    A strand of mRNA that codes for a specific protein.
  92. What is a section of DNA sequential bases coding for a protein called?
    A gene
  93. What must mRNA find and attach to begin the protein synthesis process?
    A ribosome
  94. What are the 3 step of translation?
    • Initiation
    • Elongation
    • Termination
  95. During translation, what are the steps of initiation?
    • 30s and 50s ribosomal subunits bind to m-RNA at "start" codon (AUG).
    • Initial "charged" t-RNA with complementary anticodon (UAC) lines up with the start codon of mRNA.
  96. What is a codon and an anticodon?
    • A codon is a sequence of 3 bases on mRNA that code for a specific amino acid.
    • An anticodon is a sequence of 3 bases on tRNA that complementarily pairs with the codon on mRNA.
  97. What does a "charged" and "uncharged" tRNA refer to?
    • A "charged" tRNA refers to a tRNA that is carrying an amino acid.
    • An "uncharged" tRNA refers to a tRNA that is not carrying an amino acid. It has left the amino acid at the ribosome to build the protein.
  98. During translation, what are the steps of elongation?
    • 1. A "charged" tRNA complementary to the 2nd codon binds to the 2nd codon of mRNA.
    • 2. The previous amino acid leaves the 1st tRNA and forms peptide bond with 2nd amino acid on 2nd t-RNA.
    • 3. The ribosome shifts down the mRNA strand so that the next codon is in place to receive the appropriate tRNA along with it's amino acid.
    • 4. Then the first 3 steps are repeated until the protein coded for is completed.
  99. During translation, what are the steps of termination?
    • Ribosome shifts to a nonsense codon.
    • Protein is released from the final t-RNA.
    • The 50s and 30s ribosomal subunits come off of m-RNA.
  100. What is the "start" codon, and what amino acid does it code for?
    AUG - Methionine
  101. What are the 3 "stop" codons, and what amino acid does it code for?
    UGA, UAA, UAG - All 3 do not code for any amino acid. This is why they are called nonsense codons.
  102. Do all codons code for 1 amino acid?
    yes
  103. Are all amino acids coded for by only 1 codon?
    • No, all amino acids can have more than 1 codon that codes for it.
    • Except the "start" codon AUG which only codes for the amino acid Methionine, and the codon UGG which only codes for Tryptophan.
  104. How many common amino acids are there?
    20
  105. Define: Genetic Mutation
    Changing the sequence of DNA bases will change the sequence of mRNA codons, that changes amino acid sequence, that will change the protein that will be synthesized.
  106. Name 2 main categories of mutations.
    • Spontaneous mutations
    • Induced mutations
  107. What is a spontaneous mutation?
    A mutation in the DNA code that occurs without any external influence.
  108. What is an induced mutation?
    A mutation in the DNA code that is caused by some external influence.
  109. What is the frequency of occurance of spontaneous mutations?
    Occurs in 1:1,000,000 cells.
  110. What is the frequency of occurance of induced mutations?
    Occurs in 1:1,000 cells.
  111. What are the 3 types of mutations?
    • Substitution
    • Deletion
    • Addition
  112. What is a substitution mutation, are they usually harmful, and give an example?
    • 1 or more DNA bases are swapped w/ another base that may code for different amino acid.
    • Not usually harmful, unless code changes to stop codon, or changes code for a needed protein.
    • Sickle cell anemia and Tay-Sachs disease.
  113. What is a deletion mutation, and are they usually harmful?
    • 1 base is removed from the sequence resulting in a reading frame shift. The frame shift starts at the deletion site and continues on down the DNA strand.
    • Usually fatal to cell.
  114. What is an addition mutation?
    1 base is inserted into sequence of bases, resulting in a reading frame shift. The frame shift starts at the addition site and continues on down the DNA strand.
  115. Information Card:

    Addition or Deletions of entire codons are usually not harmful.
  116. What is genetic recombination?
    Exchange of DNA between 2 or more bacteria.
  117. Do bacteria have to be of the same species for genetic recombination to occur between them?
    Yes
  118. Name 3 methods of genetic recombination in bacteria.
    • Transformation
    • Transduction
    • Conjugation
  119. Describe the process of transformative genetic recombination.
    • Steps 1&2 - donor bacteria dies and degrades leaving fragments of DNA.
    • Step 3 - DNA fragments from dead donor penetrates a living competent recipient bacterium.
    • Step 4&5 - Donor DNA fragment is exchanged for a piece of the recipient bacterium's DNA.
  120. Give an example of transformative genetic recombination in infectious disease.
    • Streptococcus pneumoniae - leading cause of pneumonia in humans.
    • 2 strains
    • Smooth strain - will make capsules (harmful)
    • Rough strain - will not make capsules (not harmful)
    • Everyone has the rough strain naturally.
    • If the smooth strain is introduced the "smooth" genes will pass to the rough strains through transformation.

    (remember to "U" tube experiment)
  121. What is transductive genetic recombination?
    DNA is transferred by a bacteriophage.
  122. Describe the process of transductive genetic recombination.
    • Step 1 - Temperate phage adsorbs to bacterium and injects its genome.
    • Step 2 - Phage genome inserts into bacteria nucleoid to become a prophage.
    • Step 3 - Occasionally during spontaneous induction, a small piece of donor bacterial DNA is picked up in place of some of the phage DNA as part of the phage genome, and some of the phage DNA is left in the bacterial nucleoid. (A mistake in spontaneous induction.)
    • Step 4 - As the phage replicates, the piece of bacterial DNA replicates as part of the phage genome. Every phage now carries that bacterial DNA.
    • Step 5 - Defective phage adsorbs to recipient bacterium and injects genome.
    • Step 6 - Phage genome, carrying donor bacterium DNA, inserts into recipient bacterium's nucleoid.
  123. Give an example of transductive genetic recombination in infectious disease.
    • Streptococcus pyogenes
    • 2 strains
    • Toxigenic strain - produces Erythrogenic toxin and causes Scarlet Fever
    • Non-toxigenic strain - does not produce Erythrogenic toxin, causes Strep Throat
    • The use of antibiotics early in the course of infection of the non-toxigenic strain reduces the progression toward Scarlet Fever because antibiotics kill the bacteria non-toxigenic strain before transduction changes them to the toxigenic strain.
  124. What is conjugative genetic recombination?
    DNA transfer via F-pilis (sex pilis)
  125. What are the 3 types of Conjugation?
    • F+ Conjugation
    • Hfr Conjugation (high frequency)
    • R-Plasmid Conjugation (Resistance-Plasmid)
  126. Describe the process of F+ Conjugation (pg. 59 of lecture supplement).
    • Donor bacterium is F+ male (contains genetic code for f-pilis production)
    • Recipient bacterium is F- female (does not contain genetic code for f-pilis production).
    • Donor bacterium creates a F+ plasmid.
    • Plasmid is a double stranded DNA fragment that codes for f-pilis production.
    • Donor conjugates with recipient with sex pilis and transfers 1 strand of the F+ plasmid.
    • Both donor and recipient makes the complementary copy of its plasmid strand.
    • Both bacteria are now F+ males and can make a sex pilis.
    • There is no transfer of chromosomal DNA.
  127. Describe the process of Hfr Conjugation (pg. 60 of lecture supplement).
    • F+ male donor inserts F+ plasmid into nucleoid to become a Hfr male and conjugates with a F- female via a sex pilis.
    • One donor DNA strand at end opposite inserted F+ plasmid begins to enter recipient bacterium.
    • The cells break apart easily so usually only a portion of the donor DNA strand is transferred.
    • Remaining DNA strand in donor makes a complementary copy and remains and Hfr male.
    • Fragment of transferred DNA strand to recipient makes a complementary copy.
    • Donor DNA fragment is exchanged for a portion of the recipient bacterium's DNA.
    • Recipient bacterium usually remains a F- female (transfer of chromosomal DNA but not plasmid).
  128. Describe the process of R-Plasmid Conjugation (pg. 61 of lecture supplement).
    • R-Plasmid = resistance plasmid.
    • Male donor bacterium with R-Plasmid (multiple antibiotic resistant and male) conjugates with bacterium without R-plasmid (antibiotic sensitive and female) with sex pilis.
    • One strand of the R-plasmid is transferred to recipient bacterium.
    • Both bacterium make a complementary copy of the R-plasmid.
    • Both bacterium have R-plasmids and are multiple antibiotic resistant and male.
  129. What are the 2 main types of body defenses against infections.
    • Specific defenses (immune system)
    • Non-specific defenses
  130. What are the 5 non-specific body defenses against infections.
    • Anatomical Barriers
    • Reflexes and Secretions
    • Non-Specific Body Chemical
    • Normal resident microorganisms (bacteria)
    • Inflammation
  131. Give 3 anatomical barriers.
    • Skin
    • Bones
    • Hair
  132. How does the skin act as an anatomical barrier? Are there any exceptions?
    • The skin is a physical barrier that very few infections can get through.
    • 3 Exceptions: Staphylococcus aureus, Tularemia (rabbit fever), and Dermatophyte molds (tinea, ringworm)
  133. What 2 features do normal body openings in the skin have to trap and remove infections.
    • Mucous membrane
    • Cilia
  134. What are the 3 areas that bones act as a physical barrier against disease?
    • Skull
    • Ribs and sternum
    • Pelvic bones
  135. Information Card:

    Hair also serves as a physical barrier.

    eye brows, eye lashes, nose hair, pubic hair, ear hair
  136. What are the reflex and/or secretion defense associated with the following:

    1. eyes
    2. nose
    3. mouth
    4. throat
    5. stomach
    6. intestines
    7. urinary tract
    8. vaginal tract
    9. ear canal
    • 1. eyes - blinking and tears
    • 2. nose - mucous and sneezing
    • 3. mouth - saliva
    • 4. throat - coughing
    • 5. stomach - vomitting
    • 6. intestines - diarrhea
    • 7. urinary tract - urine flow
    • 8. vaginal tract - menstration
    • 9. ear canal - ear wax
  137. What are the 7 non-specific body chemicals used for infection defenses?
    • Lysozyme
    • β-Lysins
    • Complement
    • Interferons
    • Spermine
    • Antibiotic proteins and enzymes inside phagocytic cells
    • Acids
  138. What is the non-specific body chemical lysozyme?
    Antibacterial protein found in tears, saliva, spinal fluid, inside white blood cells (WBC). Damages cell walls of G+ bacteria.
  139. What is the non-specific body chemical β-Lysins?
    Antibacterial proteins in serum (blood).
  140. What is the non-specific body chemical Complement?
    Serum protein that helps destroy bacteria with capsules.
  141. What is the non-specific body chemical Interferon?
    Antiviral proteins made by virus infected body cells. Prevents viral take over and replication.
  142. What is the non-specific body chemical Spermine?
    Antibiotic protein in semen.
  143. What are the 3 non-specific chemical antibiotic proteins and enzymes inside phagocytic cells?
    • Phagocytins
    • Leucins
    • Myeloperoxidase
  144. What are the 3 areas of the body that are protects by the non-specific chemical acid?
    • Stomach
    • Skin
    • Vagina
  145. What areas of the body are protected by normal resident microorganisms?
    • Skin
    • upper respiratory
    • lower digestive
    • lower urinary
    • lower genital
  146. What are the 3 ways that normal resident microorganisms keep out harmful organisms.
    • Starve out pathogens.
    • Produce harmful waste products.
    • Normal bacteria cover the target cells required for the pathogenic bacteria to grow.
  147. What are the 3 major purposes of inflammation?
    Localize, destroy, and remove harmful agents.
  148. What are the 2 main types of phagocytes involved in inflammation.
    • Blood phagocytes (leukocytes, white blood cells)
    • Tissue phagocytes (Macrophages)
  149. Where are blood phagocytes produced?
    Where are they found?
    What is their normal concetration?
    • Produced in bone marrow and lymph tissue.
    • Circulate in blood.
    • Normally 5k-9k WBC's/mm3 in blood.
  150. What is it called when the body produces more WBC's to fight infections? (increases of up to 50k/mm3 in blood)
    • leukocytosis
    • The more severe the higher the WBC count.
  151. What is it called when the body produces more than 50k/mm3 of WBC's in blood?
    • leukemia
    • People die of infection because WBC's are immature.
  152. What is it called when the body produces less than 5k/mm3 of WBC's in blood?
    • leukocytopenia
    • People are more readily succeptible to infections.
  153. Where are tissue phagocytes (macrophage) produced?
    Where are they found?
    • Made in lymph tissue or possibly other tissue.
    • Do not circulate in blood. Remain in tissue.
  154. What are the 2 types of Macrophages?
    • Wandering Macrophage - move throughout tissue.
    • Fixed Macrophage - remain in lymph node, do not move within tissue. Also known as RE cells.
  155. What are the 2 major types of white blood cells?
    • Granulocytes
    • Agranulocytes
  156. What are the 3 types of Granulocytes?
    • Polymorphonuclear Neutrophils (aka Polymorphs, neutrophils, PMN's)
    • Basophils
    • Eosinophils
  157. What is the % of all WBC, phagocytic activity and longevity of neutrophils?
    • Most common WBC; 60-70% of all WBC
    • Very active phagocytes.
    • Very short lived; they cannot multiply because of their polymorphic nucleus.
  158. What is the % of all WBC, phagocytic activity and longevity of basophils?
    • 1% of all WBC's.
    • Poor phagocytes.
    • Short lived; they cannot multiply because of their polymorphic nucleus.
    • (When basophils cross into tissue from blood stream they can differentiate into mast cells.)
  159. What is the % of all WBC, phagocytic activity and longevity of Eosinophils?
    • 1-3% of all WBC.
    • Poor phagocytes.
    • Short lived; they cannot multiply because of their polymorphic nucleus.
  160. What is the roll of eosinophils?
    Suppress inflammation
  161. What are the 2 types of Agranulocytes?
    • Mononuclear phagocytes (Monocytes)
    • Lymphocytes
  162. What is the % of all WBC, phagocytic activity and longevity of Monocytes?
    • 3-8% of all WBC.
    • Very active phagocytes.
    • Long lived because they can multiply.
  163. What is the % of all WBC, phagocytic activity and longevity of Lymphocytes?
    • 20-25% of all WBC.
    • Active phagocytes.
    • Long lived because they can multiply.
  164. What is the roll of lymphocytes?
    To mediate (regulate) inflammation and specific immunity.
  165. What are the 2 types of lymphocytes?
    • B-lymphocytes
    • T-lymphocytes
  166. What are the 4 symptoms of inflammation?
    • Redness (rubor)
    • Swelling (tumor)
    • Pain (dolor) - pressure and chemical stimulus of nerve endings.
    • Heat (calor) - carried by RBC's and the Bacteria vs. WBC battle.
  167. Inflammation = Localize, Destroy, Remove

    Describe the localization process of inflammation.
    • Infection in tissue (injury, disease)
    • Some cell and tissue damage and death.
    • Damaged cells release certain chemicals involved in inflammation. (Histamine, Serotonin, Prostaglandins, Etc…)
    • Histamine attaches to blood vessel and attracts WBC's.
    • Blood vessel dilates and becomes thin enough to permit WBC's to cross from vessel to tissue. This is called vasodilation.
    • Histamine is the vasodilation chemical.
    • WBC's cross thinned vessel membrane into tissue of infection site.
  168. Inflammation = Localize, Destroy, Remove

    Describe the destruction process of inflammation.
    • 1st on the scene are Neutrophils.
    • -Neutrophils bump into bacteria and form a sac around the bacteria called a phagosome.
    • -Neutrophils contain another sac filled with enzymes called a lysosome.
    • -The lysosomes and phagosomes join together to make a phagolysosome.
    • -The enzymes are release and breakdown the bacteria.
    • 2nd on the scene are Basophils.
    • -Basophils differentiate into mast cells and release histamine to attract more WBC's to the scene.
    • 3rd on the scene are Lymphocytes to regulate the process.
    • 4th on the scene are Monocytes if conditions are chronic.
    • 5th on the scene are Eosinophils to suppress histamine and in turn suppress inflammation.
  169. Inflammation = Localize, Destroy, Remove

    Describe the removal process of inflammation.
    • Dead WBC's, RBC's, bacteria, damaged body cells begin to accumulate.
    • -Collectively this is called Exudate.
    • -Exudate can be harmful to healthy cells and may form abscesses.
    • Exudate usually drains into lymph vessel and is carried to lymph nodes where the fixed macrophage can destroy any remaining bacteria.
    • Lymph node transfers Exudate to the blood stream.
    • The kidneys filter the Exudate out of the blood stream and passes out of the body with urine.
  170. What are some anti-inflammatory medications that suppress the symptoms of inflammation and should be used wisely?
    • Aspirin
    • Tylenol
    • Advil
    • Ibuprophen
    • Steroids (cortisone, prednisone)
  171. Name 3 infections that resist phagocytosis.
    • Bacterial pneumonia
    • Gonorrhea
    • Tuberculosis
  172. How does bacterial pneumonia resist phagocytosis, and what complications are a result of this?
    • Bacterial cells form capsules resisting phagocytosis.
    • The body send even more WBC's to lungs and the lungs begin to fill with fluids.
  173. How does gonorrhea resist phagocytosis?
    Piliated bacterial cells adhere to WBC's resisting phagocytosis.
  174. How does tuberculosis (TB) resist phagocytosis, and what complications are a result of this?
    • TB produces a lipid in its cell wall that prevents the formation of the phagolysosome.
    • TB actually lives inside the WBC in the lungs.
    • The body then tries to surround the bacteria within the lung tissue, resulting in the TB plaques visible in x-rays.

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