ATI Unit 3: Chapters 41-43

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kelc
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78103
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ATI Unit 3: Chapters 41-43
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2011-04-12 13:24:28
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basic nursing care
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ATI fundamentals basic nursing care
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  1. How much should the client participate in the admission assessment?
    • As much as possible
    • The client in distress or with mental status changes may need to have a family member to provide necessary information
  2. When does the therapeutic relationship start?
    During the admission process
  3. When should equipment for the admission assessment be obtained?
    Obtain all necessary equipment prior to arrival of the client and have it in the room
  4. What equipment should be included in the admission assessment?
    • Appropriate documentation forms
    • Equipment needed for vital signs
    • Pulse oximeter
    • Hospital attire for the client
  5. What is the first step of the admission process?
    Introduce yourself
  6. After introducing yourself to your client during the admission process, what should you have the client do?
    Change into hospital attire
  7. After positioning the client comfortably apply ________ and ________ (if needed) to their wrist.
    • Identification bracelet
    • Allergy band - if needed
  8. What baseline data needs to be obtained during the admission assessment?
    • Vital signs
    • Height
    • Weight
    • Allergy status
    • Home medications
  9. List the data that needs to be obtained from the admission assessment:
    • Baseline data
    • Biographical information
    • Client's reason for seeking healthcare
    • Health history
    • Family history
    • Psychosocial assessment
    • Nutrition
    • Spiritual
    • ROS
    • Safety assessment
    • Discharge information
  10. What data is included in the health history?
    • Current illness
    • Current medications (prescription and OTC)
    • Prior illness
    • Chronic diseases
    • Surgeries
    • Previous hospitalizations
    • Any other relevant data
  11. What data is included in the psychosocial assessment?
    • ETOH use
    • Tobacco use
    • Drug use
    • Caffeine use
    • History of mental illness
    • History of abuse or homelessness
    • Home situation/significant others
  12. What data is included in the nutrition assessment?
    • Current diet
    • Chewing or swallowing problems
    • Recent weight gain/loss
  13. What data is included in the spiritual health/quality of life assessment?
    • Religion
    • Beliefs
    • Advance directives/living will
  14. What data is included in the safety assessment?
    • History of falls
    • Sensory impairments
    • Use of assistive devices
  15. What data is included in the discharge information?
    • Family members in the home
    • Transportation for discharge
    • Any relevant phone numbers
    • Medical equipment needs at home
  16. What needs to be done with the client's personal items?
    Inventory them and document how each item was disposed of (left at bedside, in room closet, home with family, locked in facilities safe)
  17. Orient the client and family to the room/facility and include information on:
    • Call light operation
    • Electric bed operation
    • Telephone services/television controls
    • Overhead lighting operation
    • Smoking policy
    • Restroom locations
    • Waiting areas
    • Dining/vending services
    • Visiting policies
  18. Which of the following is the best source for client data during the admission process?
    A. The client
    B. The emergency department staff
    C. The primary care provider
    D. The family
    A. The client
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. After gathering the assessment data and performing the review of systems, which of the following actions is a priority for the nurse?
    A. Conduct a client care conference
    B. Orient the client to his room
    C. Contact the primary care provider to notify her of the completed admission
    D. Develop a plan of care
    B. Orient the client to his room
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. What is the importance of performing a thorough and accurate admission assessment?
    To obtain baseline data for comparison with future client assessments and to develop and effective nursing care plan
  21. True or false: Clients should be advised to send jewelry and money home with family members.
    True - to prevent theft and loss
  22. True or false: The primary care provider is responsible for documenting an inventory of a client's personal items
    False - the nurse is responsible as part of the admission process
  23. What are the indications for transfer and discharge?
    • Client's level of care changed
    • Another setting is required to provide necessary care for the client
    • The facility doesn't offer the type of care the client now requires
    • The client no longer needs inpatient care and is ready to return home
  24. When should discharge planning begin?
    On client admission to the facility, unless the facility is to be the client's permanent residence
  25. Assessing whether or not the client will be able to return to his previous resident, determining whether or not the client will need and/or have someone to assist him at home, assessing the residence to see if adaptations are required to accommodate the client, making referrals to the social worker to arrange for community services, and communicating client health status and needs to community service providers are all done with what planning?
    Discharge planning
  26. The standards for discharge education include
    • Identifying safety concerns for the client at home
    • Reviewing s/s of potential complications and when to contact either emergency care or the primary care provider
    • Providing the phone number of the primary care provider
    • Providing names and phone numbers of community resources
    • Step-by-step instructions for performing continuing treatments
    • Dietary restrictions and guidelines
    • Amount and frequency of therapies the client is to perform to support continued independence at home
    • Directions on how to take medications
    • Explanations for why each medication is being prescribed
  27. What equipment is needed for transferring/discharging a client?
    • The client's personal belongings
    • Medications
    • Assistive devices
    • Medical records or a transfer form
  28. Responsibilities of the nurse for transferring/discharging the client are
    • Confirmation that the receiving facility/unit is expecting the client and the room/bed is available
    • Communicate the time the client will transfer to the receiving facility/unit
    • Complete documentation
    • Give a verbal transfer report in person or via telephone
    • Confirm the mode of transportation
    • Make sure the client is dressed appropriately if going outside
    • Account for all the client's valuables
  29. Responsibilities of the nurse receiving the transferred client
    • Have any specialized equipment ready
    • If appropriate, inform the client's roommate of the admission
    • Inform other health care team members of the client's arrival and needs
    • Meet with the client and family on arrival to complete the admission process and orientation to new facility/unit
    • Assess how the client tolerates the transfer
    • Review transfer documentation
    • Implement appropriate nursing interventions in a timely manner
  30. What is included in transfer documentation?
    • Client demographic information, medical diagnosis and care providers
    • Overview of the client's health status, plan of care and recent progress
    • Any alterations that may precipitate and immediate concern
    • Notification of assessments or client care that will be needed within the next few hours
    • Most recent set of vital signs and any medications, including PRN medications
    • Allergies, diet, and activity orders
    • Advance directives and emergency code status
    • Family involvement in care and health care proxy if applicable
    • Presence of or need of special equipment
  31. Discharge summary documentation is used to close the client's record. What nursing documentation is needed at discharge?
    • Type of discharge (order by physician, AMA)
    • Actual date and time of discharge, who went with the client, and how the client was transported
    • Where the client was discharged to
    • A summary of the client's condition at discharge
    • A description of any unresolved difficulties and procedures for follow-up
    • Disposition of valuables, client's meds from home and/or prescriptions
    • A copy of the client's discharge instructions
  32. When transferring a client with a fractured radius from the ED to the orthopedic unit, which of the following information is the most important for the nurse to include in the transfer report?
    A. The client's occupation
    B. Information regarding the pain medication recently administered
    C. The name of the client's partner
    D. Where the client was when the fracture occurred
    B. Information regarding the pain medication recently administered
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Which of the following information should be included in a transfer report? (select all that apply)
    - The client is alert and oriented
    - The client does not like spinach
    - The client has an allergy to shellfish
    - The client needs morphine every 4 hr
    - The client has two cats at home
    • - The client is alert and oriented
    • - The client has an allergy to shellfish
    • - The client needs morphine every 4 hr
  34. Who is responsible for making sure all documentation is finished prior to transfer ofa client to a new health care facility/agency?
    A. Primary care provider
    B. Certified nursing assistant
    C. Nurse transferring the client
    D. Social worker who set up the transfer
    C. Nurse transferring the client
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. A client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes is being discharged home. Which of the following should be included in the client's discharge teaching? (select all that apply)
    - Proper use of a glucometer
    - Foot care
    - S/S of hyper/hypoglycemia
    - Measurement of intake and output
    - Management of sick days
    - Date of follow-up appointment
    • - Proper use of a glucometer
    • - Foot care
    • - S/S of hyper/hypoglycemia
    • - Management of sick days
    • - Date of follow-up appointment
  36. What data should be included in a client's discharge summary? (select all that apply)
    - Interventions performed by the physical therapist 2 days ago
    - Where the client needs to go for follow-up care
    - Instructions given on medication and treatments
    - Summary of the client's condition at time of discharge
    - The phone numbers of the home health agency that will be making home visits
    • - Where the client needs to go for follow-up care
    • - Instructions given on medication and treatments
    • - Summary of the client's condition at time of discharge
    • - The phone numbers of the home health agency that will be making home visits
  37. Pharmacokinetics is
    How medication travels through the body
  38. The movement of a medication from its site of administration to the bloodstream.
    Absorption
  39. Most common routes of medication administration
    • Enteral (GI tract)
    • Parenteral (injection)
  40. The transportation of a medication to its site of action by bodily fluids.
    Distribution
  41. Distribution of medication in the body may be influenced by
    • Circulation to site of action
    • Number of plasma protein binding sites
    • Barriers (blood-brain)
  42. What changes a medication into a less active form or an inactive form by the action of enzymes?
    Metabolism (biotransformation)
  43. Where does metabolism of medication occur in the body?
    • Primarily the liver
    • Also in kidneys, lungs, bowel and blood
  44. Elimination of a medication from the body primarily through the kidneys
    Excretion
  45. Where does excretion of medication take place in the body?
    • Primarily the kidneys
    • Also the liver, lungs, bowel and exocrine glands
  46. Describes the interactions between medications and target cells, body systems, and organ to produce pharmacological effects.
    Pharmacodynamics
  47. These interactions result in the functional changes that are considered the mechanism of action of the medication.
    Pharmacodynamics
  48. Medication category and classification of medications administered under the supervision of primary care providers. These medications may be habit forming, have potential harmful effects, and require supervision.
    Prescription medications
  49. Prescription medications that require monitoring by a primary care provider, but do not pose risk of abuse and/or addiction (antibiotics, NSAIDs, insulin)
    Uncontrolled substances
  50. Prescription medications that have a potential for abuse and dependence
    Controlled substances
  51. What prescription medications are categorized into schedules?
    Controlled substances
  52. True or false: medications categorized in Schedules II through V all have approved applications
    True
  53. What schedule is Heroin?
    Schedule I
  54. Each level of medication schedules has an increasing or decreasing risk of abuse and dependence?
    Decreasing
  55. Examples of controlled substances
    • Codeine
    • Phenobarbital
    • Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
  56. The FDA pregnancy risk category categorizes medications in terms of
    Their potential harm during pregnancy
  57. Category A of the FDA pregnancy category is
    The safest
  58. Category X of the FDA pregnancy category is
    The most dangerous
  59. The process by which congenital malformations are produced in an embryo or fetus (due to medications)
    Teratogenesis - most likely to occur in the first trimester
  60. For this route of administration of medication the client should be sitting
    Oral or enteral (tablets, capsules, liquids, suspensions, and elixirs)
  61. Contraindications for this type of medication administration include vomiting, absence of gag reflex, difficulty swallowing, and decreased LOC
    Oral or enteral
  62. True or false: Mix oral medications with large amounts of food or beverages
    False
  63. True or false: Enteric-coated or time-release medications must be swallowed whole
  64. Avoid administration of oral medications with contraindicated foods or beverages such as ________
    Grapefruit
  65. Administer irritating oral medications with _______ amounts of food
    Small
  66. True or false: In general, oral medications should be administered on an empty stomach
    True
  67. Administer oral medications ____ hr(s) before meals and ____ hr(s) after meals
    1; 2
  68. What medications are given under the tongue or between the cheek and gum?
    Sublingual and buccal
  69. For what type of medication do you instruct the client to keep in place until absorbed?
    Sublingual and buccal
  70. True or false: The client may eat or drink while a sublingual or buccal tablet is in place
    False
  71. Determine whether shaking or dilution is required of what type of medications?
    Liquids, suspensions and elixirs
  72. When measuring doses for liquids, suspensions and elixirs, measure from where?
    The meniscus (lowest fluid line)
  73. A medication stored in a skin patch and absorbed through the skin producing systemic effects uses what route of administration?
    Transdermal
  74. To prevent over or underdosing of transdermal patches what should be done?
    Do not cut the patches
  75. Where should the client place a transdermal patch?
    Hairless area of skin
  76. Should the client rotate sites? If so, why?
    Yes to prevent skin irritation
  77. Prior to applying a new transdermal patch, what should be done to the area of application?
    Wash skin with soap and water and dry thoroughly
  78. How are topical medications applied?
    With a glove, tongue blade, or cotton-tipped applicator
  79. Can topical medications be applied with a bare hand?
    No
  80. Instillations (drops, ointments and sprays) are generally used for?
    • Eyes
    • Ears
    • Nose
  81. When instilling medications in the eyes use a ______ aseptic technique.
    Surgical
  82. When instilling medications in the ears and nose use a ______ aseptic technique.
    Medical
  83. What position should the client be in while receiving instillation of medication in the eyes?
    • Sitting or supine with head tilted slightly back
    • Have the client look up at the ceiling
  84. How high above the conjunctival sac should the dropper be held when administering drops?
    Approximately 1 to 2 cm
  85. Where in the conjunctival sac should drops be administered?
    Center
  86. True of false: The client should close their eye gently after drops have been instilled
    True
  87. To prevent systemic absorption of eye medication, what should be done?
    Apply gentle pressure with the finger and a clean tissue on the nasolacrimal duct for 30-60 seconds
  88. In what position should the client be in to receive ear drops?
    Sitting up or in a side lying position with the ear receiving the medication facing up
  89. True or false: Pull the auricle upward and outward for adults
    True
  90. What direction do you pull the auricle when administering ear drops in children?
    Down and back
  91. After instilling medication in the ear, what should the nurse do?
    Apply gentle pressure with the finger to the tragus of the ear
  92. What position should the client be in when receiving nasal medications?
    Supine with head positioned to allow the medication to enter the appropriate nasal passage
  93. After administering a nasal medication, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?
    Breathe through the mouth, stay in a supine position and not blow his nose for 5 minutes after drop insertion
  94. Medications usually administered through metered dose inhalers (MDI) or dry powder inhalers (DPI)
    Inhalation
  95. For MDI and DPI inhalers, the client should ______ and then ______ the medication deeply through the mouth for __ to ___ seconds and then hold the breath for __ to __ seconds.
    exhale; inhale; 3 to 5; 5 to 10
  96. How long should the client wait between puffs if taking two puffs of the same medication for inhalers?
    1 minute
  97. How many times should MID medication be shaken prior to use?
    5 to 6
  98. Where should the MDI be placed when administering the medication?
    Either between the lips or 2 to 4 cm in front of the mouth
  99. What does a spacer do for an MDI?
    Keeps the medication in the device longer, facilitating delivery of the medication to the lungs and decreasing the amount of the medication deposited into the oropharynx
  100. True or false: DPI medications need to be shaken before use
    False
  101. Where should the DPI be placed when administering the medication?
    Between the lips
  102. When giving medications through nasogastric or gastrostomy tubes, what type of syringe should be used?
    A syringe without a plunger or bulb
  103. How should medication flow into a nasogastric or gastrostomy tube?
    By gravity
  104. What form does the medication have to be in for nasogastric or gastrostomy tubes?
    Liquid
  105. Before mixing medications what needs to be done?
    Check for compatibility
  106. True or false: Medications can be mixed with enteral feedings
    False
  107. What should be done to prevent clogging of nasogastric or gastrostomy tubes?
    Flush the tubing before and after each medication with 5 to 10 mL of water
  108. For which medication administration should the nurse wear gloves?
    A. NG tubes
    B. Oral
    C. Suppositories
    D. Inhalation
    Suppositories
  109. Before inserting a suppository, the nurse should?
    Remove the foil wrapper and apply lubricant (if necessary)
  110. What position should the client be in for rectal suppositories?
    Left lateral
  111. How long should the client retain the suppository for defecation?
    20 to 30 minutes
  112. How long should the client retain the suppository for systemic absorption of medication?
    60 minutes
  113. What position should the client be in for vaginal suppositories?
    Knees bent, feet flat on the bed and close to the hips (modified lithotomy position)
  114. True or false: Vaginal suppositories are generally inserted with an applicator
    True
  115. What site is used in infants and children < 2 years of age for parenteral medication administration?
    Vastus lateralis
  116. After age 2, what sites can be used for parenteral medication administration?
    Ventral gluteal or vastus lateralis
  117. How much fluid can be injected into the ventral gluteal and vastus lateralis sites?
    up to 2 mL
  118. How much fluid can be injected into the deltoid site?
    up to 1 mL
  119. The gauge of the needle is/is not the size of the diameter of the needle
    Is
  120. The ______ the gauge, the ______ the diameter of the needle
    Larger, smaller
  121. What amount of solution volume should be used for a tuberculin syringe?
    < 0.5 mL
  122. What benefits do rotating injection sites provide?
    Enhanced medication absorption and less tissue trauma
  123. For insulin injections, what should the site be washed with?
    Soap and water
  124. For all injections, besides insulin, what should the site be washed with?
    Alcohol
  125. What types of injection sites should be avoided?
    Edematous, inflamed, moles, birthmarks or scars
  126. What type of injection is used for TB testing or checking for medication/allergy sensitivities and some cancer immunotherapy?
    Intradermal
  127. What amount of solution and why gauge needle should be used for intradermal injections?
    0.01 to 0.1 mL and 26-27 gauge
  128. What are the best sites and technique for administering intradermal injections?
    Lightly pigmented, thin-skinned, hairless sites (anterior mid-forearm or scapular area of back); inject at a 10 to 15 degree angle
  129. What type of injection is appropriate for small doses of nonirritating, water-soluble medications and is commonly used for insulin and heparin?
    Subcutaneous
  130. What length and gauge needle should be used for subcutaneous injections?
    • 3/8 to 5/8 inch length and 25 to 27 gauge
    • Insulin syringes can be 26 to 29 gauge
  131. How much solution can be injected with a subcutaneous injection?
    No more than 1.5 mL
  132. How are sites selected for subcutaneous injections?
    • Based on fat-pad size
    • - Abdomen
    • - Upper hips
    • - Lateral upper arms
    • - Thighs
  133. What angle should a 3/8 inch, 25-gauge needle be inserted at?
    45 degrees
  134. What angle should a 1/2 inch, 25-gauge needle be inserted at?
    90 degrees
  135. What type of injection is used for irritating medications, solutions in oils and aqueous suspensions?
    Intramuscular
  136. For what type of injection do you use a needle that is 18 to 27 gauge and 1 to 1 and 1/2 inches long?
    • Intramuscular
    • (Usually 20 to 25 gauge)
  137. What volume is injected with intramuscular injections?
    • 1 to 3 mL
    • If a greater amount is required, it should be divided into two syringes and in two different sites
  138. What are the most common sites for intramuscular injections?
    • Ventrogluteal
    • Dorsogluteal
    • Deltoid
    • Vastus lateralis (pediatric)
  139. According to ATI, do you aspirate prior to medication injection for intramuscular injections?
    Yes
  140. What do you do if there is blood on aspiration while giving an intramuscular injection?
    Discard the needle and syringe and prepare new medication
  141. What technique is commonly used for intramuscular medication injections and why?
    Z-track; to prevent medication from leaking back into subcutaneous tissue
  142. What type of injection is used for administration of medications, fluid and blood products?
    Intravenous
  143. Are catheters used for short-term or long-term use for IV administration?
    Short-term
  144. Are infusion ports used for short-term or long-term use for IV administration?
    Long-term
  145. What gauge IV is used for trauma clients?
    16
  146. What gauge IV is used for surgical clients?
    18
  147. What gauge IV is used for children, older adults, medical clients and stable postoperative clients?
    22 to 24
  148. What are the preferred sites for IV insertion?
    Peripheral veins in the arm or hand
  149. In newborns, what veins may be used for IV insertion?
    Veins of the head, lower legs and feet
  150. What type of injection is used for administration of intravenous opiod analgesia?
    Epidural
  151. What equipment is necessary for epidural injections?
    Infusion pump
  152. For what type of injection is the catheter advanced through the needle that is inserted into the ______ space at the level of the fourth or fifth vertebrae?
    Epidural
  153. What are the advantages of oral medication administration?
    • Safe
    • Inexpensive
    • Easy
    • Convenient
  154. What are the disadvantages of oral medication administration?
    • Highly variable absorption
    • Inactivation can occur by GI tract or first-pass effect
    • Client must be cooperative and conscious
    • Contraindications include nausea and vomiting
  155. What are the advantages of IM and Sub-Q medication administration?
    • Use for poorly-soluble medications
    • Appropriate for preparing medications that are absorbed slowly for an extended period of time
  156. What are the disadvantages of IM and Sub-Q medication administration?
    • IM injections are associated with a higher cost
    • IM injections are inconvenient
    • Pain with risk of local tissue damage and nerve damage
    • Risk for infection at injection site
  157. What are the advantages of IV medication administration?
    • Rapid onset and immediate absorption into the blood
    • Allows control over the precise amount of medication given
    • Allows for administration of large volumes of fluid
    • Irritating medications can be given with free-flowing IV
  158. What are the disadvantages of IV medication administration?
    • Associated with high cost
    • Inconvenient
    • Potentially dangerous if wrong amount or wrong medication is given because of rapid absorption rate
    • Increased risk for infection or embolism
  159. True or false: Capsules containing powder can be broken apart and powdered medication dissolved according to manufacturer's instructions
    True
  160. True of false: Time release capsules may be crushed or diluted
    False
  161. True or false: Enteric-coated (hard shell) tablets must not be crushed because of the potential for irritation to gastric mucosa
    True
  162. A glass container holding medication in a solution
    Ampule
  163. What does preparation of medications from ampules require?
    • Syringe
    • Filter needle for withdrawing medication into the syringe
    • Needle for injection into the client
  164. Why should the ampule be rotated when preparing the medication?
    To place all liquid in the bottom of the container
  165. How should you break the glass top of an ampule?
    By holding the top with a 2 in by 2 in gauze pad and quickly snapping the glass away from the body
  166. A single or multiple-dose closed system glass container
    Vial
  167. What form can medication be in in a vial?
    • Liquid
    • Powder
  168. What should be done before inserting a needle into a vial?
    Wipe top with alcohol
  169. How much air should be drawn into a syringe for withdrawal from a vial?
    Equal amount to the amount of solution to be withdrawn
  170. What are the steps for mixing injectable medications from two vials?
    • Draw air into a syringe equal to the amount of solution to be drawn from the second vial
    • Inject the air into the second vial
    • Withdraw the needle
    • Draw air into the syringe equal to the amount of solution to be drawn from the first vial
    • Inject the air into the first vial, invert vial and withdraw the desired amount of solution
    • Remove the needle from the vial
    • Insert needle into second vial, invert vial and withdraw the desired amount of solution, then remove needle from vial
  171. What aseptic technique is used when administering epidural medication and providing other care of epidural catheter?
    Surgical
  172. What should be monitored when giving an epidural infusion?
    • Vital signs and pulse oximetry
    • Discontinue infusion if respirations are less than 12/min and notify PCP
    • I&O
    • Urinary and bowel function - notify PCP if urinary retention and/or constipation occur
    • Pruritus and treat with benadryl
    • Nausea and vomiting and treat with antiemetic
  173. A nurse is preparing insulin from two different vials. Which of the following actions indicates that she understands correct medication preparation?
    A. The nurse wipes the needle with alcohol prior to injecting into the vial
    B. The nurse discards medication if medications are mixed during preparation
    C. The nurse injects fluid from one vial into the other regardless of the medication
    D. The nurse inserts air into the first vial, but not the second on
    B. The nurse discards medication if medications are mixed during preparation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  174. An older adult client has had a CVA and is prescribed a MDI. Which nursing consideration is a priority when teaching the client how to take the medication?
    A. Coordination and cognition of client
    B. Dosage and amount of medication
    C. Schedule of administration
    D. The purpose and goal of medication regimen
    A. Coordination and cognition of client
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  175. Identify the correct client position for each of the following routes of administration:
    1. Oral
    2. Otic
    3. Vaginal
    4. Rectal

    A. Lying on the left side with right knee brought up toward the chest (Sims' position)
    B. Sitting, semi-Fowler's or Fowler's position
    C. Supine with knees bent, feet flat on the bed and close to the hips
    D. Client lying on side with the ear that is receiving the drops facing up
    • 1-B
    • 2-D
    • 3-C
    • 4-A
  176. Proper administration of eye drops includes which of the following nursing interventions? (select all that apply)
    - Using medical aseptic technique
    - Asking the client to look up at the ceiling
    - Having the client lie in a side-lying position
    - Dropping medication into the center of the client's conjunctival sac
    - Instructing the client to close the eye gently
    • Asking the client to look up at the ceiling
    • Dropping medication into the center of the client's conjunctival sac
    • Instructing the client to close the eye gently
  177. Identify the correct equipment needed for each of the following types of injections.
    1. Intradermal
    2. Subcutaneous
    3. Intramuscular
    4. Intravenous

    A. 16-24 gauge catheters appropriate for most adults
    B. A tuberculin syringe with a fine-gauge needle (26-27)
    C. A short, fine-gauge needle (3/8-5/8 inch, 25-27 gauge)
    D. Needle size 18 to 27 (1 to 1 and 1/2 inch, 22 to 25 gauge)
    • 1-B
    • 2-C
    • 3-D
    • 4-A

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