GlyFinalMultipleChoice

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hydeab
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79223
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GlyFinalMultipleChoice
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2011-04-26 15:31:04
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Geology
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geology final multiple choice
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  1. 1. The flat surface adjacent to a river channel is called what?
    a river valley
    b drainage basin
    c channel
    d fault plain
    e floodplain
    E
  2. 2. Meander migrate or shift their location by...
    a sediment deposition on the inside of meander bends and lateral erosion on the outside
    b lateral erosion on the inside of meander bends and sediment deposition on the outside
    c downcutting erosion
    d overwash events during seasonal flooding
    A
  3. 3. sand and gravel are transported by streams primarily as...
    a dissolved load
    b bed load
    c suspended load
    d all of the above
    B
  4. 4. streams transport chemical pollutants such as nitrates as...
    a dissolved load
    b bed load
    c suspended load
    d all of these
    A
  5. 5. the most important causes of river floods include what?
    a sedimentation
    b tidal waves
    c existence of floodplains
    d amounts and rates of precipitation and runoff
    e worrying about drowning
    D
  6. 6. in a stream channel, water flow velocity multiplied by channel cross-sectional area, symbolized as "Q," is...
    a gradient
    b friction
    c suspended load
    d discharge
    D
  7. 7 the discharge of a stream is measured in which of the following units?
    a feet per second
    b cubic meters per second
    c cubic meters
    d gallons
    e tons
    B
  8. 8 the equation R= (n+1)/m is used to calculate...
    a stream discharge
    b stream gradient
    c flood recurrence interval
    d groundwater flow rate
    C
  9. 9 what is the probability of a 20-year old flood occurring in any one year?
    a .0002
    b .002
    c .005
    d .02
    e .05
    E
  10. 10 the time that elapses between the majority of rainfall and a flood's peak is called what?
    a discharge rate
    b gradient
    c delay
    d flow
    e lag time
    E
  11. 11 what materials would you expect to find on a floodplain?
    a boulders
    b bedrock
    c volcanic rocks
    d silt and sand
    e feldspar
    D
  12. 12 "the problem that local modification may increase flood hazards elsewhere is sometimes also a complication with the building of ________, raised banks along a stream channel."
    a dams
    b navigation locks
    c revetments
    d levees
    e sluice ways
    D
  13. 13 the mississippi river flood of 1993 had a recurrence interval of over 100 years. What does this mean?
    a it will be more than 100 years until there is another large flood of the mississippi
    b a flood with a magnitude equal to or exceeding in the 1993 flood can be expected statistically about every 100 years or more
    c it had been more than 100 years since there was a large flood of the mississippi
    d it takes about 100 years to build up enough water to produce a flood like the one in 1993
    e none of the above
    B
  14. 14 urbanization increases the magnitude and frequency of flooding. which of the following has the most effect?
    a cultivation of lawns
    b construction of storm sewers, streets, and parking lots
    c enlargement of drainage basin
    d construction of reservoirs
    e mystical factors that we cannot possibly comprehend
    B
  15. 15 the hurricane related process that kills the most people and often causes the most damage is what?
    a high winds
    b hail
    c flooding
    d lightning
    e none of these
    C
  16. 16 what is wave period
    a the difference in height between trough and peak
    b the size of the wave
    c the time in seconds for successive waves to pass a reference point
    d the distance between successive waves
    C
  17. 17 what happens when waves enter shallow water?
    a the wave period remains constant, the wave length and velocity decrease, and the wave height decreases
    b the wave period changes, the wave length and velocity decrease, and the wave height decreases
    c the wave period remains constant, the wave length and velocity decrease, and the wave height increases
    d the wave period remains constant, and the wave length, height and velocity increase
    C
  18. 18 over several years, sand in the beach and surf zones...
    a moves parallel to the shore
    b does not move appreciably
    c is transported as dissolved load
    d moves toward shore
    A
  19. 19 how is the shape of a shoreline affected by the natural aging process?
    a it becomes more irregular
    b it get longer
    c it becomes straighter
    d it does not change
    C
  20. 20 wave refraction is the process which...
    a concentrates wave energy on pocket beaches (bays)
    b causes deep water waves to move faster
    c causes shallow water waves to bend
    d all of the above
    C
  21. 21 a longshore current...
    a carries sand down a deep sea canyon and away from shore
    b flows out to sea from the mouth of a river
    c forms where wave approach the beach at an angle
    d all of the above
    C
  22. 22 most barrier islands (such as the Outer Banks of North Carolina)...
    a are stable
    b are sinking
    c are gradually moving seaward
    d are gradually moving landward
    D
  23. 23 barrier islands moving landward is because...
    a sea level is falling
    b sea level is not changing
    c sea level is rising
    d of more hurricanes
    e greater discharge of sediment from the mainland
    C
  24. 24 vacation homes on barrier islands are...
    a well-protected from storms
    b prohibited by law
    c vulnerable to wave erosion
    d uncommon and not a problem
    C
  25. 25 beaches can be considered 'rivers of sand' why?
    a sand on beaches rarely moves
    b beaches cause erosion
    c beaches tend to be long and relatively narrow
    d sand on beaches is in continual motion
    D
  26. 26 as a general rule, how are the cost and benefits of erosion control structures distributed?
    a many benefit but many have to pay
    b few benefit and few pay
    c few benefit and many have to pay
    d many benefit but few have to pay
    C
  27. 27 down slope movements are classified using many variables. which is not a variable used to classify downslope movements?
    a trigger mechanism
    b type of movement
    c type of material
    d presence of water
    e rate of movement
    A
  28. 28 slope stability is evaluated by computing a safety factor (SF). what is the definition of the safety factor?
    a the ratio of resisting forces to driving forces
    b the probability of a landslide occurring
    c the ratio of driving forces to resisting forces
    d the ratio of shear strength to the weight of the slope
    A
  29. 29 the safety factor (SF) is used to determine whether a slope is stable. what is the safety factor when a slope is considered unstable?
    a less than zero or greater than one
    b less than zero
    c equal to zero
    d less than one
    e greater than one
    D
  30. 30 water is involved in many slides. which of the following statements about water is false?
    a it erodes and steepens slopes
    b it decreases pore pressure
    c it increases the weight of a slope
    d it encourages liquefaction
    B
  31. 31 the stability of dry, unconsolidated granular material, such as sand in a dune, is determined by...
    a the mineral composition of the material
    b the climate, in particular freeze thaw cycles
    c van der Waal (static) forces holding the mineral grains together
    d the angle of repose
    e the source of material, i.e., produced by weathering and erosion, or volcanic
    D
  32. 32 sandy soil has greatest strength when it is...
    a dry
    b moist
    c saturated
    d quick
    B
  33. 33 what process is mainly a result of soil expansion and contraction
    a soil creep
    b landslide
    c mudflow
    d soil flowage
    A
  34. 34 which mass movement involves material with the highest water content?
    a slump
    b rockfall
    c earthflow
    d mudflow
    D
  35. 35 in which type of mass wasting movement does the moving material retain its original shape?
    a heave
    b slide
    c creep
    d flow
    B
  36. 36 a head scarp and hummocky toe are characteristics of a(n)...
    a slump
    b heave
    c talus
    d rockfall
    A
  37. 37 one factor that influences slope stability but which humans can't alter is...
    a vegetation cover
    b geologic structure
    c slope angle
    d water content
    B
  38. 38 a slope that looks stable but has bent trees, tilted fence post, and cracked walls may actually have...
    a soil creep
    b occasional mudflow
    c modest landslides
    d frequent rock falls
    A
  39. 39 which of the following is not a method used to prevent landslides?
    a installing drainage control
    b installing slope supports
    c grading to reduce slope angle
    d installing a landslide warning system
    D
  40. 40 in an advancing glacier...
    a accumulation equals ablation
    b accumulation exceeds ablation
    c ablation exceeds accumulation
    d basal sliding always occur
    B
  41. 41 "__________" is the wholesale removal of loose sediment, usually fine-grained sediments, by wind. "such an effect my contribute to the maintence of a surface called desert pavement."
    a ventification
    b abrasion
    c ablation
    d drift
    e deflation
    E
  42. 42 where sediment is transported and deposited by wind, the principal depositional feature is a(n) ______, a low mound or ridge, usually made of sand
    a moraine
    b dune
    c ventifact
    d alluvial fan
    e esker
    B
  43. 48 the latitudal zone in which the largest portion of Earth's deserts are located...
    a subtropical
    b tropical
    c temperate
    d polar
    A
  44. 52 the term desertification, however, is generally restricted to... the relatively rapid development of deserts cause by the impact of _________.
    a global warming
    b inter-ice age desiccation
    c lightning-strike brush fires
    d human activities
    e el nino
    D
  45. 53 incidences of malignant melanomas (skin cancer) were reaching epidemic proportions over 20 years ago (1987) in Australia, due to destruction of the ozone layer over what continent?
    a africa
    b asia
    c south america
    d greenland
    e antarctica
    E
  46. 54 drying up of lakes that once occupied the Sahara and adjacent areas as far east as Djibouti, is believed to have resulted from....
    a melting of the polar ice caps at the close of the last ice age
    b the 22,000- year cyclical wobbling of the axis of the Earth (Melankovitch cycle)
    c a time of unusually high volcanic activity
    d poor management of agricultural land, and overgazing
    e the invention and widespread use of fire
    B
  47. 55 of course CO2 is the principal greenhouse gas. other greenhouse gasses include CFC's and CH4 (methane). CFC's are now highly regulated, but this is not the case for methane. while methane is produced in natural environments, the present concern has to do with methane from what source?
    a swamps and other wetlands, like the everglades
    b volcanic eruptions
    c agriculture (both plants and animals)
    d garbage and other such waste in landfills
    e breakdown of gas hydrates in the sea floor
    C
  48. 1 the big bang occurred ______ years ago
    a 10 to 15 billion
    b 1.8 billion
    c 4.5 billion
    d 450 millio
    A
  49. 2 the earth and the rest of our solar system formed ______ years ago
    a 10 to 15 billion
    b 1.8 billion
    c 4.5 billion
    d 450 million
    C
  50. 3 olympus mons on mars, the largest volcano in the solar system, suggests that mars recently passed through which stage?
    a accretion and differentiation
    b vigorous convection
    c plate tectonics
    d terminal volcanism
    e quiescence
    D
  51. 4 presently the earth is in which stage?
    a accretion and differentiation
    b vigorous convection
    c plate tectonicsd terminal volcanism
    e quiescence
    C
  52. 5 in which stage do the core and mantle form?
    a accretion and differentiation
    b vigorous convection
    c plate tectonics
    d terminal volcanism
    e quiescence
    A
  53. 6 which stage for the moon?
    a accretion and differentiation
    b vigorous convection
    c plate tectonics
    d terminal volcanism
    e quiescence
    E
  54. 7 the vast majority of rock-forming minerals are...
    a oxides
    b silicates
    c sulfides
    d carbonates
    B
  55. 8 which mineral group is most abundant in the earths crust?
    a feldspar
    b sulfides
    c olivines
    d carbonates
    A
  56. 9 rock salt and limestone are examples of...
    a sedimentary rocks
    b metamorphic rocks
    c volcanic igneous rocks
    d plutonic igneous rocks
    A
  57. 10 what distinguishes slate from schist?
    a grain size
    b foliated versus nonfoliated crystalline texture
    c mineralogical composition
    d crystalline versus clastic texture
    A
  58. 11 the two most fundamental characteristics that distinguish minerals are...
    a weight and transparency
    b color and hardness
    c chemical composition and crystal structure
    d bonding and atomic number
    C
  59. 12 the nature of the crystalline state can be verified by experiments involving the interaction between X-radiation and a crystal. the specific phenomenon is called...
    a seduction
    b refraction
    c induction
    d diffraction
    e deflection
    D
  60. 13 the earliest known evidence for continental drift was...
    a seafloor magnetic anomalies
    b the existence of oceanic ridges
    c the distribution of volcanoes
    d the jigsaw puzzle fit of continental margins
    D
  61. 14 the rifting of east africa is associated with a...
    a divergent boundary
    b convergent boundary
    c transform boundary
    d plate collision
    A
  62. 15 new oceanic lithosphere forms at...
    a convergent plate boundaries
    b divergent plate boundaries
    c transform faults
    d all of these
    B
  63. 16 a volcanic island arc forms where...
    a a mantle hot spot underlies oceanic lithosphere
    b new oceanic lithosphere forms due to divergence
    c oceanic lithosphere is subducted beneath oceanic lithosphere
    d continental lithosphere converges with continental lithosphere
    C
  64. 17 the driving force or mechanism that causes seafloor spreading and continental drift is...
    a the earth's rotation
    b circulation of liquid core
    c magnetic reversals
    d convection in the mantle
    D
  65. 18 where are rocks most likely to strain in a plastic fashion?
    a crust
    b oceanic lithosphere
    c continental lithosphere
    d asthenosphere
    D
  66. 19 volcanoes of the andes mountains along the west coast of South America are a direct result of...
    a continental rifting
    b subduction
    c divergence
    d transform faulting
    B
  67. 20 the San Andreas fault is a...
    a convergent plate boundary
    b divergent plate boundary
    c transform plate boundary
    d magmatic arc
    C
  68. 21 the Hawaiian volcanoes occur...
    a at a spreading center
    b a a convergent plate boundary
    c over a mantle hot spot
    d over a subduction zone
    C
  69. 22 rocks on the ocean floor are...
    a oldest near ridges
    b youngest near trenches
    c youngest near ridges
    d all the same age
    C
  70. 23 type of stress associated with a normal fault
    a compression
    b tension
    c lateral, i.e. horizontal, shear
    d none of these
    B
  71. 24 type of stress associated with a reverse or thrust fault
    a compression
    b tension
    c lateral, i.e. horizontal, shear
    d none of these
    A
  72. 25 type of stress associated with a strike-slip fault
    a compression
    b tension
    c lateral, i.e. horizontal, shear
    d none of these
    C
  73. 26 Very shallow seismicity, most of which is located along the mid-oceanic ridges are associated with what kind of plate boundary?
    a convergent
    b divergent
    c transform
    d none of these
    B
  74. 27 earthquake foci (hypocenters) at depths up to 700 kilometers are associated with what kind of plate boundary?
    a convergent
    b divergent
    c transform
    d none of these
    A
  75. 28 shallow seismicity involving only lateral (strike-slip) movement are associated with what kind of plate boundary?
    a convergent
    b divergent
    c transform
    d none of these
    C
  76. 29 the recent earthquake in Haiti (12 January 2010) was caused by movement associated with which type of plate boundary?
    a convergent
    b divergent
    c transform
    d none of these
    C
  77. 30 the effects of an earthquake on humans and their structures are measured as...
    a rate of tectonic creep
    b magnetic inclination
    c intensity
    d richter magnitude
    C
  78. 31 what determines the magnitude of an earthquake?
    a the amount of energy released by the movement of the rocks
    b the depth of the focus
    c the type of plate boundary where it occurs
    d the amount of damage
    A
  79. 32 which of the seismic wave-types is responsible for the most of the destruction associated with an earthquake?
    a p-waves
    b s-waves
    c L- and R- waves (surface waves)
    d T-(tsunami)-waves
    e harmonic waves
    C
  80. 33 which of the seismic wave-types travels the fastest?
    a p-waves
    b s-waves
    c L- and R- waves (surface waves)
    d T-(tsunami)-waves
    e harmonic waves
    A
  81. 34 which of the seismic wave types is the slower of the 2 body waves?
    a p-waves
    b s-waves
    c L- and R- waves (surface waves)
    d T-(tsunami)-waves
    e harmonic waves
    B
  82. 35 seismic hazards are only important at plate tectonic boundaries
    a true
    b false
    B
  83. 36 with modern instrumentation earthquakes can be predicted very accurately
    a true
    b false
    B
  84. 37 large buildings are more likely to survive a serious earthquake if they are situated on soft, unconsolidated sediment. in effect, the building is cushioned by the soft sediment.
    a true
    b false
    B
  85. 38 way out in the open ocean the characteristics of a Tsunami wave are...
    a short wavelength, low amplitude
    b short wavelength, high amplitude
    c long wavelength, high amplitude
    d long wavelength, low amplitude
    D
  86. 39 so, earthquakes that occur along normal or reverse faults, in which the displacement is primarily ________, are much more efficient at displacing water and thus generating tsunamis
    a lateral
    b horizontal
    c oblique
    d transitional
    e vertical
    E
  87. 40 over deep seawater (i.e., well away from coastlines) the typical velocity of a tsunami is on the order of...
    a 75 km/h
    b 300 km/h
    c 1000 km/h
    d the speed of sound
    e speed of light
    C
  88. 41 in open water, the amplitude of a tsunami rarely exceeds 1 meter, but onshore it is not unusual for tsunamis to crest at _________ above normal sea level.
    a 1 or 2 meters
    b 5 or 10 meters
    c 50 to 100 meters
    d 500 to 1000 meters
    e 2000 to 5000 meters
    B
  89. 42 the prediction of tsunamis focuses on identifying ________ that are likely to generate tsunamis and on estimating the travel time of tsunamis across ocean basins
    a meteor impacts
    b unusual meteorological events (i.e., extreme weather events)
    c volcanic eruptions
    d plate boundaries
    e earthquakes
    E
  90. 43 what is the major factor responsible for explosive volcanism?
    a the silica content of the magma
    b viscosity of the lava
    c temperature of the magma
    d dissolved gasses in the magma
    e tectonic setting of the volcano
    D
  91. 44 what is a lahar?
    a a rubbly flow of basaltic lava (aa)
    b a shower of small grain-sized of cool or hot ash
    c a hot, flowing density flow of hot ash, and other rock and glass fragments
    d a peculiar type of submarine lava flow
    e hot or cold volcanic ash , remobilized in the form of a mud or debris flow
    E
  92. 45 which of the following is the most dangerous to humans?
    a volcanic gasses
    b lava flows
    c volcanic ash
    d pyroclastic flows
    e lahars
    D
  93. 46 the largest volcano in the world (i.e., earth) is located where?
    a Yellowstone N. P., wyoming
    b Mt. Pinatubo at the western edge of the Pacific plate
    c in the east pacific basin at a triple junction of 3 plate boundaries
    d almost in the center of the pacific plate, well away from any plate boundaries
    e Mt. Kilimanjaro in East Africa
    D
  94. 47 Divergent plate boundary goes with which tectonic plate setting?
    a 80% of the earth's active volcanoes, mostly composite (strato-type) volcanoes, e.g. Mt. Pinatubo
    b 15% of the active volcanoes, mostly associated with the formation of oceanic crust, e.g. Iceland
    c the remaining 5% of the active volcanoes, above mantle "hot spots," e.g. Island of Hawaii
    d typified by broad arcs or long lines of andesite/rhyolitic volcanoes
    e no volcanic activity
    B
  95. 48 transform plate boundary goes with which tectonic plate setting?
    a 80% of the earth's active volcanoes, mostly composite (strato-type) volcanoes, e.g. Mt. Pinatubo
    b 15% of the active volcanoes, mostly associated with the formation of oceanic crust, e.g. Iceland
    c the remaining 5% of the active volcanoes, above mantle "hot spots," e.g. Island of Hawaii
    d typified by broad arcs or long lines of andesite/rhyolitic volcanoes
    e no volcanic activity
    E
  96. 50 intra-plate (i.e., away from plate boundaries) goes with which tectonic plate setting?
    a 80% of the earth's active volcanoes, mostly composite (strato-type) volcanoes, e.g. Mt. Pinatubo
    b 15% of the active volcanoes, mostly associated with the formation of oceanic crust, e.g. Iceland
    c the remaining 5% of the active volcanoes, above mantle "hot spots," e.g. Island of Hawaii
    d typified by broad arcs or long lines of andesite/rhyolitic volcanoes
    e no volcanic activity
    C
  97. 51 approximately how many potentially dangerous volcanoes are there?
    a 75-100
    b 300-350
    c 600-700
    d 1500-2000
    e 3000-4000
    C
  98. 52 a major source of property damage and loss of life resulting from the 1991 eruption of Mt. Pinatubo was (were)...
    a the blast of the eruption
    b mud flows
    c CO2 gas
    d pyroclastic flows
    e lowering of the global temperature
    B
  99. 53 Magmas that are high in SiO2, like andesite and rhyolite, tend to be very resistant to flow (high viscosity)
    a true
    b false
    A
  100. 54 Eruptions of strato-type (composite) volcanoes are much more explosive and much more difficult to predict than eruptions from shield type volcanoes
    a true
    b false
    A
  101. 55 material introduced into the atmosphere by an eruption can cause a measurable lowering of the mean global temperature for one or more years. This happened following the eruption of Mount Pinatubo (1991)
    a true
    b false
    A
  102. 56 tiltmeters, geodolites, GPS, and laser distance measuring instruments are used to monitor...
    a the precise time of an eruption
    b the magnitude of an eruption
    c the shape of the magma chamber
    d the shape of a volcano
    e tidal influence on volcanic activity
    D
  103. 57 infrared remote sensing techniques have been used to detect...
    a small changes in the local magnetic field, due to movement of magma beneath a volcano
    b changes in the heat radiated from the surface of a volcano
    c proportion of hydrochloric acid (HCl) and sulfur dioxide (SO2)
    d premonitory behavioral responses of domestic animals (i.e., cats, dogs, cows, etc.)
    e changes in the shape of a volcano
    B
  104. 1 what is the porosity of 100 millimeters of sand that absorbs 25 millimeters of water
    a 40%
    b 25%
    c 4.0%
    d 2.5%
    B
  105. 2 what would make the best aquifer
    a gravel in the zone of aeration
    b clay in the zone of saturation
    c sandstone in the zone of saturation
    d granite in the zone of saturation
    C
  106. 3 the water table is the...
    a top of the zone of aeration
    b bottom of the zone of saturation
    c top of the zone of saturation
    d zone of infiltration
    C
  107. 4 an unconfined aquifer lacks a(n)...
    a water table
    b zone of saturation
    c recharge area
    d aquiclude
    D
  108. 5 what is the name for any process that adds water to an aquifer?
    a groundwater recharge
    b groundwater discharge
    c a cone of depression
    d hydraulic conductivity
    e none of the above
    A
  109. 6 which of the following does NOT happen when water is pumped from a well in an unconfined aquifer?
    a a cone of depression forms
    b groundwater is discharged
    c the depth to the water table increases
    d the depth to the water table decreases
    D
  110. 7 what is the name for water under pressure beneath a confining layer, such that the water naturally rises to the height of the water table in the recharge zone?
    a aquiclude
    b aquitard
    c artesian
    d cone of depression
    e aquifer
    C
  111. 8 karst topography develops
    a as the result of solution of limestone
    b when limeston caverns collapse
    c as the result of reaction of carbonic acid in rain with calcite
    d all of these
    D
  112. 10 what is generally the most serious threat to groundwater on Outer Banks of North Carolina?
    a water pollution associated with urbanization
    b nitrate pollution due to natural sources
    c landfill leachate entering the groundwater
    d salt water intrusion into drinking water
    e creation of impermeable surfaces related to urbanization
    D
  113. 11 according to Darcy's Law, groundwater flow is faster when...
    a the slope of the water table creates a high hydraulic head
    b the depth of the water table decreases the hydraulic head
    c the shape of the water table decreases the permeability
    d the water table lowers the hydraulic conductivity
    A
  114. 12 which of the following is, for practical purposes, always involved in chemical weathering?
    a nitrogen
    b oxygen
    c carbon dioxide
    d water
    D
  115. 13 red color in soil results from...
    a hydrolysis of feldspar
    b solution of calcite
    c oxidation of iron
    d solution of quartz
    C
  116. 14 which is not a chemical weathering process?
    a oxidation
    b frost-shattering
    c solution
    d hydrolysis
    B
  117. 15 chemical weathering is fastest in...
    a cool, dry climate
    b cool, humid climate
    c warm, humid climate
    d warm, dry climate
    C
  118. 16 mechanical weathering...
    a enhances chemical weathering
    b inhibits chemical weathering
    c prevents chemical weathering
    d far exceeds chemical weathering
    A
  119. 17 soil particle textural classes are...
    a horizons A,B,C
    b sand, silt, clay
    c mud, gravel, boulders
    d pedalfer, pedocal, laterite
    B
  120. 18 the C-horizon of a soil is...
    a the most completely weathered horizon
    b where chemicals are deposited
    c the horizon most similar to the parent material
    d te zone of leaching
    C
  121. 20 "weathered parent rock, partially broken down," best describes which soil horizon?
    a O
    b A
    c B
    d C
    e R (bedrock)
    D
  122. 21 the "zone of leaching, dissolved or suspended materials move downward," best describes which soil horizon?
    a O
    b A
    c B
    d C
    e R (bedrock)
    B
  123. 22 metallic mineral deposits that are worth mining are...
    a pegmatite
    b concentrates
    c kimberlite
    d ores
    D
  124. 23 hydrothermal deposits of ore minerals...
    a where igneous intrusions have baked rocks which they intrude
    b where chemical weathering has concentrated ore by removing non-ore minerals
    c from hot water circulating through rocks
    d all of the above
    C
  125. 24 aluminum ore deposits are...
    a place deposits (stream)
    b metamorphic deposits
    c residual deposits (soil)
    d evaporates (salt flats)
    C
  126. 25 lateritic weathering produces which ore deposit?
    a bauxite
    b placer
    c evaporite
    d kimberlite
    A
  127. 26 a major type of non-metallic mineral deposit is...
    a placer deposit
    b bauxite
    c evaporite
    d manganese
    C
  128. 27 rock salt and rock gypsum are what kind of mineral deposits?
    a evaporite
    b hydrothermal
    c placer
    d pegmatite
    A
  129. 28 which of the following is the most important modern source of iron???
    a bog deposits
    b kiruna-type igneous deposits
    c banded iron formations
    d meteorites
    e residual deposits
    C
  130. 29 we know that the early atmosphere of the earth (prior to ~2 billion years ago) was very different from what it is today. the early atmosphere was depleted in O2, enriched in CO2, and enriched in sulfur. the formation comes from which of the following types of iron deposits
    a bog deposits
    b kiruna-type igneous deposits
    c banded iron formations
    d meteorites
    e residual deposits
    C
  131. 30 most of the copper production in the world today comes from which of the following types of deposits?
    a metamorphic, native copper
    b hydrothermal sedimentary, mineral malachite and azurite
    c nodules on the sea floor
    d porphyritic granite, hydrothermal
    e placer deposits
    D
  132. 31 the copper in these deposits (preceding question) can be traced all the way back to a source in...
    a the mantle beneath a divergent plate boundary
    b metamorphic rock near the base of continental crust
    c achondritic meteorites
    d sedimentary rocks, especially limeston
    e sea water through evaporation in restricted basin, like the Red Sea
    A
  133. 32 manganese nodules form...
    a in magmas
    b by lateritic weathering
    c near igneous intrusion
    d on the deep sea floor
    D
  134. 33 commerically, the most valuable petroleum reservoirs (like aquifers) are...
    a low in porosity and low in permeability
    b low in porosity and high in permeability
    c high in porosity and high in permeability
    d high in porosity and low in permeability
    C
  135. 34 fossils fuels are found in...
    a metamorphic rocks
    b igneous rocks
    c sedimentary rocks
    d all of these
    C
  136. 35 coal forms from...
    a plants buried in sediment
    b thick tar that solidifies to rock
    c evaporation of algae-rich lakes
    d organic-rich volcanic ash
    A
  137. 36 atmospheric pollution is the worst when...
    a coal is burned
    b natural gas is burned
    c uranium undergoes fission in a nuclear reactor
    d geothermal heat is used to generate electricity
    A
  138. 37 most of the oil production in the world (~80%) comes from which of the following kinds of structural trap?
    a faults (thrust or normal)
    b stratigraphic
    c unconformities
    d anticlines
    e salt domes
    D
  139. 38 most of the world's petroleum is recovered from depths between 2000' and 10000'. why is this?

    a it is too costly to drill for the abundant oil reserves at depths greater than 10000' and petroleum doesn't form at depths less than 2000'

    b oil is converted to graphite under the metamorphic conditions at depths greater than 10000'; and at depths less than 2000' oil is too fluid to be contained

    c there is a lot of petroleum at depths less than 2000', but it is too viscous to be extracted economically; at depths greater than 10000' petroleum breaks down to gas

    d petroleum in the depth range from 2000' to 10000' is easy to detect by modern seismic methods. at shallower and greater depths respectively there can be complications due to the presence of water or magma

    e at shallow depths (<2000') groundwater dilutes petroleum and makes it unusable; at great depths (>10000') petroleum solidifies to coal
    C
  140. 39 which source could yield large amounts of natural gas in the future?
    a secondary recovery
    b methane hydrates
    c oil shale
    d tar sands
    B
  141. 40 one of the largest recent oil discoveries in North America was in western Wyoming. the reserves are unusual because they are beneath what?
    a a syncline
    b an overthrust belt
    c a volcano
    d a metamorphic rocks
    e geysers in Yellowstone National Park
    B
  142. 41 exploration for oil in east Africa focuses on lakes that occupy what kind of tectonic feature?
    a normal faulted-bounded rift valleys, ex. lake tanganyika or lake malawi

    b volcanic calderas near the Serengeti Plain

    c downwarping associated with overthrust belst of the Virunga Range

    d shallow basins formed by gentle warping of the crust, lake victoria

    e normal faulting responsible for the inland delta of the Okavango River
    A
  143. 42 there is renewed interest in some of the older oil fields (ex. in Texas) that were believed to be nearly exhausted, because new geophysical evidence shows that...
    a the source rock just needs to be fractured up with explosives to create more porosity

    b untapped reservoirs often occur at greater depth

    c the source can be highly compartmentalized, such that additional drilling can often intercept untapped compartments

    d extractable oil can also occur in unlikely source rocks, like shale

    e new oil is continually seeping in to replace oil that has been pumped, but you have to let the oil field "rest" for several years
    C
  144. 43 an important reason that the US is not generating much energy from nuclear fission is...
    a fission has not yet been successfully carried out
    b we do not have fuel for fission reactors
    c we have no respiratory for high-level nuclear waste
    d all of the above
    C
  145. 45 geothermal heat is a good energy resource but...
    a limited to specific sites
    b unavailable in the US
    c impractical for generating electricity
    d too expensive to ever be practical
    A
  146. 46 most gasohol blends are from...
    a biogas methane
    b liquefied coal
    c distilled grains
    d hydrocarbon-rich algae
    C
  147. 47 expanded use of which energy resource would contribute least to global warming?
    a coal
    b natural gas
    c solar
    d oil
    C
  148. 48 in the US, the bulk of the uranium deposits are found in...
    a granites
    b limestone
    c sandstones
    d evaporites
    C
  149. 49 at yellowstone national park one sees evidence of which energy resource?
    a wind
    b geothermal
    c earthquake
    d all of the above
    B
  150. 50 a fission nuclear reactor core meltdown
    a has never occurred
    b would lead to nuclear detonation
    c occurred at three-mile island, pennsylvania
    d cannot occur in reactors built in the US
    C

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