CDC

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soouthsider6rider
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81622
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CDC
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2011-04-25 22:36:37
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engine
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volume 1 unit 1,2
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  1. Which squadrons form a maintenance group?
    Maintenance, operations, quality assurance.
  2. QA recommends possible corrective actions to which level?
    Supervisors.
  3. Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet healthindicators?
    Maintenance operations center.
  4. When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flightwill you most likely be assigned?
    specialist.
  5. What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?
    On-the-job training.
  6. You may attend the ALS after having how many months in the Air Force?
    48.
  7. Which program’s purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Forceemployees?
    AFOSH
  8. Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series
    91
  9. Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnelto display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
    21–101.
  10. Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe toproceed?
    Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft.
  11. How far does a propeller’s axis of rotation extend?
    10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.
  12. To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of theaircraft?
    200
  13. FOD is normally caused by
    people
  14. Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program?
    Maintenance group commander.
  15. During flightline and test cell operations, you may be exposed to
    carbon moxide
  16. Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when theyare in the form of
    gases
  17. Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintainpersonal protective equipment
    safety
  18. Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent
    . unauthorized entry.
  19. A common method for disposing of hazardous wasted is
    dilution
  20. For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify
    incineration
  21. A specialized function of the supply mission is
    repair
  22. From what perspective does the RSS manage supply?
    weapons system
  23. Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?
    repair cycle support system
  24. Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristicsfunction or application, are predetermined to require
    overhaul
  25. Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all documentnumbers processed during the day by the SBSS?
    Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23).
  26. ) Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basisbecause of what difference in each organization?
    mission
  27. What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?
    Origin of an item.
  28. Which provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350tag?
    TO 00–20–2.
  29. If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to orderan engine part?
    AF IMT 2005
  30. If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer toAFMAN
    23–110.
  31. Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance?
    DD Form 1575.
  32. Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will performsatisfactorily over a specified period of time?
    shelf life
  33. When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item
    has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life
  34. A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency
    that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.
  35. Within how many hours must Category I DR be forwarded to the screening point?
    24
  36. Which type of items must be reflected on the CA/CRL?
    Equipment Authorization Inventory Data.
  37. To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
    commander
  38. The first part of a TO number identifies the
    category and type of equipment in the TO.
  39. The second part of a TO number gives the
    type of equipment in the TO.
  40. In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?
    index
  41. Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenanceaction?
    job guide
  42. Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals(IETMS)?
    Urgent recommendations.
  43. What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?
    introduction
  44. What category of TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality orserious injury to personnel?
    Immediate action.
  45. Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?
    00–20–2.
  46. How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed?
    The word “changed” will be marked on the text or picture
  47. An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for
    preliminary TOs.
  48. Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission?
    Supervisor of initiator.
  49. Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, couldcause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property?
    emergency
  50. What are the two classifications of failures in RCM?
    Potential and functional.
  51. In RCM, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potentialfailure condition?
    on condition
  52. The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by
    early detection of performance degradation and/or failures
  53. Within the ET&D program, to whom do flightline personnel transfer collected data foranalysis
    Base engine maintenance shop.
  54. Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the ET&D program?
    Propulsion and nondestructive inspection.
  55. What drives the creation of a CRP?
    Customer wait time and transportation constraints.
  56. Who maintains accountability of CIRF assets and reports their status?
    Production supervisor.
  57. When a CIRF ships a replacement asset to a deployed unit, who is responsible for ensuringall appropriate documentation is completed?
    CIRF personnel
  58. What supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing anyrepairs beyond their responsibility/capability?
    Depot maintenance
  59. Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by
    providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability.
  60. Depot level support includes CLSS crews, depot maintenance support, maintenanceassistance, and
    field teams.
  61. A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to
    maintain accurate and timely engine inventories.
  62. The key to making the CEMS work is
    accurate and timely data at the lowest level.
  63. For how many categories of reporting does the CEMS establish and maintain records?
    2
  64. You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on which one of thefollowing AFTO Forms?
    95
  65. To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO Form
    95
  66. What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer programs?
    Identify engines requiring TCTO maintenance
  67. Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?
    Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets.
  68. How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, andaccessories?
    2

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