Card Set Information

2011-04-16 16:26:11

Pharm Cards for Class final 4/15/11
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  1. Drug
    Chemical used to diagnose, treat or prevent disease
  2. Pharmacology
    Study of drugs & their interaction w/ the body
  3. Classification
    Broad group to which a drug belongs
  4. Indication
    Conditions that make the admission of a drug appropriate
  5. Pharmacodynamics
    How a drug interacts with the body to cause its effect
  6. Side effect
    The drugs untoward or undesired effects
  7. Contraindication
    Conditions that make it inappropriate to give the drug
  8. Teratogenic Drug
    Drugs that may deform or kill a fetus
  9. Pharmacokinetics
    How a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized or excreted
  10. Affinity
    Force of attraction between drug & receptor
  11. Efficacy
    Drugs ability to cause the expected response
  12. Agonist
    Drug which binds to receptor site causing a desired effect
  13. Antagonist
    Drug which binds w/ a receptor site blocking it but not causing the desired effect
  14. Allergic Reaction
    Aka hypersensativity, the effect occurs as a drug is antigenic & activates immune sys
  15. What is the difference between anaphylaxis & an allergic reaction?
    An allergic reaction isnt necessarily life threatening where as anaphylaxis is
  16. Tolerance
    Decreased response to the same amt of drug after repeated administrations
  17. Cross tolerance
    Tolerance for a drug that develops after administration of a different drug. ie opiod b/c tolerance for 1 = tolerance for all
  18. Tachyphylaxis
    Rapidly occurring tolerance to a drug. May occur aft a single dose
  19. Cumulative Effect
    ^ effectiveness when a drug is given in several doses
  20. Drug Dependance
    Pt becomes accustomed to the drugs presence in his body & will suffer physical or psychological withdrawal symptoms upon its absence
  21. Drug Interaction
    The effects of 1 drug alters the response to another drug
  22. Drug Antagonism
    The effects of 1 drug block the response to another drug
  23. Summation (aka ____ ____)
    • Additive effect
    • 2 drugs w/ same effect given together. 1+1=2
  24. Synergism
    2 drugs given together having the same effect & producing a response > the sum of their individual responses. 1+1=3
  25. Potentiation
    • 1 drug enhances the effect of another
    • ie Promethazine enhances morphine
  26. Interference
    Direct biochemical interaction between 2 drugs; 1 drug effects the pharm of another
  27. Analgesic
    Absence of the sensation of pain
  28. Anesthetic
    Induces loss of sensation to touch or pain
  29. Sedation
    State of decreased anxiety & inhibition
  30. Hypnosis
    Instigation of sleep
  31. Parasympathomimetic
    Causes effects like the parasympathetic NS (cholinergics)
  32. Parasympatholytic
    Blocks the parasympathetic nervous sys
  33. Sympathomimetic
    Causes effects like those of the sympathetic NS
  34. Sympatholytic
    Blocks the action of the sympathetic sys
  35. Antidysrhythmic
    Drug used to treat or prevent abnormal cardiac rhythms
  36. What is a schedule I drug?
    • High abuse potential
    • No med indication
  37. Describe a schedule II drug.
    • High abuse potential
    • May lead to dependance
  38. Describe a schedule III drug.
    • Less abuse
    • Moderate dependance
  39. Describe a schedule IV drug.
    • Low abuse
    • Less dependance
  40. Describe a schedule V drug.
    • Low abuse
    • Limited dependance
  41. What are class 1 recs as per the AHA?
    Conditions for which there is evidence &/or general agreement that a given procedure or treatment is useful & effective
  42. What are class 2 AHA recs mean?
    Conditions for which there is conflicting evidence &/or a divergence of opinion about the usefulness/efficacy of a procedure or treatment
  43. What are class 2a rec as per the AHA?
    Weight of evidence/opinion is in favor of usefulness/efficacy
  44. What are class 2b recs as per the AHA?
    Usefulness/efficacy is less well established by evidence/opinion
  45. What are class 3 recs as per the AHA?
    Conditions for which there is evidence &/or general agreement the the procedure/treatment is nor useful/effective & in some cases may harmful
  46. With regards to Levels of Evidence, describe level A.
    Data derived fr randomized clinical trials
  47. W/regards to Levels of Evidence, describe level B.
    Data derived fr a single randomized trial or non-randomized studies
  48. W/regards to Levels of evidence, describe level C.
    Consensus of opinion of experts
  49. What are the 6 rights of med administration?
    • Med
    • Dose
    • Time
    • Route
    • Patient
    • Administration
  50. Some drugs act my changing physical props of a part of the body. Give an example.
    Mannitol ^ urine output by ^ bloods osmolarity or osmotic pull
  51. Some drugs chemically combine w/ other substances. Give example.
    Isopropyl alcohol, used to disinfect skin b/f needle insertion, denatures proteins on the surface of bacteria cells destroying the bacteria
  52. What is an example of a class or drugs that alter a metabolic pathway?
    Cancer Drugs
  53. Tachyphalaxis is described as a ______.
    Rapidly decreasing effectiveness of a drug w/repeated use
  54. Digixon is prescribed for CHF primarily too what?
    Improve myocardial contractility & cardiac output
  55. Stimulation of histamine (H1) receptors often results in what?
    Vasodilation & increased vascular permeability
  56. An "orphan drug" is defined as a drug used to . . . .
    Treat a specific rare disease
  57. SLUDGE helps to ID the effects of _____ drugs on the autonomic nervous sys.
  58. When a drug causes a change in the cell membrane, preventing addl stimulation of the cell no matter how much stimulation is offered that drug is called a competitive/noncompetitive agonist/antagonist?
    Noncompetitive Antagonist
  59. Meds used to treat extrapyramidal side effects fr antipsychotics & to treat Parkinsons Disease achieve therapeutic effects by increasing/decreasing the amt of _____ at receptor sites in basal ganglia.
    Increasing the amt of dopamine
  60. Nitroprusside is used for _____ emergencies b/c it is a potent ____.
    • Hypertensive
    • Vasodilator
  61. Propranolol (aka ____) causes a ____ ____ effect.
    • Inderal
    • Negative Chronotropic
  62. A larger than expected dose of adenosine may be necessary in pts regularly taking ____ _____.
    Certain Bronchodilators
  63. The principal action by which digoxen achieves its therapeutic effect in heart failure is by what?
    Creating an environment where by Ca ions remain intracellular for a prolonged period
  64. Benzos are safer than barbituates in seizure pts b/c why?
    The effects of benzos is limited by the amt of endogenous GABA in the CNS
  65. According to Frank-Starlings Law, the administration of NTG will result in ____ preload, ____ stroke vol and ____ myocardial O2 demand.
    Decreased, Decreased, Decreased
  66. Reversable cholinesterase inhibitors enable/block parasympathetic/sympathetic stimulation for a finite period?
    Enables Parasympathetic
  67. If a drug blocks nicotinic receptors @ the neuromuscular junction, what symptomatic effect might this have on the patient?
    Inability to move voluntary and involuntary muscles
  68. At the cellular level, treatment of seizures is generally accomplished by ____ the influx of ____ ions into the neural cells.
    Inhibiting, Na and CA
  69. Administration of a nonselective beta antagonist will most likely result in ____ and ____ ____.
    Bronchoconstriction and inhibited glycogenolysis
  70. A drug that blocks muscarinic receptors in the peripheral nervous system would be classified as a _____.
  71. Th chief physiologic effect of nerve gases such as VX and sarin are too . . . .
    Irreversibly block the enzyme chlolinesterase
  72. Which classification of drug affecting the autonomic nervous system would be best suited to treat a pt w/spinal shock?
    Alpha agonist
  73. Beta adrenergic antagonists reduce hypertension by what 3 ways?
    • Neg inotropic effect
    • Suppressing renin release fr the kidneys
    • Diminishing reflex tach as a compensatory response
  74. Teratogenesis refers to the . . . . .
    Effects of a drug on a developing fetus
  75. An important difference between analgesics and anesthetics is what?
    Anesthetics block all sensations
  76. What is the term used to describe the effects a drug has on its target organ?
  77. An important physiologic distinction between the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system is what?
    Sympathetic ganglia are close to the spinal cord
  78. The absorption of ASA fr the stomach is ____ b/c the acidity of gastric contents ____ ionization of the drug.
    Rapid, Impedes
  79. What disease is characterized by hypersecreation of adrenocorticotropic hormone leading to hyperglycemia, obesity, hypertension and electrolyte imbalances?
    Cushings Disease
  80. TCAs achieve their therapeutic effect by doing what?
    Prolonging the duration of Norepi & serotonin @ receptor sites
  81. In a pt experiencing an MI, a med that reduces afterload is beneficial b/c it
    Reduces the workload of the heart, reducing myocardial O2 consumption
  82. The FDAs pregnancy safety designation of Category A for a drug means:
    Adequate studies in pregnant women have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus in the 1st trimester or later trimesters
  83. _____ is the relative therapeutic effectiveness of chemically comparable drugs.
  84. In the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), which element is most responsible for widespread vasoconstriction?
    Angiotensin II
  85. The pharmacological effects of administering insulin to a hyperglycemic pt is an example of increased:
    Carrier -mediated Diffusion
  86. NTG achieves its therapeutic effects by:
    Blocking the entry of Ca into the cells of smooth muscle
  87. A prolonged deficiency in Vitamin C may result in ____.
  88. Hypoparathyroidism leads to decreased ____ ____.
    Ca Levels
  89. Name 3 common side effects of loop diuretics.
    • Reflex Tach
    • Hypokalemia
    • Orthostatic Hypotension
  90. The FDAs classification of a drugs treatment or therapeutic potential as "A" means the drug offers what?
    Important therapeutic gains
  91. In the treatment of Parkinson's Disease, dopamine is not administered directly b/c it cannot:
    Cross the blood brain barrier
  92. A significant issue with digitalis preparations is that they:
    Have a very narrow therapeutic index
  93. A lesion in the posterior pituitary gland resulting in hypersecreation of ADH could cause:
  94. A suppository is defined as what?
    A drug w/a wax like base that melts @ body temp, allowing absorption into body tissue.
  95. A large concern during the administration of an Alpha agonist is infiltration b/c it may cause:
    Tissue necrosis
  96. What are the 5 intrinsic benzo effects?
    • Anxiolytic
    • Amnesic
    • Sedative/Hypnotic
    • Anticonvulsant
    • Muscle Relaxant
  97. What is assay?
    Test that determines the amt & purity of a given chemical in a preparation in a laboratory
  98. Define Bioequivalence.
    Relative therapeutic effectiveness of chemically equivalent drugs
  99. Define Bioassay.
    Test to ascertain a drugs availability in a biological model
  100. Medication packages containing a single dose for a single pt. is called?
    Dose Packaging
  101. What is a med that may kill of deform a fetus called?
    Teratogenic Drug
  102. Describe free drug availability.
    The proportion of a drug available in the body to cause either desired or undesired effects
  103. Define pharmacokinetics.
    How a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized (biotransformed) & excreted; how drugs are transported into & out of the body
  104. What are the 4 pharmacokinetic processes?
    • Absorption
    • Distribution
    • Biotransformation
    • Elimination
  105. Bioavailability is the amt of a drug _____?
    That is still active after it reaches its target tissue
  106. What is the special name given to the metabolism of drugs?
  107. What is a prodrug?
    A med that isnt active when administered, but whos biotransformation converts it into active metabolites
  108. What is the first pass effect?
    The livers partial or complete inactivation of a drug b/f it reaches the systemic circulation
  109. Enteral delivery of a med means the med is delivered . . . .
    Through the intestinal tract
  110. Parentarel delivery of a med is any route that . . . .
    Outside the gastrointestinal tract, typically using needles to inject directly into the circulatory sys or tissue
  111. Give 5 examples of enteral med routes.
    • PO
    • Orogastric/Nasogastric Tube (OG/NG)
    • SL
    • Buccal
    • PR
  112. Parenteral Routes include (12):
    • IV
    • ET
    • IO
    • Umbilical
    • IM
    • SC
    • Inhalation/Neb
    • Topical
    • Transdermal
    • Nasal
    • Instillation
    • Intradermal
  113. An agonist-antogonist (partial agonist) is a drug that binds to a receptor & . . .
    stimulates some of its effects but blocks others
  114. Competitive antagonism is when 1 drug . . . .
    binds to a receptor & causes the expected effect while also blocking another drug fr triggering the same receptor
  115. What is non-competative antagonism?
    The binding of an antagonist causes a deformity of the binding site that prevents an agonist fr fitting & binding
  116. Irreversible antagonism is a . . . .
    Competitive antagonist permanently binds w/a receptor site
  117. What are side effects?
    Unintended response to a drug
  118. List some side effects (13).
    • Allergic reaction
    • Idiosyncrasy
    • Tolerance
    • Cross-tolerance
    • Tachyphylaxis
    • Cumulative Effect
    • Drug dependance
    • Drug interaction
    • Drug antagonism
    • Summation
    • Synergism
    • Potentiation
    • Interference
  119. Interference is. . . .
    The direct biochemical interaction between 2 drugs; 1 drug affects the pharm of another
  120. What is a drug response relationship?
    Correlation of different amts of a drug to clinical response
  121. What is the plasma level profile?
    Describes lengths of onset, duration & termination of action as well as the drugs min effective concentration & toxic levels
  122. What is the onset of action?
    Time from administration until a med reaches its minimum effective concentration
  123. The autonomic nervous sys ctrls what & is further divided into ____ & ____?
    • Involuntary or automatic functions
    • Sympathetic & parasympathetic nervous sys
  124. What are the effects of opiod agonists?
    • Analgesia
    • Euphoria
    • Sedation
    • Miosis
  125. What effect does morphine have on the heart?
    Decreases preload & afterload
  126. What are the effects of a prototype benzo?
    • Antianxiety
    • Hypnotic
    • Anesthetic
    • Anticonvulsant
    • Sedative
  127. What is EPS (aka ___) & what causes it?
    • Extrapyramidal Symptoms
    • Dystonic Reaction
    • Caused by brain damage & antipsychotic drugs
  128. How to TCA's work?
    By blocking the reuptake or nor-epi & serotonin thus extending the duration of their action
  129. How do SSRIs work?
    By selectively blocking the reuptake of serotonin but they do not affect dopamine or nor-epi
  130. Whats used to treat ODs of TCAs?
    Sodium Bicarbonate
  131. What is parkinsons disease?
    A nervous disorder caused by the destruction of dopamine releasing neurons in the substantia nigra, part of the basal ganglia, which is a specialized area of the brain that crtl fine motor movement
  132. What is dyskinesia?
    Disfunctional movements such as involuntary tremors, unsteady gait & postural instability
  133. What is the drug of choice for treating Parkinsons & why?
    Levodopa b/c it can readily cross the blood brain barrier where it is absorbed by dopamine releasing neuron terminals
  134. Describe the blood brain barrier.
    Tight junctions of the endothelial cells in the CNS vasculature thru which only non protein bound highly lipid soluble drugs can pass
  135. Define the Placental Barrier.
    Biochemical barrier at the maternal/fetal interface that restricts certain molecules
  136. What is a prodrug?
    A med that isnt active when administered, but whos biotransformation converts it into active metabolites
  137. What is the first pass effect?
    The livers partial or complete inactivation of a drug b/f it reaches the systemic circulation
  138. What is oxidation?
    The loss of hydrogen atoms or the acceptance of an O2 atom ^ pos charge on the molecule
  139. What are the 4 types of drug actions?
    • Binding to a receptor site
    • Changing physical props of cells
    • Chemically combining w/other chemicals
    • Altering normal metabolic pathway
  140. A receptor is a. . .
    Specialized protein that combines w/ a drug resulting in a biochemical effect
  141. What are the three universal special considerations when dealing w/Meds?
    • Pregnant
    • Pediatric
    • Geriatric
  142. Describe the chemical name of a drug:
    States chemical composition & molecular structure
  143. The generic name for a drug is:
    A drug name suggested by the manufacturer
  144. The official name for a drug:
    Name given to a drug when the FDA lists the drug in the USP
  145. The brand name for a drug is:
    The proper name for a drug given by the manufacturer