Exam 3

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Exam 3
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Adv Physiology Exam 3
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  1. Where is prolactin released?
    By the anterior pituitary
  2. What does Prolactin do?
    Promotoes mammary gland development and milk production.
  3. 35, p.224: Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones plays a major role in the regulation of a nonendocrine target gland?
    Prolactin
  4. 43, p.225: Which of the following is most likely to produce the > increase in glucagon secretion?
    Amino acids
  5. 2 things AA stimulate are?
    glucagon and insulin secretion
  6. 2 things that inhibit glucagon secretions are?
    Glucose and Somatostatin
  7. What does Glucagon do?
    Stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver, but it has no physiological effects in muscle
  8. What do glucagon and cortisol increase?
    gluconeogenesis
  9. What does cortisol impair?
    glucose uptake by muscle
  10. 49, p.225: Which of the followin gpairs of hormones is incorrect?
    • a) Glucagon-increased glycogenolysis in liver
    • **b) Glucagon-increased glycogenolysis in muscle
    • c)Glucagon-increased gluconeogenesis
    • d) Cortisol-increased gluconeogenesis
    • e)Cortisol-decreased glucose uptake in muscle
  11. 30, p.224: Which of te following is most teo produce the > increase in insulin secretion?
    AA and glucose
  12. What inhibits insulin secretion?
    Somatostatin
  13. 19, p. 222: Some cells secrete chemicals into the extracellular fluid that act on cells in the same tissue. Which of the following refers to this type of regulation?
    Paracrine
  14. What do Paracrine cells do?
    Paracrine communication refers to cell secretions that diffuse into the extracellular fluid to affect neighboring cells.
  15. 20, p.223: Which of the following pairs is an example of the type of regulation referred to re: Paracrine cell regulation?
    • Somatostatine-insulin secretion
    • (the delta cells of the pancreas secrete somatostatin, which inhibits the secretion of insulin and glucagon from the pancreatic beta and alpha cells.)
  16. 10, p.222: Which of the following statements concerning milk production by the breast is true?
    It is stimulated by prolactin
  17. 3, p.221: Which of the following statements about ADH is true?
    It has opposite effects on urine and plasma osmolality
  18. What does ADH do to collecting tubules and ducts to water?
    Increases permeability of collecting ducts and tubules to water.
  19. What does ADH do to collecting ducts and tubules concerning Na?
    DOES NOT increase the permeability to NA, therefore it increases water reabsorption and decreases water excretion. Urine concentration increases, and the retained water dilutes the plasma.
  20. Where is ADH synthesized?
    ADH is synthesized in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus & has NO direct effect on the thirst center.
  21. 50, p.226: A large dose on insulin is given IV. What hormonal changes are most likely to occur in the plasma?
    • Growth Hormone-Increase
    • Glucagon-Increase
    • Epinephrine-Increase
    • (Insulin decreases blood glucose concentration, hypoglycemia stimulates the secretion of GH, Glucagon, & epi) all of which have counter regulatory effects to increase glucose levels in the blood).
  22. After a large injection of insulin IV, what happens to the glucose in the blood?
    Decreases blood glucose concentration.
  23. 62, p. 227:When compared w/the postabsorptive state, which of the above sets of metabolic changes would likely occur during the postprandial state? To hepatic glucose uptake, muscle glucose uptake, and hormone-sensitive lipase activity?
    • Hepatic glucose uptake-increase
    • Muscle glucose uptake-increase
    • Hormone-sensitive lipase acitivy-decrease
  24. 63, p. 227: When compared w/resting conditions, which of the above sets of metabolic changes would most likely occur during exercise? To hepatic glucose uptake, muscle glucose uptake, and hormone-sensitive lipase activity?
    • Hepatic glucose uptake-decrease
    • Muscle glucose uptake-increase
    • Hormone-sensitive lipase acitivy-increase
  25. 86, p. 229: What stimulates secretion of PTH?
    Decrease in extracellular calcium ion activity below the normal value.
  26. 95, p. 230: Which of the following hormones has anabolic effects in muscle at physiological concentrations but is catabolic at very high levels?
    T4-thyroxine
  27. 101, p. 231: Cortisol and GH are most dissimilar in the metabolic effects on which of the following?
    Protein synthesis in muscle.
  28. What is GH?
    anabolic and promotes protein synthesis in most cells of the body. (Both GH & Cortisol impair glucose uptake in peripherial tissues, tend to increase plasma glucose concentration, mobilize triglycerides from fat stores.)
  29. What is cortisol?
    • Cortisol, decreases protein synthesis in extrahepatic cells, including muscle. (Both GH and Cortisol impair glucose uptake in peripherial tissues, tend to increase plasma
    • glucose concentration, mobilize triglycerides from fat stores.)
  30. 120, p.233: Which of the following physiological responses is > for T3 than for T4?
    Affinity for nuclear receptors in target tissues.
  31. Secretion rate, plasma concentration, half-life, and onseg of action are all greater in T3 or T4?
    T4.
  32. 128, p. 233: Which of the following would produce opposite diretional changes in insulin and glucagon secretion?
    Increased sympathetic activity
  33. What does activation of the sympathetic nervous system do to insulin and glucagon?
    • Decreases insulin secretion
    • Increases glucagon secretion
  34. AA acids stimulate the secretion of what hormones?
    Insulin and Glucagon
  35. In type 2 DM, the plasma levels of both insulin and glucagon are?
    Elevated
  36. 3, p. 147: The release of a neurotransmitter at a chemical synapse in the CNS is dependent on which of the following?
    Influx of Ca into the synaptic terminal
  37. 5, p.147: Pain receptors in the skin are typicallys classified as?
    Free nerve endings
  38. 7, p. 147: Which of the following is a nonencapsulated receptor found in the epidermis of skin throughout the body as well as in the cornea, where it signals touch, pressure, and pain sensations?
    Free nerve ending
  39. 12, p.147: The excitatory or inhibitory action of a neurotransmitter is determined by which of the following?
    Function of its postsynaptic receptor
  40. 13, p.147: Which of the following statements concerning the transmission of pain signals into the CNS is correct?
    Type A$ pain fibers are responsible for the localization of a pain stiumulus.
  41. 14, p.148: Which of the following is the system that transmits somatosensory information with the highest degree of temporal and spatial fidelity?
    Dorsal column-medial lemniscal system
  42. 16. p.148: Which transmitter agent is used by the fast pain fibers at their synapses in the dorsal horm?
    Glutamate
  43. 17, p.148: In chemical synapses that involve a so-called 2nd messenger, typicallys a G protein linked to the post synaptic receptor is activated when neurotransmitter binds to that receptor. Which of the following represents an activity performed by the activated 2nd messenger?
    Activation of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) or cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP)
  44. 19, p.148: Which of the following systems conveys information concerning highly localized touch sensation and body postion (proprioceptive) sensation?
    Dorsal column-medial lemniscal system
  45. 21, p.148: The first-order (primary afferent) cell bodies of the dorsal column-medial lemniscal system are found in which of the following structures?
    Dorsal root ganglia
  46. 25, 149: Which of the following is characteristic of the events occurring at an excitatory synapse?
    Ligand-gated channels are opened to allow sodium to enter the postynaptic neuron
  47. 37, p.149: Which of the following is the basis for referred pain?
    Some visceral pain signals and pain signals from the skin provide convergent input to a common set of neurons in the dorsal horn.
  48. 39, p.150: Which of the following statements best describes the effect on sensory receptors subjected to an increase in the frequency of stimulation?
    Variable rate of adaptation
  49. 40, p.150: Which of the following statements concerning visceral pain signals is correct?
    They are transmitted along sensory fibers that course mainly w/sympathetic nerves in the abdomen and thorax.
  50. 44, p.150: Which of the following electrical events is characteristic of inhibitory synaptic interactions?
    A neurotransmitter agent that selectively opens ligand-gated chloride channels is the basis for an inhibitory postynaptic potential.
  51. 46, p. 150: The ability ot detect two points simultaneously applied to the skin is based on which physiological mechanisms?
    Lateral inhibition
  52. 49, p.151: Synapses tht involve a G protein as a 2nd messenger are characterized by which of the following events occuring in the postynaptic cell that is directly attiutable to the G protein?
    Activation of gene transcription
  53. 51, p151: Which one f the following statments concerning sensory neurons or their functional properties is true?
    In Spatial summation, increasing signal strength is transmitted by using progressively greater #s of sensory fibers.
  54. 55, p.151: Position sense or, more commonly, proprioceptive senstation involves muscle spindles and which of the following?
    Both tactile and joint capsule receptors.
  55. 56, p.151: The sensation of temperature is signaled mainly by warm and cold receptors whose sensory fibers travel in association w/the sensory fibers carrying pain signals. Which of the following statements best chracterizes the transmission of signals from warm receptors?
    Signals from warm receptors are transmitted mainly along slow-conducting type C sensory fibers.
  56. 59, p.152: Which of the following statements concerning synaptic transmission is correct?
    Dendrites cannot propagate action potentials, but they can transmit electrical potentials by electronic conduction.
  57. 60, p.152: Which of the following statements regarding the processing of sensory signals by a pool of neurons is correct?
    The distribution of multiple input signals from a single source onto many neurons in the pool is an example of convergence.
  58. What is divergence?
    Occurs when input signals are sent to multiple neurons in a pool, and each neuron then initiates a signal in its own output channel
  59. Characteristics of the anterolateral pathway compared to the dorsal column-medial lemniscal system.
    Velocities of transmission are slower, the degree of spatial localization of signals is poor, gradations of intensities are also less accurate, poor ability to transmit signals rapidly
  60. Anterolatral system is
    cruder type of transmission system, transmits pain, temperature, tickle, itch, and sexual sensations, in addition to crude touch and pressure
  61. Dorsal column-medial lemniscal systerm:
    distinct spatial orientation of nerve fibers, Somatosensory areas
  62. Lateral inhibition:
    2-point discrimination for touch
  63. Fast sharp pain signals are elicted by?
    mechanical or thermal pain stimuli
  64. fast sharp pain are transmitted by what fibers?
    A$ fibers
  65. chronic pain is transmitted to the spinal cord by what fibers?
    Type C fibers
  66. Review the relationship b/t intraocular pressure and resistance to outflow of aqueous humor in the canal of Schlemm. p.607
    The level of intraocular pressure is determined mainly by the resistance to ouflow of aqueous humor from the anterior chamber into the canal of shlemm.
  67. What in normal intraocular pressure?
    15 mm hg (12 to 20 considered normal)
  68. 65, p.164: What structure secretes teh intraocular fluid of the eye?
    Ciliary process
  69. Intraocular fluid flows how?
    from behind the iris, thru the pupil, into the anterior chamber of the eye, flows anterior to the lens, thru the meshwork of trabeculae, entering the canal of Schlemm, which empties into extraocular veins (Aqueous veins).
  70. 71, p. 164: Intraocular fluid flows from the canal of Schlemm to where?
    Aqueous veins
  71. pg. 609: What is the light sensitive photochemical found in the outer segment of rods?
    rhodopsin
  72. pg. 609: What is the photchemical found in the outer segment of cones?
    Color pigments
  73. pg. 609: What are rhodopsin and color pigments?
    Conjugated proteins
  74. What is in the outer segments of rods and cones?
    outer segments contain discs and both rhodopsin for rods and color pigments for cones
  75. What does the inner segment of a rod or cone contain?
    • cytoplasm with byoplasmic organelles
    • *Mitochondria, provide energy for the fx of photoreceptors
  76. What is the synaptic body of a rod or cone?
    portion of the rod or cone that connects with subsequent neuronal cells, the HORIZONTAL and BIPOLAR cells.
  77. What is central fovea?
    minute area in the center of the retina, capable of acute and detailed vision.
  78. pg. 609:What is the central fovea mostly composed of?
    almost entirely of cones
  79. How does light pass through the eye? pg. 609
    Light passes thru the lens system of teh eye, throught the vitreous humor (behind the lens-gellatin type substance), enter the retina from the inside of the eye, and goes through 9 layes of the retina.
  80. Understand how night vision affects the central fovea.
    Central fovea in the middle of the retina, the light sensitive portion of the eye, contains cones, responsible for color vision, and rods, which can detect dim light and are mainly responsible for black and shite vision and vision in the dark.
  81. Deficiency of Vitamin A causes?
    Night blindness
  82. What is Vitamin A essential to form?
    formation of Rhodopsin, light-sensitive chemical in rods, resposible for black & white vision, and vision in the dark
  83. 4, p.159: When comparin the fovea w/the periphery of the retina, which statement is correct?
    The fovea contains a greater proportion of cones
  84. 22, p. 160: Deficiency of what vitamin prevents the formation of an adequate quantity of retinal, eventually leading to night blindness.
    Vitamin A
  85. 28, p.161: Which of the following events causes rods to HYPER-POLARIZE in response to light?
    Decrease in sodium conductance into the outer segment.
  86. Excitation of the rod when Rhodospsin is activated by light is?
    hyperpolarizing, causing increased negativity of the intrarod membrane potential
  87. How does activation of rhodopsin cause hyperpolariazation? p. 612
    When rhodopsin decomposes, it decreases the rod membrane conductance for Na ions in the outer segment of the rod, this causes hyperpolarization of the entire rod membrane
  88. 46, p. 162: Which of the following statements regarding visual acuity is correct?
    Normal visual acuity allows 2 bright spots of light to be distinguished from 10 meters away as long as the spots are at least 2 mm apart.
  89. 39, p.162: For the eye to adapt to intense light, which of the following may occur?
    Photochemicals in both rods and cones are reduced to retinal and opsins. (The reduction of rhodopsin and cone pibments by light decreases the concentrations of photsensitive chemicals in rods and cones) thus, the sensitivity of the eye to light is correspondingly reduced. This is called light adaptaion.
  90. 1, p.159: Which of the follwoing staements regarding the lateral geniculate nucleus is correct?
    Layer 1 receives the signals that originate from the rods.
  91. 6, p.159: Light entering the eye passes thru which retinal layer first?
    Retinal ganglion layer
  92. What part of the eye is the phtoreceptors located?
    Posterior region of the retina
  93. 17, p160:Which of the following statements regarding the basilar membrane is correct?
    It vibrates best at high frequency near the base of the cochlea, it vibrates best at low frequency at the apex of the cochlea
  94. 18, p.160: Which primary taste stimulus is correctly paired w/its primary location on the tongue?
    Sweet-anterior tongue
  95. 27, p.161: Which of the following best describes the transmission of sound waves in the cochlea?
    The foot of the stapes moves inward against the oval window, and the round window bulges outward
  96. 161, #29: Which of the following statements regarding the cranial nerve innervation of the tongue is correct?
    Taste information from the posterior third of the tongue is transmitted to the solitary nucleus by the glossopharyngeal nerve
  97. 30, p.161: Olfactory receptors cells belong to which groups of cells?
    Bipolar neurons
  98. 31, p.161: Which of the following statements regarding hair cells is correct?
    Transmission of auditory signals is performed mainly by inner hair cells rather than outer hair cells
  99. 34, p.161: Which of the follwoing conditions is caused by a lesion of the optic chiasm?
    Bitemporal hemianopsia
  100. 44, p.162: Which of the following events prompts the auditory system to interpret a sound as loud?
    Amplitude of vibration of the basilar membrane increases
  101. p. 163, 50: Which of the following functions remains intact w/complete bilateral destruction of the primary auditory cortex?
    Ability to react in a relatively nonspecific manner to sound
  102. 51, p. 163: Which muscle is contracted as part of the pupillary light reflex?
    Pupillary sphincter muscle
  103. 57, p. 163: Which neurotransmitters is released by both rods and cones at their synapses w/bipolar cells?
    Glutamate
  104. 60, p.164: Transmission of visual signals to the primary visual cortex from the retina includes a synapse in which structure?
    lateral geniculate nucleus
  105. What are X ganglion cells responsible for?
    all color vision, and are the most numerous of the the 3 types of ganglion cells
  106. What are the Y ganglion cells responsible for?
    Respond to rapid changes, largest, least numerous
  107. What are W ganglions cells?
    respond best to directional movement or vision under dark conditions
  108. 65, p.164: What secretes the intraocular fluid of the eye?
    ciliary process
  109. 70, p.164: The primary auditory cortex lies primarily in which lobe of the cerebral cortex?
    parietal lobe
  110. 74, p.165: Visual contrast is enhanced due to lateral inhibition by which retinal cells?
    Horizontal cells
  111. 2, p.175: As they leave the spinal cord and course peripherally to skeletal muscle, the axons of motor neurons must pass thru which of the following structures?
    Anterior root
  112. 5, p.175: What is the general fx role of the cerebellum?
    The cerebellum plays an active role in the cordination of the muscles required to make a movement.
  113. 8, p.175: Which of the followin would produce an increase in cerebral blood flow?
    increase in carbon dioxide concentration
  114. 16, p.176: Whast is the fx role for the inermediate zone of the cerebellum?
    Controls movements that involve distal limb musculature
  115. 17, p. 176: Under which conditions would the sympathetic nervous system play the most important role in regulating cerebral blood flow?
    Increase of 70% in cerebral arterial pressure occurring over 2 minutes
  116. 22, p.176:Recurrent branches of motor neuron axons contact which structure within the spinal cord gray matter?
    renshaw cell
  117. 37, p.177: Which statement is true about muscle and passive stretch of muscle spindles?
    Primary (Ia) sensory fibers increase their firing rate
  118. 41, p. 178:CSF provides a cushioning effect both inside and outside the brain. Which spaces lies outside the brain or spinal cord and contains CSF?
    Cisterna magna
  119. 47, p.178: Which structures serves as an "alternative pathway" for signals from the motor cortex to the spinal cord?
    Red nucleus
  120. 48, p.178: A reticular area that inhibits the ascending reticular activating system is located at which of the following levels?
    Medial medulla
  121. 55, p.179: Motor cortex neurons receive feedback from muscles activated by the corticospinal system. This feedback arises from which of the following structures?
    Skin surface of fingers used to grasp an object
  122. 58, p.179: In controlling the fine muscles of the hands and fingers, corticospinal axons can synapse primarly with?
    spinal cord motor neurons
  123. 60, p. 179: Which of the follwoing cells receives direct synaptic input from Golgi tendon organs?
    Type Ib inhibitory interneurons
  124. 63, p. 179: In addition to influencing the fx of muscles, the corticospinal system regulates movement by its involvement with?
    Spinal reflex circuits, such as those involved in the stretch reflex
  125. 69, p.180: Describe the relationship of the CSF pressure to venous pressure in the superior sagittal sinus.
    A few millimeters higher
  126. 71, p.180: Describe a characteristic fx difference b/t a Golgi tendon organ and a muscle spindle?
    Output signals of a Golgi tendon organ lead to inactivation of the muscle associated w/the active tendon organ
  127. 73, p.180: Out put signals from Golgi tendon organs are transmitted to which higher center?
    Cerebellum
  128. 80, p.181: The withdrawal reflex is initiated by stimulation delivered to which receptor?
    Cutaneous free nerve ending
  129. 81, p.181: Which substance activates alpha and beta adrenergic receptors equally well?
    Epinephrine
  130. 87, p.182: Which reflex is correctly paired w/the sensory structure that mediates the reflex?
    Stretch reflex-muscle spindle
  131. 88, p.182: What is the structural basis of the blood-CSF barrier?
    Tight junctions b/t adjacent choroid plexus cells
  132. 95, p.183: Brain edema is a serious complcation of altered fluid dynamics in the brain. Continuous progression of brain edema may lead to what situation?
    Compression of blood vessels, leading to ischemia and compensatory capillary dilatation
  133. 104, p. 183: Which sequence below accurately describes the flow of signals linking the basal ganglia to other parts of the brain?
    Cerebral cortex> caudate>globus pallidus>thalamus
  134. 100, p.183: What is dominated by the sympathetic nervous system?
    • ** A-Systemic blood vessels
    • B-Heart
    • C-GI gland secretion
    • D-Salivary glands
    • E-GI motility
  135. 111, p.184: Retrograde amnesia is the inability to recall long term memories from the past. Damage to which of the follwoing brain regions leads to retrograde amnesia?
    thalamus
  136. 117, p.185: Which component of the basal ganglia plays the major role in the control of cognitive (memory-guided) motor activity?
    Caudate nucleus
  137. 120, p.185: Stimulation of the punishment center can inhibit the reward center, deomonstrating that fear and punishment can take precedence over pleasure and reward, Which cell groups is considered the punishment center?
    Periventricular hypothalamus and midbrain central gray

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