mtnjhutch

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mtnjhutch
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80038
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mtnjhutch
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2011-04-16 19:21:47
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CCS MEDICAL CODING
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  1. Which fo the following elements of history describe other signs and symptoms or possible contributory factors in the patient's present condition
    Review of Systems
  2. True or False
    Time should be used to determine the level of service only when the provider spends more than 35% of the face-to-face encounter with the patient on counseling and coordinating the patient's care.
    False
  3. Determine the level of service of a new patient's outpatient visit that was comprised of detailed history; comprehensive exam, and a medical decision making of low complexity.
    99203
  4. The highest level of E/M service measured in part by the extent/type of history captured is....
    Comprehensive
  5. A patient is admitted to the emergency room with a fractured arm. The emergency physician documents an expanded problem focused history, expanded problem focused exam, and a decision making of moderate complexity. What level of service has the physician documented?
    level 3
  6. Which component listed is NOT a key component in selecting a level of E/M service?
    • a. Examination
    • b. Medical decision-making
    • c. Coordination of Care x
    • d. History
  7. A patient who presents for a visit, b ut has not received any professional services (face to face) by the physician or another member of the group in the same specialty within the past three years is considered
    new patient
  8. What are the two categories of the 1997 exams?
    General multi-system exam and the single organ system exam
  9. True or False
    Overuse of high level E/M service can trigger an audit during post payment revew by Medicare.
    true
  10. Select the level of service for a new patient outpatient evaluation where a comprehensive history, comprehensive exam, and a straight forward medical decision making was documented.
    level 2
  11. Patient presents to the hospital with premature labor. The Obstetrician exames her and observes her in the office. The physician decides to move the patient to observation status after her labor pains continue. The patient remains in observation status the next day, through the evening and is released the following morning.
    (99218-99220), (99224-99226), 99217
  12. Should CPT code 20692 carry modifier 50 if the procedure was done bilaterally?
    yes
  13. If a surgery is discontinued due to uncontrollable bleeding, hypotension, neurologic impairment, or other situations that threaten the well-being of the patient, it should be coded by appenidng the modifier _____________ to the surgical procedure code.
    53
  14. What modifier should be appended to the level of evaluation and management visit to identify that the decision for surgery was made during the preoperative period of a major surgery
    57
  15. If a physician is performing a laproscopic cholecystectomy and encounters significant complications resulting in 40 additional intra-operative minutes, modifier _____ should be appended to the procedure code in order to possibly receive more than the allowed amount
    22
  16. true or false

    anesthesia CPT codes range from 00100-01999.
    true
  17. What is the appropriate CPT code for anesthesia given to a 25 year old male under going a surgical arthroscopy of the right knee?
    01400
  18. An HIV positive patient with a severe and recurrent systemic candida infection whould have which of the following physical status modifiers attached to the claim submitted by the anesthesiologist who administraters anesthesia.
    P4
  19. True or False

    CRNAs are doctors (anesthesiologists) who have not yet completed their residency requirements and therefore sometimes require special modifiers to bill Medicare for their services.
    True
  20. true or false

    For multiple procedures performed under a single anesthesia service, the total time for all the procedures is placed on the same line as the procedure with the highest base units.
    true
  21. A single anesthesia time unit consists of how many minutes.
    15
  22. The correct anesthesia CPT code for a patient receiving a heart transplant is?
    00580
  23. PCA
    Drug Delivery System
  24. persistant pain lasting for 6 months or more
    chronic pain
  25. Drugs that prevent seizures
    anticonvulsants
  26. Another word for narcotics
    opioids
  27. pain receptor
    nociceptor
  28. a sensation of discomfort, or distress etc
    pain
  29. body produced natural pain reliever
    endorphins
  30. general term for pain relief medications
    analgesic
  31. intramuscular injection
    IM
  32. a 10 month old baby is admitted for surgery. the anesthesiologist administers anesthesia for the laryngoplasty that the surgeon performs. The procedure is successful and lasts a total of 2 hours. what code would be used
    00326
  33. Mr. Atkins severely burns his arm while cooking. He is rushed to the hospital and is prepared for 98 sq cm skin xenografts to temporarily cover the wound while a permanent skin replacement is prepared. what CPT should be used
    15400
  34. Which of the following is the removal of infected, contaminated, damaged, devitalized, necrotic, or foreign tissue from a wound?
    debridement
  35. What is the Rule of Nines used for
    to calculate the percentage of burns on the body
  36. Free skin grafts include
    split grafts, full thickness grafts and pinch grafts
  37. true or false

    When the only service provided is the non-surgical cleansing of the wound or ulcer with or without the application of surgical dressing, the provider should bill this service with an appropriate debridement code(s) and not the evaluation and mangement code.
    false
  38. What are the two categories of incision and drainage procedures?
    Simple and complex
  39. A patient resents with a pilonidal syst. The physician incises the syst and drains the fluid. The lining of the cyst is removed with a curette. there were no documented complications for this procedure. the appropriate CPT for the procedure is
    10080
  40. Repair of wounds may be classified as?
    simple, complex or intermediate
  41. true or false

    a skin tag is defined as a polypoid outgrowth of both epidermis and dermal fibrovascular.
    true
  42. What disease is classified as mycobacterium leprae infection causing chronic inflammatory lesions?
    Leprosy
  43. Code the following procedure: A patient with a compression injury to the thigh receives a fasciotomy to relieve the pressure caused by the inflammation.
    27025
  44. Code the following scenario: a patient receives an x-ray that detects a subcutaneous foreign body in the left upper arm caused by a motor vehicle accident. A surgeon anesthetizes the area with 1% xylocain and removes the subcutaneous foreign body with forceps.
    24200
  45. What is the appropriate CPT code for an arthrodesis of 4 vertebral segments to correct a spinal deformity? The procedure is performed posteriorly and the patient is casted post-operatively.
    22800
  46. What is the appropriate CPT code for a unilateral, open treatment of an iliac spine fracture without pelvic ring disturbance?
    27215
  47. What is the appropriate CPT code for the closed treatment (manipulation) of a vertebral fracture including bracing and anesthesia?
    22315
  48. Code the following scenario: A patient receives a sequestrectomy on the shaft of her upper arm.
    24134
  49. Code the following scenario: Aphysician performs arthrocenteses on an interphalangeal joint to remove the fluid sample.
    20600
  50. What is the appropriate CPT code for a biopsy of a soft tissue within the leg?
    27614
  51. What is the appropriate CPT code when the physician performs a partial ostectomy of the sternum?
    21620
  52. Code the following encounter: Apatient presents to the doctors office with nasal polyps. The physician excises a polyp from each nasal cavity.
    30110-50
  53. inflammation of the lungs is
    pneumonia
  54. Sudden severe inability to breathe is
    Acute respiratory failure
  55. Action opposite to "expiration" is
    inspriration
  56. Another world for "Alveoli" is
    Air sacs
  57. PIDS is
    Primary immunodeficiency syndrome
  58. CF is
    Fatal mucus/sweat fland disease affecting the lungs
  59. High blood pressure in the lungs is called
    pulmonary hypertension
  60. Wheezing with chronic bronchitis is also called
    Asthmatic bronchitis
  61. A1AT is
    Alpha-1 antitrypsin
  62. ET is what
    Tube used to connect a patient to a respirator
  63. Code the following scenario: A patient receives a surgical thoracoscopy, at the same time a physician performs a segmental lobectomy on the left lung. Following the pulmonary lobectory the physician removes the endoscope and places a tube to drain the fluid from the lung.
    32663
  64. Which of the following parts is not included in the respiratory in the respiratory system CPT codes (30000-32999)?
    Mouth
  65. Code the following scenario: An acceptable donor is found for a patient requiring a lung transplant. The brain dead donor's lung is harvested through a midline incision through the sternum. The organ is removed and kept in cold preservaion until it is needed for an organrecipient.
    32850
  66. What is the appropriate CPT code for the repair of nasal septal perforations?
    30630
  67. An 18 month- old boy with severe epoglottitis receives a planned tracheostomy. What is the appropriate CPT code for the procedure?
    31601
  68. Rhinoplasty is the sugical modification of the _________
    Nose

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