JNC Exchange

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Author:
robert.r.robinson
ID:
79180
Filename:
JNC Exchange
Updated:
2011-04-14 15:29:36
Tags:
Exchange JNC Netcore
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Description:
Exchange Server 2003
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  1. This service works as a facilitator to allow Outlook clients to access information within Active Directory.
    DSProxy
    DSAccess
    DSProxy
  2. This service implements a directory access cache that stores recently accessed information.
    DSProxy
    DSAccess
    DSAccess
  3. Which version of Exchange Server can be supported by NT 4.0 Server?
    Exchange Server 5.5
    Exchange Server 2003
    Exchange Server 5.5
  4. Which version of Exchange Server is supported by Windows 2000 SP3 or 2003?
    Exchange Server 5.5
    Exchange Server 2003
    Exchange Server 2003
  5. What are the minimum requirements for Exchange 2003?
    • Windows 2k Server SP3
    • 256 MB memory
    • NTFS
  6. In order to run ForestPrep for the first time, what admin groups must you be a member of?
    • Schema Admins
    • Enterprise Admins
  7. In order to run DomainPrep, what group must you be a member of?
    Domain Admins in the target domain.
  8. What services are required by Exchange Server 2003?
    • .NET Framework
    • ASP.NET
    • WWW
    • SMTP
    • NNTP
  9. What are the requirements to remove an Exchange Server using the Exchange Installation Wizard?
    • Move or Remove all Mailboxes
    • Must not be a Bridgehead or Routing Group Master
    • Have no Connection agreements
    • Have no Connectors Installed or in use
    • Hold no Special Roles
  10. If you have to Forcibly Remove an Exchange Server, using the Management Console, where in the registry do you go to delete the required keys?
    HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
  11. What does the Microsoft Exchange Event service do?
    Allows for Exchange 5.5 compatibility
  12. What does the Microsoft Exchange Information Store service do?
    Manages Mailbox and Public folder Stores.
  13. Define a Service Dependency
    A service that is reliant on another to operate. Exa: the Information Store service is dependent on the System Attendant service.
  14. This Exchange Administrator Role can manage anything in the Organization, and Includes Permissions.
    Exchange Full Administrator
    Exchange Administrator
    Exchange View Only Administrator
    Exchange Full Administrator
  15. This Exchange Admin Role can manage anything in the Organization but does NOT include Permissions.
    Exchange Full Administrator
    Exchange Administrator
    Exchange View Only Administrator
    Exchange Administrator
  16. What would a logical groupings of servers to ease administration be known as?
    Administrative Group
    Routing Group
    Administrative Group
  17. What is the most common Administrative Model, often used by small to medium businesses with few IT's?
    Centralized
    Decentralized
    Centralized
  18. What Administrative Model is often used by Larger businesses with many IT's?
    Centralized
    Decentralized
    Decentralized
  19. Which type of group directly reflects the Physical Layout of the network?
    Administrative Group
    Routing Group
    Routing Group
  20. Which type of Routing Group Connector is used over the Internet?
    SMTP
    X.400
    SMTP
  21. Which type of Routing Group Connector is used for non-Microsoft messaging systems, or over a WAN link?
    SMTP
    X.400
    X.400
  22. How many Routing Group Connectors do you need for four Routing Groups? Use the equation N(N-1), where N is the number of groups.
    12
  23. Which Mode of Exchange Server 2003 is used compatible with Exchange Server 5.5, but NOT 2000?
    Mixed Mode
    Native Mode
    Mixed Mode
  24. What advantages does Native Mode provide?
    • Greater flexability
    • The ability to move mailboxes and servers
    • Query-based Distribution Groups (QDG)
    • 8BITMIME Data transfers
    • Less traffic over a WAN
  25. What are the four types of Recipient Objects?
    • User
    • Contact
    • Group
    • Public folder
  26. This type of User Recipient has a Domain account AND a Mailbox.
    Mailbox-enabled
    Mail-enabled
    Contact
    Group
    Public Folder
    Mailbox-enabled
  27. This type of User Recipient has a domain login but does NOT have a Mailbox.
    Mailbox-enabled
    Mail-enabled
    Contact
    Group
    Public Folder
    Mail-enabled
  28. This type of Recipient has a Mailbox, but does NOT have a domain login.
    Mailbox-enabled
    Mail-enabled
    Contact
    Group
    Public Folder
    Contact Recipient
  29. This type of Recipient receives all messages sent to everyone in a group.
    Mailbox-enabled
    Mail-enabled
    Contact
    Group
    Public Folder
    Group Recipients
  30. This type of Recipient has access to a shared folder through Outlook.
    Mailbox-enabled
    Mail-enabled
    Contact
    Group
    Public Folder
    Public Folder Recipient
  31. After creating a mailbox, what must you do to initiate it so that it becomes visible?
    Send an email to it.
  32. What tool do you use to delete a mailbox?
    Exchange System Manager - Exchange Task Wizard
  33. By default, how long will a deleted mailbox be Retained?
    30 Days
  34. This type or Retention allows an administrator to recover a single item inside a mailbox.
    Deleted Mailbox Retention
    Deleted Item Retention
    Deleted Item Retention
  35. Where would you create a secondary email address, or alias, for a newly married female employee?
    ADUC, under the E-Mail Address tab
  36. What are the advantages of hiding a mailbox, rather than deleting it?
    Hiding it removes it from the GAL, but keeps the email.
  37. You should never Mail-enable this type of Active Directory Group.
    Domain Local
    Global
    Universal
    Domain Local Group
  38. This type of Active Directory Group is typically Mail-enabled for a Single Domain.
    Domain Local
    Global
    Universal
    Global Group
  39. This type of Active Directory Group is typically Mail-enabled for MULTIPLE Domains
    Domain Local
    Global
    Universal
    Universal Group
  40. This type of distribution group changes dynamically and is only supported in Native Mode.
    • QDG
    • Query-based Distribution Group
  41. What are the two ways to limit access to a mail-enabled group?
    • Hide the group
    • Restrict the acess to users
  42. Which Edition of Exchange Server 2003 supports up to four storage groups, one recovery storage group, and five mailbox or public folder stores?
    Standard Edition
    Enterprise Edition
    Enterprise Edition
  43. True/False. Circular Logging, which allows for data recovery up to the point of failure is enabled by default.
    False
  44. How many Global Address Lists exist by default in Exchange Server 2003?
    1
  45. What function in the GAL can you use to filter out users for a smaller location?
    Configure an Address List.
  46. This function provides a quick and effective method of defining different email addresses for different users in an organization.
    Recipient Policies
  47. What is the public folder created at the root of the public folder tree called?
    Top-level folder
  48. What are some of the benefits to using public folders?
    • Messages are stored in Active Directory
    • Internal/external Collaberation
    • Newsgroups
    • URL access through a web browser
    • Full-text searches
    • Users can access any public folder they have permissions to.
    • Create Calendars
  49. What program(s) can be used to create public folders in the general-purpose folder tree?
    Exchange System Manager
    Outlook or OWA
    Exchange System Manager
  50. What program(s) can be used to create public folders in the default public folder tree?
    Exchange System Manager
    Outlook or OWA
    Outlook or OWA
  51. What are the five default Mail And Post item types for a new public folder?
    • Calendar
    • Contact
    • Journal
    • Note
    • Task
  52. True/False. The Setup program automatically creates the default public folder tree.
    True
  53. True/False. The default public folder tree makes public folders available to users outside of your Organization.
    False. The general purpose folder tree makes public folders available to users outside of your organization.
  54. Outlook and OWA clients (MAPI clients) are supported by which type of public folder tree?
    General-purpose
    Default
    Default
  55. Outlook Express and other HTTP clients are are supported by which type of public folder tree?
    General-purpose
    Default
    General-purpose
  56. What are the four additional tabs listed in the Properties box of a mail-enabled folder?
    • E-Mail Address
    • Exchange General
    • Exchange Advanced
    • Member Of
  57. True/False. Adding a public folder to a security group will allow it to access additional resources granted to that security group.
    False. You can not log on as a folder.
  58. What setting do you set in the Properties box of a public folder to prevent the folder from growing to large?
    Storage Limits
  59. The age limit determines the amount of time an item is retained prior to being deleted. What is the default?
    Disabled
  60. What are the two methods of moving public folders within a tree?
    • Drag/Drop
    • Copy/Paste
  61. How do you move a public folder to another tree?
    Perform a backup, and restore the data to a newly created public folder in the new tree.
  62. What would be the most cost effective and efficient method of allowing employees in a remote site, over a slow or unreliable WAN, to access a public folder?
    Create a Replica public folder on the remote server, then schedule public folder Replication.
  63. This type of replication ensures that public folders are syncronized by using the change numbers assigned by the information store.
    Backfill Replication
  64. Define loose convergence.
    The time between replication where the public folders and replicas may not have the same information.
  65. True/False. You can manually initiate replication on a public folder using the Exchange System Manager.
    True
  66. True/False. The first public folder is the master for any replicas created.
    False. Exchange Server 2003 uses the Multimaster Replication Model.
  67. When a folder store does not contain a copy of the content a user requests, Exchange Server 2003 automatically redirects the user to a server that holds the information. What is this process called?
    A Refferal.
  68. When assigning a cost value to a server for referrals, is the lower or higher cost processed first?
    Lowest Cost
  69. True/False. By default, any changes to the permissions of a public folder after it is created are not inherited to the child folders.
    True. You can choose to later apply those settings through the ACE in the ACL.
  70. What are the three catagories of folder permissions used in Exchange Server 2003?
    • Client permissions
    • Directory Rights
    • Administrative Rights
  71. Which of the three catagories of folder permissions used in Exchange Server 2003 allow you to control the permissions of the users accessing the public folder?
    Client permissions
    Directory Rights
    Administrative Rights
    Client Permissions
  72. Which of the three catagories of folder permissions used in Exchange Server 2003 allow you to manipulate the mail-enabled public folder object in Active Directory?
    Client permissions
    Directory Rights
    Administrative Rights
    Directory Rights
  73. Which of the three catagories of folder permissions used in Exchange Server 2003 allow you to Assign administrative permissions, but are not inherited by default?
    Client permissions
    Directory Rights
    Administrative Rights
    Administrative Rights
  74. Which program gives you more detailed control of public folder configuration, but requires more administrative effort?
    Outlook
    Exchange System Manager
    Exchange System Manager
  75. True/False. A users permissions to a public folder override a groups permissions to a public folder.
    True.
  76. What would happen to a user that has full permission to a public folder from group membership, but did not have the Folder Visible permission on his user?
    They would not be able to see the folder, therefore would be unable to read/modify it at all.
  77. This type of folder requires that a user be setup to receive and approve all items posted or sent to a public folder.
    Moderated Folder
  78. True/False. You can use role-based permissions to configure a folder as moderated.
    False. There is no Moderator Role.
  79. Which tab under the Properties Box of a public folder is used to make it a moderated folder?
    Administration.
  80. With reguards to virtual servers, what are the five resource protocols, and which two are turned on by default?
    • SMTP - ON
    • HTTP - ON
    • NNTP - OFF
    • IMAP4 - OFF
    • POP3 - OFF
  81. What are the four minimum requirements for an Exchange virtual server?
    • Static IP Address
    • A Network Name
    • A physical disk for shared stores.
    • The System Attendant Service
  82. This service, or component of Exchange Server 2003, controls the creation and deletion of all resources for the virtual server.
    System Attendant.
  83. True/False. The Windows Server POP3 service must be removed prior to installing Exchange Server 2003.
    True.
  84. This internet messaging protocol allows a client to download mail from the mail server.
    POP3
  85. This internet messaging protocol allows clients to manage their mail on the server, without downloading it, and allow them to access public and private folders on that server.
    IMAP4
  86. What are the three additional functions provided by HTTP and WebDAV virtual servers?
    • Document Access
    • Email Access
    • Application Access
  87. True/False. Installing Exchange Server 2003 does NOT automatically install, configure or enable SMTP services.
    False.
  88. When creating an NNTP virtual server, why should you specify that the two directories (internal files and newsgroups) be placed on different partitions of the disk?
    To reduce corruption if the disk runs out of space.
  89. On a POP3 virtual server, in the Only List Below tab, what are the three ways to limit access to the server?
    • By Static IP
    • By Subnet Mask
    • By Domain
  90. This is the most common type of authentication. It is supported by all clients, but provides limited access to unsecure content.
    Anonymous
    Basic
    Windows Integrated
    Anonymous Authentication
  91. This type of authentication uses Challenge and Response, but sends the username and password in clear text with no encryption.
    Anonymous
    Basic
    Windows Integrated
    Basic Authentication
  92. This type of authentication is designed for clients that do not use encryption, and instead uses Kerberos, and also sends the username and password encrypted.
    Anonymous
    Basic
    Windows Integrated
    Integrated Windows Authentication
  93. Encryption can only be used on a virtual server after a certificate is obtained, and what type of authentication is set?
    Anonymous
    Basic
    Windows Integrated
    Basic Authentication.
  94. Typically, encryption is configured on which type of servers?
    Front-end
    Back-end
    Front-end Servers.
  95. The SASL Authentication Method is supported on which two protocols?
    • POP3
    • IMAP4
  96. Which protocol supports the .NET Password Authentication Method?
    HTTP
  97. Which two protocols are forced to use the Basic Authentication Method when set on front-end servers?
    • POP3
    • IMAP4
  98. In the Exchange System Manager, what are the three icons that can be displayed next to virtual servers, and what do they mean?
    • Red Circle, White X - Stopped
    • Two Black Bars - Paused
    • Open Mailbox - Running
  99. What are the four levels of diagnostic logging, and when are they used?
    • None - Default
    • Minimum - Locate the problem, only log Major events.
    • Medium - Provides more detail once the problem is found.
    • Maximum - Provides a complete trail. Only used during Debugging.
  100. True/False. Diagnostic Logging can solve connectivity problems.
    False. Diagnostic Logging is used to gather information only.
  101. ESMTP or Extended SMTP, provides what additional functionality?
    Encryption and Host Authentication
  102. SMTP sends a "helo" command to initiate a session, what command does ESMTP send?
    Ehlo
  103. What is the purpose of the SMTP Queue Folder?
    Stores messages waiting to be delivered.
  104. What is the SMTP Badmail folder used for?
    Stored undeliverable messages.
  105. When using numerous MX records in DNS, which connection is used first, the lower preference number, or the higher?
    The Lower Preference number is always used first, similar to the Cost value, the lower number wins.
  106. True/False. Since Exchange Server 2003 can connect to the internet by default, you are NOT required to configure the SMTP connector before email will function.
    True. The default SMTP virtual server will automatically manage connections.
  107. What are the two benefits to using a Smart Host?
    • It provides an entry/exit point for all Internet Messages.
    • It provides a non-persistent connection solution.
  108. If two servers are configured to use each other as a Smart Host, what condition will occur?
    A Mail Relay Loop
  109. Why does Microsoft recommend that you configure Smart Hosts on your connectors?
    Because connectors handle mail on a per-domain basis.
  110. What are two ways to manage incomming SMTP connections on a connector?
    • Limit Number of Connections to: Minimum is one
    • Connection Time-Out (Minutes): Default is ten
  111. If a server has been issued an X.509 SSL certificate from a trusted Certificate Authority (CA), what function can it now perform?
    TLS Encryption
  112. What type of DNS lookup can be used to prevent IP spoofing, but takes longer to do?
    Reverse DNS Lookup
  113. What does the acronym NDR stand for?
    Non-Delivery Report
  114. Which alias account is used by a member, or members of your organization to process NDR's?
    The Postmaster Account
  115. What Tab under a users Property Box is used to override the server defaults for a user using an IMAP4 client, so that they can receive plain-text messages.
    Exchange Features Tab
  116. What can be used to prevent unauthorized users from accessing private networks connected to other networks?
    A Firewall
  117. The strongest firewall protection needs to be located on which server?
    Front-end
    Back-end
    Back-End Servers.
  118. Port 25
    SMTP
  119. Port 80
    HTTP
  120. Port 110
    POP3
  121. Port 119
    NNTP
  122. Port 143
    IMAP4
  123. HTTPS
    443
  124. User Activated, Replicates.
    Virus, Worm, Trojan Horse?
    Virus
  125. No User Intervention, Replicates.
    Virus, Worm, Trojan Horse?
    Worm
  126. Poses as another program, does NOT replicate.
    Virus, Worm, Trojan Horse?
    Trojan Horse
  127. Where are the three places you should install Anti-Virus Software?
    • Client-Side
    • Server-Side
    • Firewall
  128. What command line tool could you possibly use to extract an infected email from a mailbox?
    Exmerge.exe
  129. This Security Utility checks for missing patches, weak passwords and vulnerabilities on the server.
    MBSA
    SMS
    • MBSA
    • Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer
  130. This Security Utility automates the distrobution and installation of security fixes.
    MBSA
    SMS
    • SMS
    • Microsoft Systems Management Server
  131. With reguards to Securing Mailboxes, what is the purpose of message filtering?
    Eliminate Junk Mail and Spam without restricting legitimate email.
  132. What is the purpose of a Blackhole List, or Relay Block List (RBL)?
    Allows you to block selected IP addresses or Domains.
  133. What does the acronym SCL stand for?
    Spam Confidence Level
  134. What is the range of the SCL values?
    1-10
  135. Email with a confidence level of 4 or below are placed in which folder?
    Junk
  136. Whas is a Digital Signature Certificate used for?
    To authenticate the sender.
  137. What is an Encryption Certificate used for?
    Encrypt messages.
  138. When you Digitally Sign an email, what keys are used?
    • Senders Private
    • Senders Public
  139. When you encrypt an email, what keys are used?
    • Recipients Public
    • Recipients Private
  140. What does the acronym CRL stand for?
    Certificate Revocation List
  141. What does a Certificate Authority (CA) do?
    Issues and manages certificates.
  142. Administrative Groups can contain what four types of objects?
    • System Policy Objects
    • Routing Group Objects
    • Public Folder Tree Objects
    • Server Objects
  143. What services must be installed before you can install Exchange Server 2003?
    • NNTP
    • SMTP
    • World Wide Web Publishing Service
    • IIS Admin Service
  144. What is the default log file format for SMTP?
    • W3C Extended Log File Format
    • World Wide Web Consortium Extended Log File Format
  145. Exchange Server 2003 uses what file type to store messages?
    Database Files
    Transaction Log files
    • Database files
    • .edb and .stm
  146. Exchange Server 2003 uses what file type to store transactions?
    Database Files
    Transaction Log files
    • Transaction log files
    • .log
  147. What happens when a transaction log reaches 5 MB?
    A new transaction log is created.
  148. Explain how each type of file is stored by Exchange Server 2003:
    Database files.
    Transaction log files.
    • Database files are stored randomly.
    • Transaction logs are stored sequentially.
  149. A roll-forward is known as what type of recovery?
    Soft Recovery
    Hard Recovery
    Soft Recovery
  150. True/False. After conducting a Hard Recovery, if Exchange determines that additional log files are available, it will automatically conduct a Soft Recovery.
    True.
  151. What does the acronym ACID stand for?
    • Atomicity
    • Consistency
    • Isolation
    • Durability
  152. Transactions that have not been written to the transaction logs yet, are said to have what type of properties?
    ACID properties.
  153. This file type is used to mark which transactions have been committed to the database files.
    • Checkpoint files
    • E00.chk
  154. This file type contains data waiting to be written to the database.
    • Current transaction log
    • E00.log
  155. This database file type uses a rich-text format.
    Mailbox.edb
  156. This database file type uses a streaming format.
    Mailbox.stm
  157. These two transaction logs allow Exchange Server 2003 to shut down normally rather than crash.
    • Res1.log
    • Res2.log
  158. This transaction log stores data temporarily during a rename of the E00.log file.
    E00tmp.log
  159. By enabling this function, an administrator can save disk space by reusing the same set of log files, overwriting older transactions with newer ones.
    Circular logging
  160. This type of logging can be used as a short-term work around to low disk space issues, or as a long term solution for files that have low importance.
    Circular logging.
  161. This type of RAID configuration requires a minimum two disks, alligned in a striped disk array, and is NOT Fault Tolerant.
    RAID-0 Striping
  162. This type of RAID configuration requires a minimum of two disks, where identical data is written to both simultaneously. It is normally used on the primary system disk.
    RAID-1 Mirroring
  163. This type of RAID configuration requires a minimum of four disks and combines both Mirroring and Striping.
    RAID-0+1 Mirrored Stripe
  164. This type of RAID configuration requires a minimum of three disks, and is capable of regenerating lost data.
    RAID-5
  165. Which type of RAID configuration could be easily overlooked after a disk failure?
    RAID-5
  166. Which type of RAID configuration supports Hot-Swapping?
    RAID-0+1
  167. This type of storage solution, also known as direct-attached storage, is connected physically to the Server, and is used primarily by small businesses.
    ESA
    NAS
    SAN
    • External Storage Array
    • ESA
  168. This type of storage solution, is IP based and NOT recommended by Microsoft, due to product incompatabilities.
    ESA
    NAS
    SAN
    • Network Attached Storage
    • NAS
  169. This type of storage solution uses fiber switching technology which optimizes server performance and reliability, is recommended by Microsoft for use by large businesses.
    ESA
    NAS
    SAN
    • Storage Area Network
    • SAN
  170. This type of data does not change often, and as a result, does not need to be backed up often. Examples are Operating Systems and Applications.
    Static Data
    Dynamic Data
    Static Data
  171. This type of data changes frequently, and needs to be backed up on a regular basis. Examples are Databases, Logs, and Certificates.
    Static Data
    Dynamic Data
    Dynamic Data
  172. This type of backup, also known as a Normal backup, copies all database and transaction log files, and deletes transaction logs that have been written to the database.
    Full Backup
  173. This type of backup is normally performed once a week, with daily backups that only back up files that have changed since the last Full or Incremental backup. It is NOT available if circular logging is enabled.
    Full Plus Incremental
  174. This type of backup is normally performed once a week, with daily backups that back up all files that have changed since the last Full backup whether they have been backed up or not. It is NOT available if circular logging is enabled.
    Full Plus Differential
  175. This type of backup is normally used to create an archive of data for off-site storage.
    Copy Backup
  176. In order to ensure that all files on the network are saved during an online backup, what service would you need to enable on the drives?
    • Volume Shadow Copy service
    • VSS
  177. This program identifies deleted mailboxes and marks them with a red X. It runs every night as normal maintenance.
    Mailbox Cleanup Agent
  178. This program can be used to re-establish a connection between a user and a mailbox, it would also simplify reconnecting a large number of mailboxes.
    Mailbox Recovery Center
  179. This utility can be used to combine mailboxes in the Recovery Storage Group with mailboxes in a permanent storage group.
    ExMerge
  180. This utility is used to perform an authoritative restore of system state data.
    Ntdsutil.exe
  181. True/False. When using a RAID-5 configuration, a system restore is required after the failure of a single disk.
    False. RAID-5 is a fault-tolerant disk array.
  182. Which four logs should be checked on a daily basis?
    • Event Logs
    • Performance Logs
    • Antivirus Logs
    • Protocol Logs
  183. This tool, typically used for on-demand monitoring, is used to capture, display, and analyze network traffic.
    Microsoft Network Monitor
  184. Which log in Event Viewer will display information reguarding DNS?
    Application Log
  185. What program would you use to view the size of individual mailboxes, public folders, identify users that are consuming the most resources, and get information about the Exchange stores?
    Exchange System Manager
  186. This event source in the Event Viewer is used to view SMTP events.
    MSExchangeTransport
  187. This event source in the Event Viewer is used to view LDAP events.
    MSExchangeAL
  188. This event source in the Event Viewer is used to view Mailbox and Public Folder events.
    MSExchangeIS
  189. This event source in the Event Viewer is used to view Active Directory events.
    MSExchangeSA
  190. This event source in the Event Viewer is used to view connectivity and access events to Active Directory.
    MSExchangeDSAccess
  191. This utility should be used daily to monitor the status of your servers and connectors.
    Monitoring and Status utility
  192. In the Exchange System Manager, this state indicates that a server or connector to another server is down.
    Unreachable
    Unknown
    Critical or Warning
    Unavailable
    Unreachable
  193. In the Exchange System Manager, this state indicates that the System Attendant can not communicate with the server.
    Unreachable
    Unknown
    Critical or Warning
    Unavailable
    Unknown
  194. In the Exchange System Manager, this state indicates that a resource has reached a critical or warning state defined for that resource. i.e. "Available drive space is below 20%."
    Unreachable
    Unknown
    Critical or Warning
    Unavailable
    Critical or Warning
  195. In the Exchange System Manager, this state indicates that a communication service, such as the routing service, is not functioning.
    Unreachable
    Unknown
    Critical or Warning
    Unavailable
    Unavailable
  196. This Utility is used maintain and administer messaging queues in your Exchange organization.
    Queue Viewer
  197. Queue Viewer provides an administrator with five features for message and queue management, what are they?
    • Disable Outbound Mail
    • Freeze and Unfreeze
    • Settings
    • Find Messages
    • Additional Queue Information
  198. This feature in the Queue Viewer can be used to stop the spread of a virus.
    Disable Outbound Mail
    Freeze and Unfreeze
    Settings
    Find Messages
    Additional Queue Information
    Disable Outbound Mail
  199. This feature in the Queue Viewer can be used to prevent single messages from being transmitted, or transmiting from a single remote queue, without stopping the SMTP service for the entire organization.
    Disable Outbound Mail
    Freeze and Unfreeze
    Settings
    Find Messages
    Additional Queue Information
    Freeze and Unfreeze
  200. This feature in the Queue Viewer can be used to adjust the refresh rate for the queue.
    Disable Outbound Mail
    Freeze and Unfreeze
    Settings
    Find Messages
    Additional Queue Information
    Settings
  201. This feature in the Queue Viewer can be used to locate single mail items inside the queue.
    Disable Outbound Mail
    Freeze and Unfreeze
    Settings
    Find Messages
    Additional Queue Information
    Find Message
  202. What is the default queue refresh rate?
    Two minutes
  203. What are the queue refresh rate settings?
    One, Two, Five, Ten minutes, and Never Refresh
  204. What are the five scheduled maintenance tasks that should be performed to keep your Exchange Server 2003 running smoothly?
    • Generate reports and identify trends
    • Review protocol logs
    • Monitor user resource use
    • Monitor the Badmail folder
    • Manage the Postmaster account
  205. Prior to generating logs or identifying trends you must first establish a what?
    Baseline
  206. What are the two tools, or snap-ins contained in the Performance Console?
    • Performance Logs and Alerts
    • System Monitor
  207. In the Exchange System Manager, what recipient policy tool can be used to manage oversized mailboxes and clean email messages from a users mailbox?
    Mailbox Manager
  208. What are the two major problems that could be indicated by a large number of undeliverable messages in the Badmail folder?
    • DNS or network failures.
    • Potential security problems caused by spam.
  209. Which tool can be used on-demand to identify a potential spam attack, judge network performance, analyze trends, and identify normal/abnormal messaging activity?
    Queue Viewer
  210. Which utility is used to defragment an offline database?
    Eseutil
  211. Which utility is used to check a databases integrity for inconsistencies, and possibly repair it?
    Isinteg
  212. Which monitoring tool is used to see exactly what is happening on your network, down to the bit? i.e. you see a large number of ICMP traffic, and conclude that it may be a DoS attack.
    Network Monitor
  213. This management tool monitors clustered, nonclustered, front-end, back-end servers, all mail queues, disks, CPU, memory, network analysis, and issues alerts and notifications.
    • Microsoft Operations Manager
    • MOM
  214. This command line utility is used to isolate networking and connectivity problems.
    Netdiag
  215. This command line diagnostic utility is used to analyze the state of domain controlers in a forest and report any problems.
    Dcdiag
  216. In Exchange System Manager on the properties tab of Exchange Organization, which Tab allows you to grant the permission to Create Top Level Public Folders?
    General
    Details
    Security
    Security
  217. True/False. Diagnostic Logging can be used to troubleshoot both virtual and the general health of physical servers running Exchange Server 2003?
    True.
  218. What does the acronym NAT stand for, and what does it do?
    • Network Address Translation.
    • NAT permanently assocoates public IP addresses with private IP addresses.
  219. GirlFriend, GateCrasher, and SubSeven are three famous examples of what type of attack?
    Trojan Horse
  220. What are the full ramifications of removing all inherited permissions from an object?
    All permissions are removed from the object, and any that are required must be reconfigured.
  221. What does the acronym ARP stand for?
    Address Resolution Protocol
  222. What does ARP do?
    Resolved TCP/IP address to MAC addresses.
  223. What command can be entered to correct a negative caching problem?
    ipconfig /flushdns
  224. What commands can be entered to fix a client that has an APIPA address (169.254.x.x)?
    • ipconfig /release
    • ipconfig /renew
  225. True/False. The ipconfig /renew command can be used without the ipconfig /release command to correct an APIPA address assignment?
    True, however, it is good practice to always release an IP configuration before you renew it.
  226. This command line utility uses ICMP echo commands to test IP connectivity.
    Ping
    Nbtstat
    Tracert
    Pathping
    Netstat
    PING
  227. What command would you use to verify that TCP/IP is correctly installed on a host, by using the IP address 127.0.0.1?
    Ping
  228. Under what conditions would the ping command be unable to reach a remote host, even though the connection and network was fully operational?
    A firewall in the path is set to filter ICMP packets.
  229. This command line utility resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses.

    Ping
    Nbtstat
    Tracert
    Pathping
    Netstat
    Nbtstat
  230. This command line utility displays current TCP/IP connections and protocol statistics.
    Ping
    Nbtstat
    Tracert
    Pathping
    Netstat
    Netstat
  231. This command line utility is used to determine the path that an IP datagram takes to reach a destination.
    Ping
    Nbtstat
    Tracert
    Pathping
    Netstat
    Tracert
  232. This command line utility returns not only path information, but also provides packet loss information.
    Ping
    Nbtstat
    Tracert
    Pathping
    Netstat
    Pathping
  233. This type of connector is typically used with non-Microsoft message systems.
    SMTP
    X.400
    X.400
  234. A general term used to identify either a Digital Signature Certificate, or an Encryption Certificate.
    X.509
  235. This standard, used by Active Directory, is a heirarchical database structure, first introduced with Windows 2000 Server.
    X.500

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