Phlebotomy Cert Review

Card Set Information

Author:
cotypatricia
ID:
82642
Filename:
Phlebotomy Cert Review
Updated:
2011-04-29 03:40:04
Tags:
Phlebotomy
Folders:

Description:
Review for NCCT Phlebotomy Certification Exam
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview

The flashcards below were created by user cotypatricia on FreezingBlue Flashcards. What would you like to do?


  1. The forearm vein most commonly used for venipuncture is the?
    Median cubital
  2. The smallest veins in the human body are known as?
    Venules
  3. The aorta branches into smaller divisions called arteries, which in turn branch into even smaller divisions called?
    Arterioles
  4. Characteristics of capillaries include?
    Having thin walls forming microscopic pathways, and connecting arterioles with venules
  5. Within the capillaries blood cell functions include?
    releasing oxygen, binding carbon dioxide, eliminating waste
  6. The heart, lymphatic, organs and blood vessles are in the ____ system?
    Cardiovascular
  7. The suffix URIA at the end of a medical term refers what body location?
    Urine
  8. They study of blood is known as?
    Hematology
  9. The liver, stomach, mouth and pancreas are in the _____ system?
    Digestive
  10. The most important step to ensure accuracy in simple collection is?
    Identifying the patient properly
  11. The bladder, urethra, kidneys and ureters are in the ____ system?
    Urinary
  12. The trachea, nose, lungs and phaynx are in the ____ system?
    Respiratory
  13. The sebaceous glands, skin, hair and nails are in the ___ system?
    Integumentary
  14. The body system that is a primary regulator of hormones is the ___ system?
    Endocrine
  15. Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes and monocytes are types of?
    White blood cells
  16. The common name for the thrombocytes is the?
    Platelet
  17. The liquid portion of an anticoagulated blood sample is known as?
    Plasma
  18. The instrument that measures blood pressure is called a?
    Sphygmomanometer
  19. An artery can be distinguished from a vein because an artery will be?
    pulsating
  20. Lancets are used to collect blood samples by?
    Capillary or skin puncture
  21. The abbreviation VAD is commonly used in hospitals to refer to?
    Venous Access Devices
  22. To determine the size of the needle, remember that the higher the gauge the?
    Smaller the needle bore
  23. Adult Capillary punctures most often involve use of the ___ finger(s)
    Third and fourth (middle and ring)
  24. A centrifuge is used in a clinical laboratory setting to?
    Seperate liquid from cells in blood
  25. The oral glucose tolerance test is used for detection of?
    Diabetes
  26. Use a ___ toped evacuated tube for collection of blood for a CBC test
    Lavender
  27. Use a ____ topped evacuated tube for collection of blood for electrocyte testing
    Red
  28. Use a ____ topped evacuated tube for collection of blood for cholesterol testing
    Red
  29. Sodium citrate is an anticoagulation because it protects?
    Clotting factors
  30. When preparing a blood smear directly from a skin puncture it is best to?
    Wipe away the first drop of blood
  31. The purpose of doing blood cultures is to detect?
    Septicemia
  32. Anticoagulants are used to?
    Prevent blood from clotting
  33. Whit blood cells help the body by?
    Defending against foreign invaders
  34. Platelets help the circulation by?
    Participating in hemostasis
  35. When blood seeps into the surrounding tissue during a venipuncture, a __ may form?
    Hematoma
  36. In a paitient with a clotting disorder, pressure should be applied to the puncture sit for at least __ after venipuncutre to insure blood stoppage?
    5 minuets
  37. Skin punctures may be indicated for use when?
    The patient is an infant, toddler, or preschooler, only a small amount of blood is needed, Patient veins need to be preserved for IV therapy
  38. All specimens should be labled with?
    Patients name (and numeric ID) Date and Time the specimen was drawn, collectors initials
  39. When performing a skin puncutre, squeezing the finger to tightly may dilute the blood with __ and ruin the test?
    Tissue fluid
  40. One test often used to asses hemostasis before surgery is?
    Bleeding time
  41. One possible cause of unexpected clotting in an anticoagulated blood tube might be?
    Insufficient Mixing
  42. When performing a venipuncture, position the bevel of the needle?
    Facing up
  43. If blood does not appear in an evacuated tube upon venipuncture, a phlebotomists first course of action she be to?
    Slightly reposition or turn the needle
  44. Redirecting a needle during venipuncture is sometimes necessary when?
    The vein was not properly anchored, the patient moves unexpectedly, blood flow starts and then stops
  45. A vein might be prone to collapse if the?
    Vacuum tube is too large for vein or syringe plunger was pulled back to quickly
  46. Hemolysis would cause rejection of a sample collected for __ testing?
    Potassium
  47. If a patient is prone to syncope during venipuncture, the phlebotomist shoud?
    Watch in case of fainting
  48. A tube of blood that arrives in the labortary without a label must be?
    Rejected automatically
  49. If a blood sample should be collected 2 hours post pradial, the phlebotomist should collect the sample?
    2 hours after a meal
  50. Knowing when to collect peak and through levels is important when drawing?
    Therapeutic drugs
  51. A pre warming tech may be used to?
    Increase patients tendency to bleed
  52. The rolse of all anticoagulants is ultimately to prevent formation of?
    Fibrin
  53. The anitcoagulant EDTA works by?
    Binding calcium
  54. If the tourniquet is not released before the needle is withdrawn from the arm during venipuncutre, this will most likely result in?
    Bleeding from the site
  55. This test sample is light sensitive?
    Bilirubin
  56. The ___ must be followed exactly whenever drawing patient test samples that may be used in a legal proceeding
    Chain of custody
  57. The anticoagulant SPS (Sodium polyanetholesulfonate) is recommended for use in blood cultures because it?
    does not inhibit bacterial growth
  58. Before entering an inpatient room if the door is closed, the phlebotomist should always?
    Knock, ask for permission to enter, check for isolation signage
  59. Before entering designated isolation rooms, phlebotomists should always?
    Check requirements on signs
  60. The single most important means of preventing the spread of infection in a hospital is by?
    Hand washing
  61. The most prevalent tube of nosocomial infections are those of the?
    Urinary tract
  62. Phlebotomists have a statistically greater chance of contracting __ in a work related incident that they do of contracting AIDS?
    Hepatitis
  63. AIDS is caused by?
    HIV virus
  64. When performing heelsticks on infants in a hospital nursery, it is important never to?
    Share supplies from one infant to another
  65. When delivering blood samples to a labortary, they should always be transported?
    Inside sealed plastic bags
  66. If a biohazard spills in the lab a phlebotomist should first try to?
    Contain the spill safely
  67. According to OSHA a contaminated needle may be safely discarded into a?
    Sharps container
  68. In most hospitals, a phlebotomist with a cough may draw blood from a patient provided the?
    Patient is not in reverse isolation, phlebotomist waers a mask, phlebotomist does not have a fever
  69. When drawing blood from pediatric inpatients, a phlebotomist can increase safety for the patients by?
    Getting help to hold the patient securely during the draw, using a samller bore needle and smaller collection tubes, making sure the bedrails are left raised if found that way
  70. To eliminate bacteria from the skin of bacterial culture venipuncture site, __ is sometimes used in addition to alchol in cleansing process
    Iodine
  71. The term that refers to right and wrong conduct is?
    Ethics
  72. An unlawful threat or attempt to do bodily injury to another is?
    Assault
  73. Law protects the health worker if it can be determined that he or she acted reasonably as compared with fellow workers, this is called?
    Reasonable Care
  74. Negligence by professional person is called?
    Malpractice
  75. The ability to see things from another persons point of view is?
    Empathy
  76. A violations of a persons right not to have his or her name, photograph, or private affairs made public without giving consent is?
    Invasion of privacy
  77. Info given by a patient to medical personnel that cannot be disclosed without consent constitutes?
    Privileged communication
  78. Failure to do something a reasonalbe person would do under ordinary circumstances, or doing something a reasonable person would not do under ordinary circumstances thereby causing harm to another person is called?
    Negligence
  79. Permission granted by a person voluntarilys (and his right mind) is?
    Consent
  80. A phlebotomist who attempts to draw blood without sufficient training could be accused of ___ if the procedure is performed incorrectly, causing harm to the patient?
    Duty of care
  81. Forcing venipuncture on a patient who has refused it would be considerd?
    Battery
  82. The branch of study of moral issues, questions and problems arising in the practice of medicine and biomedical research is called?
    Bioethics
  83. Conduct, Courtesy, and manners, customary in the medical profession is called?
    Medical etiquette
  84. Each and every patient is entitled to ___ as part of his/her patient rights?
    Respect and complete care
  85. Some suggested methoda for controlling on the job stress during phlebotomy include?
    Using written communication
  86. In performing phlebotomu on children it is best to?
    Talk softly and gently, enlist the help of parents, tell the truth if asked!
  87. In approaching an elderly patient, it is apropriate to call the patient by name using?
    Miss, Mrs, Mr
  88. A patient who is making a fist and frowning is exhibitating ___ body language?
    Uncooperative
  89. A rubber or plastic tube used to drain or inject fluid through a body opening is called?
    Catheter
  90. A 24 hour urine sample must be kept?
    Refrigerated
  91. A chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin is called?
    Diabetes mellitus
  92. The purpose of the bleeding time test is to asses?
    Platelet plug formation in the capillaries
  93. Diurnal rhythms refer to variations in the bodys functions or fluids that occur durring?
    Every 24 hours
  94. EMLA is a emulsion of lidocaine and prilocaine that cane be used to?
    Topically anesthetize a draw site
  95. Another name for red blood cells is?
    Erythrocytes
  96. The artery located in the groin, lateral to the femur bone, which is used as an alternative site for arterial blood gas collections is the?
    Femoral
  97. The federal law that was expanded in 2000 to protect the confidentiality of electronically stored health info is abbreviated as?
    HIPPA
  98. The study of all aspect of disease in the body is known as?
    Pathology
  99. The phase of labortary testing that refers to test orders test collection and test sample preparation are all part of the ___ phase
    Pre Analytical
  100. A patient in reverse isolation have been so placed because he she?
    Needs protection from others carrying infection
  101. Anticoagulant in lavender top tubes?
    EDTA
  102. Anticoagulant in blue top tube?
    NaCitrate
  103. Arterial blood gases?
    ABG
  104. Fever of unknown origin
    FUO
  105. Sexually Transmitted disease
    STD
  106. hemoglobin and Hematocrit
    H & H
  107. Complete Blood Count
    CBC
  108. Red top or speckled tube
    Electrolytes
  109. Quality Control
    QC
  110. Center for disease control
    CDC
  111. ___ are contaminated objects that can penetrate the skin including, but not limited to needles, scalpels, broken glass, broken capillary tubes, and exposed ends of dental wires?
    Contaminated Sharps
  112. Reasonable possibility of skin, eye, mucous membrane, or parental contact with blood or other potentially infectous materials that may result from performance of an employees regualr duties is termed?
    Occupational exposure
  113. All of the following are examples of "personal protective equipment" except?
    • Uniforms***
    • gloves
    • Masks
    • Aprons
  114. To use physical- chemical procedure to destroy all microbial life including highly resistant bacterial endospores is to?
    Sterilize
  115. ___ is the single most important source of HIV and HBVin the workplace
    Blood
  116. OSHA requires that training and educational info on bloodborne pathogens be provided to hospital or clinical employees ___?
    at no cost to them
  117. All workers whose jobs involve participations in tasks or activities with exposure to blood or other body fluids to which universal precautions apply, should be vaccinated with a ____ Vaccine
    Hepatitis B
  118. After they are used, disposable syringes and needles, scalpel blades and other sharp items, should be placeds in containers for disposal?
    Puncture-resistant
  119. Broken glassware that may be contaminated should be picked up by?
    Mechanical means (broom, dustpan)
  120. Contaminated laundry should be ___ where it was soiled?
    Bagged or containerized at the location
  121. A specific eye, mouth, other mucous, membrane non intact skin, or parenteral contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials that results from the performance of an employees duties is called?
    exposure incident
  122. In the health care field when all evaluated services and the result compare with accepted standards principles of ___ have been used?
    Quality assurance
  123. The federal gov requires that specimens are transported or shipped in?
    water tight containers
  124. The classification the physicians office lab (POL) falls into will be determined by
    Complexity of lab tests performed
  125. Tests that basically pose insignificant risks to patients if errors occur in the test performance are called?
    Waived tests
  126. When you send blood tubes by mail for analysis in water tight container they should be enclosed in?
    Second durable water tight container
  127. When you send specimens in the mail the label should be?
    Biohazardous materials, in case of breakage send to CDC, address of lab
  128. The suffix - emia means
    Blood
  129. The medical term for expanding or opening wider is
    dilate
  130. The abbreviation for urinalysis is
    UA
  131. The medical term for groups of cells with the same function is
    tissue
  132. The medical term ofr the basic unit of body structure is
    cell
  133. The abbreviation for below or low is
    hypo
  134. The medical term for the time when menstration begins is
    menarche
  135. The medical term for the time when menstration stops is
    menopause
  136. The abbreviation for gastrointestinal is
    GI or G.I.
  137. The medical term for an involuntary movementis
    reflex
  138. The medical term for paralysis form the waist down is
    paraplegia
  139. The medical term ofr paralysis from the neck down is
    quadriplegia
  140. The medical abbreviation for by mouth is
    po
  141. The abbreviation for dressing is
    dsg
  142. The medical term for paralysis on one sise of the body is
    hemiplegia
  143. The medical term for circular movement around a central point is
    rotation
  144. The medical term for turning the palm forward , as applied to the hand
    supination
  145. The medical term for a decrease is sizse or a wasting
    atropy
  146. The medical term, for straightening of a body part is
    extension
  147. The abbreviation for postprandial blood sugar is
    PPBS
  148. The medical term for moving a body part away from the body is
    abduction
  149. The medical term for bending a body part is
    flexion
  150. The medical term for turning the palm backwards is
    pronation
  151. The medical term for bending backward is
    dorsiflexion
  152. The medical term for abnormal shortening of a muscle is
    contracture
  153. The medical term for moving a body part toward the midline of the body is
    adduction
  154. The abbreviation for laboratory
    lab
  155. The abbreviation for discontinue is
    d/c
  156. The abbreviation for bedtime or hour of sleep is
    hs
  157. The abbreviation for above or high is
    hyper
  158. The abbreviation for hour
    hr or h
  159. the abbreviation for electroencephalogram
    EEG
  160. The abbreviation for Papanicolaou smear is
    pap smear
  161. loss of appetite is
    Anorexia
  162. Cancer
    CA
  163. Tube feeding
    gavage
  164. sugar in urine
    glucosuria
  165. decubitus ulcer; pressure sore
    bedsore
  166. temperture, pulse and respiration
    TPR
  167. phlebo
    vein
  168. pneumo
    air, lungs
  169. adeno
    gland
  170. algia,algesia
    pain
  171. cardio
    heart
  172. cranio
    skull
  173. ectomy
    surgical removal
  174. emesis
    vomiting
  175. cise
    cut
  176. centesis
    puncture
  177. renal
    kidney
  178. post
    after
  179. osisc
    condition of
  180. rhino
    nose
  181. stomato
    mouth or the ostium uteri
  182. qsuper
    above
  183. toxic shock syndrome
    TSS
  184. Erythema
    red skin
  185. opposite of deep
    superficial
  186. high blood pressure
    hypertension
  187. Neoplasm
    new growth
  188. carb
    carbohydrate
  189. cheif complaints
    CC
  190. grain
    gr
  191. T/F: Every medical facility is required by OSHA to have an exposure control plan.
    True
  192. T/F: The exposure control plan shall be made available to the assistant secretary and the director upon request for examination and copying.
    True
  193. HIV
    Human Immunodeficiency Virus
  194. _____means any contaminated object that can penetrate the skin including, but not limited to needles, scalpels, broken glass, broken capillary tubes, and exposed ends of dental wired.
    Contaminated Sharps
  195. Reasonable anticipated skin, eye, mucous membrane, or parenteral contact with blood, or other potentially infectious materials that may result from the performance of an employees duties is called,
    Occupational Exposure
  196. Any individual, living or dead, whose blood, or other potentially infectious materials maybe a source of occupational exposure to the employee is call a:
    Source Individual
  197. To use a physical chemical procedure to destroy all microbial life including highly resistant bacterial endospores is to:
    Sterilize
  198. _____is the single most important source of HIV and HBV in the workplace.
    Blood
  199. The risk of infection with HIV following one needle stick exposure to blood from a patient know to be infected with HIV is approximately,
    0.50%
  200. General infection control procedures are designed to prevent transmission of a wide range of_____and to provide a wide margin of safety in the varied situations encountered in the health-care environment.
    Microbiological Agents
  201. "Contact with blood, or other body fluids to which universal precautions apply through percutaneous inoculation, or contact with an open wound, non-intact skin, or mucous membrane during the performance of normal duties." This definition applies to,
    Human exposure
  202. All workers whose jobs involved participation in tasks, or activities with exposure to blood, or other body fluids to which universal precautions apply, should be vaccinated with_____vaccine.
    Hepatitis B
  203. _____testing should be made available by the employer to all workers who maybe concerned they have been infected with HIV through an occupational exposure.
    Serologic
  204. Studies suggest that the potential for salivary transmission of HIV is,
    Remote
  205. After they are used, disposable syringes and needles, scalpel blades, and other sharp items should be placed in_____containers for disposal.
    Puncture Resistant
  206. Broken glassware which may be contaminated shall not be picked up directly with the hands but by mechanical means, such as,
    A brush and dust pan
  207. Contaminated laundry shall be_____where it was soiled.
    Bagged or containerized at the location
  208. All spills of blood contaminated fluid should be promptly cleaned up using_____approved germicide, or a 1:100 solution of household bleach.
    An EPA
  209. In cases of blood contamination shoe coverings and gloves should be disposed of in_____biohazard plastic bags.
    Orange-Red
  210. It is recommended that protective mask and eye ware, or face shields, be worn by laboratory technicians, or house keeping personnel:
    when cleaning up blood or bodilt fluid
  211. Blood from all individuals should be considered,
    Infective or infectious
  212. T/F: When starting an IV line gloves, gown, and eye ware are recommended
    False
  213. A specific eye, mouth, other mucous membrane, non-intact skin, or parenteral contact with blood, or other potentially infectious materials that results from the performance of an employees duties is called
    Exposure Incident
  214. Universal Precautions is
    An overall approach to infection control
  215. CDC has estimated that_____health-care workers whose jobs entail exposure to blood become infected with HBV each year.
    12,000
  216. Vaccinations against HBV infection provide 90% protection against hepatitis B for_____or more years following vaccination.
    7
  217. Employees that fall in category II of job classifications may include,
    Medical Office Manager
  218. The decision as to whether workers infected with HIV can adequately and safely be allowed to perform patient-care, should be made by
    Workers personal physician in conjunction with the employers medical adviser
  219. What federal agency requires the use of sharps containers?
    Occupational Safety and Health Administration
  220. Biohazard labels must be colored:
    Orange-Red
  221. The first of defense in preventing disease is:
    The medical hand wash
  222. _____means piercing mucous membranes, or skin barrier, through such events as needle sticks, human bites, cuts, and abrasions.
    Parenteral
  223. Viruses can reproduce only in:
    living cells
  224. The process of killing all microorganisms in a certain area is called:
    sterilization
  225. The autoclave sterilizes or completely destroys microorganisms by combining:
    heat (250) with steam under pressure (15)
  226. What kind of environment do microorganisms grown best in?
    dark & warm
  227. A disease state that results from the invasion & growth of microorganisms in the body is:
    an infection
  228. practices to acheive asepsis are known as:
    medical asepsis; clean technique
  229. the process by which an object or area becomes unclean is known as:
    contamination
  230. You should wash your hands for approximately:
    1 to 2 minutes
  231. When you wash your hands, you should stand:
    so your clothes do not touch the sink
  232. The faucet is turned off with:
    a paper towel
  233. A healthcare worker who unconsiously transports harmful bacteria but is not ill is called a(n):
    carrier
  234. Groups or clusters of bacteria taken for laboratory study are called:
    cultures
  235. The patient with an infection may have:
    loss of appetite; fever, rash, N&V; pain, redness, or swelling
  236. Disease that can be communicated from one person to another are called:
    contagious
  237. When using a fire extinguisher, the hose should be directed to the:
    base of the fire
  238. Aerobic bacteria prefer which environmental conditions to grow well?
    oxygen
  239. the blood lancet is used for the collection of blood specimens by
    skin puncture
  240. the standard point of the lancet to be used when collecting blood from a newborn heel is __ in length
    2.4mm
  241. the most important step in the performance of a venipuncture is
    positvely identifying the patient
  242. when cleansing the venipuncture site, it is good practice to
    cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dry
  243. to determine the size of the needle remember that the higher the gauge number the ___ needle
    smaller
  244. an instrument called a centrifuge
    separates the cellular and liquid portion of the blood
  245. rubber sleeves on an evacuated tube system make it possible for
    multiple use
  246. preparing for a glucose tolerance test __ hours before or during the test, the patient should not eat smoke drink coffee of alcohol
    ten
  247. in the evacuated blood collection system the evacuated glass tubes come in different sizes and the stoppers are __ to denote the type of additive or lack of one
    color coded
  248. during venipuncture to secure the needle during insertion into the tube stopper you need a
    holder
  249. which needle gauges are most commonly used for venipuncture
    21-22
  250. when performing a venipuncture the tournquet should be wrapped around the arm about three to four inches from where you are going to __ for a vein
    feel
  251. when performing a venipuncture if you have the patient ___ the veins will become more prominent
    make a fist
  252. which of the following is false
    veins pulsate
  253. use you index finger when you __ for a vein
    palpate
  254. arterioles are the smallest type of
    arteries
  255. the maximum time a tourniquet should be tied on the upper arm while drawing blood is
    1 minute
  256. to cleanse the typical venipuncture site, begin at the intended site of the draw and
    work in a circle to the periphery
  257. the venipuncture site should be cleansed with
    an alcohol prep
  258. when using a centrifuge make sure equal weights are
    opposite each other
  259. the lid to the centrifuge should be kept ___ when in use
    closed
  260. when using an evacuated tube for collection of electrolytes use a
    red top tube
  261. when collecting blood for a hematocrit test use a
    lavender top
  262. when collecting blood for cholesterol test use a __ top evacuated tube
    red
  263. the primary anticoagulant additive EDTA removes calcium by forming insoluble or un-ionized calcium salts. it has an advantage of preventing platelet clumping and the formation of artifacts, therefore, good for the preparation of
    blood films
  264. sodium citrate is an anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies because it protects certain of the
    pro-coagulants
  265. the tube to collect whole blood with and additive in it has a __ stopper
    lavender
  266. the color coding for a stopper of a tube with no additives is (for collection of serum)
    red
  267. at the location where you are going to feel for a vein wrap the tourniquet around the arm approximately __ above the area
    three to four inches
  268. the cephalic, medial cubital, and basilic veins are __ used for venipuncture
    primarily
  269. when doing a venipuncture the syringe or tube should be ___ the venipuncture site to prevent back flow
    below
  270. when anticoagulated blood is centrifuged __ goes to the top of the tube
    water
  271. when anticoagulated blood is centrifuged ___ goes to the bottom of the tube
    red blood cells
  272. when collecting blood by skin puncture on an infant you should use a
    lancet
  273. the tube used to collect a blood sample for a complete blood count is
    lavender top EDTA
  274. which of these lab tests monitor anticoagulation therapy
    pt and ptt
  275. All of the following may result in HIV except:
    insenct
  276. Even though all of the following factors contribute to lab safety, the most crucial is:
    worker attitude
  277. Biohazards are quickly identified by the colors orange or red and/or:
    the biohazard symbol
  278. The CDC, a federal agency, formulated the best lab methods to protect lab workers against disease. These are:
    Standard precautions
  279. which one of the following evacuated tubes would be drawn first
    red
  280. making sure that a tube is correctly labeled with the patients complete name and identificaion number is part of the facilities ___ plan
    quality control
  281. when performing a venipuncture if no blood flows into the tube how would you correct this situation
    • gently insert the needle a little deeper
    • gently pull the need out just a little
    • remove the needle and tourniquet and prepare another site
  282. if during a venipuncture a patient has a synocpal episode what would be your best course of action
    remove the needle and tourniquet and lower the patients head and arms
  283. the most appropriate site for performing a capillary puncture in a healthy adult is the
    fingers
  284. it is very important when performing a capillary stick to do which of the following
    wipe away the first drop of blood
  285. performing a __ as part of a complete blood count determines the ratio of the volume packed red blood cells to that of whole blood
    hematocrit
  286. ___ values are increased in infections and inflammatory diease
    erythrocyte sedimentation rates
  287. what type of blood samples will be needed to perform a hemoglobin test
    edta added
  288. how many hematocrit tubes should be collected from the patient
    2
  289. what type of blood sample is needed when performing a pku
    capillary
  290. a ___ is a small sterile needle like piece of metal used to make small puncture in the dermis
    lancet
  291. in drug testing the ___ regulates describe how evidence is to be collected and handled
    chain of custody
  292. a(n) ___ requires the patient to be fasting and then blood is taken every hour for a predetermined time
    glucose tolerance test
  293. The absence of one or more complete cardiac cycles where the rhythm is interrupted is referred to as
    sinus arrest
  294. A special device called a "regulator" or "flow meter" is necessary when using
    oxygen
  295. oxygen is administered to the patient by way of a
    catheter, cannula, and tent (all choices)
  296. The clean-catch urine specimen is also called
    clean-voided specimen and mid-stream specimen (both A and C)
  297. A 24-hr urine specimen is also called
    chilled/refrigerated
  298. The fresh- fractional urine specimen is used to test urine for
    sugar
  299. Another term for acetone in the urine is
    ketone bodies (ketones)
  300. Which test measures both sugar and acetone in the urine
    Keto-diastix
  301. To help classify bacteria into two groups; gram-positive and gram-negative is a special stain called
    gram stain
  302. When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should______ the first drop
    wipe away
  303. When you pull the second slide apart from the first slide, let them
    air dry
  304. When preparing a blood smear, the spreader slide must be made of
    glass
  305. When a drop of blood is placed on a slide, place a second slide_____ the first slide
    on top
  306. The glucose tolerance test is a_______test
    timed
  307. While ordering procedures may vary, generally a type and RH are ordered on all pregnant women. This normally is called a________screen
    prenatal
  308. Certain types of cultures, such as deep wound cultures could contain anaerobic pathogens. Which of the following conditions is required for their growth
    absence of oxygen
  309. To obtain a specimen for a throat culture the _________must be swabbed
    nasopharynx and tonsillar area
  310. A CLIA waived pregnacy test is based on the detection of which one of the following
    human chorionic gonadotropin
  311. When performing any CLIA waived test it is important to do which of the following
    perform quality control testing with every new kit and routinely thereafter
  312. Performing routine maintenance on lab equipment is critical. The maintenance plan should include which of the following
    regularly scheduled check-ups, daily examination of equipment for frayed cords or broken parts, routine cleaning of the outside of the equipment with a damp towel
  313. When testing for occult blood which of the following would be required
    stool sample
  314. When providing a patient instructions on the collection of a sample for occult blood testing. which of the following statements is correct
    dietary modifications must occur for 48 hours prior to collection of the specimen
  315. In the medical office the most frequently performed pulmonary function test is
    spirometry
  316. All of the following may result in HIV except:
    Insects
  317. Even though all of the following factors contribute to lab safety, the most crucial is:
    Worker attitude
  318. Biohazards are quickly identified by the colors orange or red and/or:
    The biohazard symbol
  319. The CDC, a federal agency, formulated the best lab methods to protect lab workers against disease. These are:
    Standard Precautions
  320. The pathogen that most affects the immune system is:
    HIV
  321. Vaccines are currently available for:
    Hep B
  322. The most effective instrument used to decontaminate biohazard materials is the:
    Autoclave
  323. The MSDS is included with all chemical shipments and describes the safety precautions and proper disposal of the chemicals. MSDS stands for:
    Material Safety Data Sheet
  324. Which of the following is the most effective safety method of disposal when the outside of the biohazard bag is contaminated with blood or other potentially infectious material?
    Double bagging the contaminated bag
  325. A disease-causing microorganism is called a:
    Pathogen
  326. Which of the following colors used on the "NFPA diamond" chemical hazard warning label represents a special hazard?
    White
  327. Which of the following colors used on the "NFPA diamond" chemical hazard warning label represents the health hazard?
    Blue
  328. Which of the following colors used on the "NFPA diamond" chemical hazard warning label represents flammability?
    Red
  329. Which of the following colors used on the "NFPA diamond" chemical hazard warning label represents chemical reactivity?
    Yellow
  330. Which of the following fluids are the least potentially infectious?
    Sweat (other: blood, vaginal secretions, semen)
  331. The control method that is based on the premise that all body fluids and tissues are potentially infectious is knownas:
    Universal Precautions
  332. All are identified as PPE:
    Face shield; gloves; lab coat
  333. Standard lab safety precautions include:
    No mouth pipetting; no eating in the lab; keeping safety in mind
  334. The safe method of disposing of contaminated needles is:
    Putting the uncapped needle in a sharps container w/o removing it from the syringe
  335. The conversion of a liquid to a mist is called:
    Aerosolization
  336. Post exposure prophylaxis is a treatment used after a lab worker has been exposed to:
    Any bloodbourne pathogen
  337. OSHA is located within which department of the US government?
    Department of Labor
  338. T/F: After washing your hands in the lab, turn off water facet with a separate paper towel.
    True
  339. T/F: All lab personnel should keep informed about current developments concerning serious communicable diseases.
    True
  340. T/F: Vaccines are available for protecting against HCV, and employers must offer these at no cost to the employee.
    False
  341. T/F: Any disease causing organism is considered a pathogen.
    True
  342. The term used to describe the tendency of things to deviate from their original state is:
    Variability
  343. The federal regulation that requires all labs to meet a minimum standard of quality is:
    CLIA
  344. Certificates of Waiver are issued to labs that:
    Only perform waived tests
  345. The ability to get the same results repeatedly is known as:
    Precision
  346. When all of the QC systems are working properly, the system is referred to as:
    �in control�
  347. All instrument repairs should be recorded in the:
    Instrument maintenance log
  348. Which of the following is the MOST likely to be the source of error in the lab?
    Inattentive staff
  349. T/F: Waived tests were previously referred to as "low" complexity.
    True
  350. T/F: Reproducibility is the ability to repeat test results
    True
  351. T/F: It is acceptable to use expired quality control material if the results are still good.
    False
  352. Urine can be analyzed for all of the following (properties):
    • physical properties
    • chemical properties
    • microscopic properties
  353. The abbreviation for urinanalysis is:
    UA
  354. What are functions of UA:
    • screening large groups of ppl for disease
    • dx of suspected disease
    • monitoring the coarse of tx
  355. A urine specimen that can be collected at any time without any special patient preparation is known as a:
    Random specimen
  356. Urine specimens collected upon waking up in the morning are known as:
    First morning specimens
  357. The highest concentration of analytes in a urine specimen is found in the:
    First morning specimen
  358. Urine specimens collected at specific time intervals are known as:
    Timed urine specimens
  359. Glucose tolerance test urines are analyzed to detect the presence of:
    Sugar
  360. Urine specimens that are cumulative specimens collected over a specific period of time are known as:
    Volume specimens
  361. Which of the following is best for performing quantitative analysis of urine?
    24-hour specimen
  362. When collecting a 24-hour specimen, what should be done with the first urination of the day on the first day?
    Discard the specimen and record the time
  363. How is a 24-hr specimen stored during and after collection?
    Must be put on ice or kept cool; preservative tablet within container
  364. The excretion of excessive amounts of urine is known as:
    Polyuria
  365. Excretion of less than 400 mL of urine in a 24 hours period is known as:
    Oliguria
  366. Patients with urinary tract obstruction are likely to present with which condition?
    Anuria
  367. A drug or chemical agent that causes an increase in urine output is known as
    Diuretic
  368. The procedure of placing a tube through the urethra into the bladder to collect urine is known as:
    Urinary catheterization
  369. If a physician suspects that a patient has a UTI, which type of urine specimen should you instruct the patient to collect?
    Clean-catch, midstream
  370. The advantage of the clean-catch, midstream urine specimen is that:
    Prevent microbial contamination
  371. Cleansing the perineum is a step in the collection of which of the following urine specimens?
    Clean-catch, midstream
  372. Sterile towelettes to clean the area around the urethra are used in the collection of which of the following urine specimens?
    Clean-catch, midstream
  373. Urine specimens can be left out at room temp for __________ after collection.
    One hour
  374. If urine specimens cannot be tested within one hour after collection, how should they be stored?
    Refrigerated
  375. The abbreviation for culture and sensitivity is:
    C&S
  376. Solid substances found in standing urine specimens are known as:
    Urinary sediment
  377. Which if the best quantitative UA?
    24-hr urine
  378. T/F: When labeling a urine specimen, you only need to label the lid.
    False
  379. T/F: The abbreviation for culture and sensitivity is C&S.
    True
  380. T/F: The abbreviation for urinanalysis is UA.
    True
  381. T/F: When testing a urine specimen, it is a generally acceptable procedure to either split the sample, or pipet the amount needed, before refrigerating what was not used.
    True
  382. T/F: You should discard a urine sample as soon as you complete the testing.
    False
  383. T/F; Bacteria can consume glucose and falsely decrease the result in urine that is not tested in a timely manner.
    True
  384. T/F: The urine specimen label must include the date and time.
    True
  385. T/F: Urine that has been preserved with chemicals can be used for routine urinalysis.
    False
  386. T/F: Urine collected in a child's diaper is acceptable for testing.
    False
  387. T/F: It is important that a patient not touch a specimen lid or the inside of the container when collecting a clean-catch, midstream urine specimen.
    True
  388. T/F: Female patients should wipe from front to back when cleaning the area for a clean-catch midstream specimen
    True
  389. T/F: Patients should be given both verbal and written instruction on the proper method of collecting a urine specimen.
    True
  390. T/F: Caffeine is associated with polyuria.
    True
  391. T/F: Urine excretion greater than 2,000 mL in a 24-hour period is known as polyuria.
    True
  392. T/F: The absence of urine formation is known as diuretic.
    False
  393. T/F: When a patient is being instructed on the procedure for collecting a 24-hr urine specimen, he or she should be advised to urinate into the 24-hr container to avoid spills.
    False
  394. T/F: When a 24-hr specimen is being collected, ALL of the urine specimens during that time period must be collected and saved.
    True
  395. T/F: When collecting a 24-hr specimen, on the first morning the patient should urinate into the toilet and record the time.
    True
  396. T/F: Urine specimens that are collected 2 hours after a patient has consumed a meal are known as two-hr postprandial urine specimens.
    True
  397. T/F: 2-hr postprandial specimens can be either urine or blood, and are used to test for blood sugar.
    True
  398. T/F: A disadvantage of first morning specimens is that red and white blood cells may decompose after concentrating in urine overnight.
    True
  399. T/F: Antimicrobial agents inhibit the growth of microbes, and act as a diuretic.
    True
  400. If urine is outside of the optimal temperature range of _____ to _____ degrees F, this is a sign that the specimen has been adulterated.
    90.5 - 99 degrees F
  401. T/F: The MA can interpret lab results.
    False (only physician)
  402. T/F: Job duties can be found in the policies and procedure manual.
    True
  403. A substance that is tested for in a lab procedure is a(n):
    Analyte
  404. Which is the most common analyte tested for in 2-hr urine specimen, and is described as bile pigment formed directly from bilirubin by bacterial action in the intestine?
    Urobilinogen
  405. UTI can be diagnosed by the presence of bacteria (or lipids) in urine specimens. Instead of a clear, straw yellow color, it will have a uniform appearance of __________, or milky, and will not clear when the sample is acidified.
    Opalescence
  406. T/F: If the urine has a dark brown color, as opposed to straw yellow, it could be caused by dehydration.
    True
  407. Turbidity in a urine specimen could be caused by the presence of:
    Mucous; sperm; urine precipitates (analytes/solids)
  408. When there is a problem with an instrument, you should NOT:
    Continue patient testing (missed on test)
  409. The range of values that are expected for a normal health individual for any given test is known as the:
    Reference range
  410. The primary function of proficiency testing is to measure the:
    lab personnel
  411. An unpredictable error with no obvious pattern is known as:
    Random error
  412. All instrument reapirs should be recorded in the:
    Instrument maintenance log
  413. Clerical erros are most likely to be sources of:
    random errors
  414. Which of the following is most likely to be the source of error in a lab?
    Inattentive staff
  415. Which of the following terms most closely describes "correct" lab results?
    Accuracy
  416. Urine can be analyzed for the following properties:
    Physical; chemical; microscopic
  417. Which of the following is not a function of UA?
    Prevent UTIs
  418. A urine specimen that can be collected at any time without any special patient preparation is known as a:
    Random specimen
  419. Urine specimens collected upon waking up in the morning are known as:
    First morning specimens
  420. The most easily collected urine specimen is:
    Random specimen
  421. What are synonyms for first morning specimens?
    Overnight specimen; eight-hr specimen; early morning urine specimen
  422. The highest concentration of analytes, when viewed under a microscope, in a urine specimen is found in the:
    First morning specimen
  423. Urine specimens collected at specific time intervals are known as:
    Timed urine specimens
  424. Glucose tolerance test urines are analyzed to detect the presence of:
    Sugar
  425. When collecting a 24-hr specimen, what should be done with the first urination of the day on the first day?
    Discard the specimen and record the time
  426. The excretion of excess amounts of urine is known as:
    Polyuria
  427. Which specimen is used to confirm polyuria?
    24-hr
  428. Excretion of less than 400 mL of urine in a 24-hr period is known as:
    Oliguria
  429. The complete absence of urine excretion is known as:
    Anuria
  430. Which is the following is NOT a diuretic
    • antimicrobial agent
    • (diuretics = oral hypoglycemic agents caffeine, alcohol)
  431. A drug or chemical agent that causes an increase in urine output is known as:
    Diuretic
  432. If a physician suspects that a patient has a UTI, which type of urine specimen should you instruct the patient to collect?
    Clean-catch, midstream
  433. Cleansing the perineum is a step in the collection of which of the following urine specimens?
    Clean-catch, midstream
  434. What information is NOT required on a urine specimen label?
    Amount of urine collected
  435. If urine specimens cannot be tested within one hour after collection, how should they be stored?
    Refrigerated
  436. What are the 2 main indications that urine has been left out too long without refrigeration, causing the uria to be converted into ammonia?
    • 1- glucose levels decrease
    • 2- breakdown of casts/sediments
  437. Name 2 automatic indications that a urine specimen has been adulterated or tampered with.
    • 1 - temperature that is deviated from the normal range of 90.5 - 99 degrees F
    • 2 - diluted or clear appearance (possibility of excess water intake)
  438. The abbreviation for culture and sensitivity is:
    C&S
  439. Which of the following is NOT a reason for urine drug screen?
    routine pediatric screening
  440. The average adult body contains __________ liters of blood.
    5 - 6
  441. Which tests uses blood collection in a tan toped tube?
    Lead
  442. T/F: The MA cannot participate in lab testing.
    False
  443. T/F: order of the draw is different when using a butterfly or winged infusion.
    False
  444. T/F: After venous blood is collected it is okay to open the rubber top of the vacuum tube.
    False
  445. The size of needles used for collecting donor units of blood is:
    16 - 18 gauge
  446. Yellow-topped tubes are used to collect blood for:
    Blood cultures
  447. The black-topped tube contains the following additive:
    Sodium citrate
  448. In the orange or grey/yellow topped tube, what additive is found that will increase the time of coagulation?
    Thrombin
  449. ESR is the same lab essay as:
    Sed rate
  450. Another term for fainting is:
    Syncope
  451. When hemoglobin is released and plasma becomes tinged with pink or red, this cx is referred to as:
    Hemolysis
  452. What should stop the health care worker from collecting blood from a patient's arm vein?
    Mastectomy
  453. If a patient is allergic to iodine, what can beused as an alternative to cleanse the puncture site for blood collection?
    Chlorohexidine
  454. If blood is to be collected for a fasting blood glucose level, the patient must fast for:
    8 - 12 hours
  455. The basal state occurs:
    In the early morning, about 12 hours after food intake
  456. After the needle is inserted for a venipuncture and the blood begins to squirt out in pulses, this might indicate:
    An artery has been penetrated
  457. When the area around a venipuncture site begins to swell and blood is leaking into tissues, this is referred to as a/an:
    hematoma
  458. Small red spots appearing on a patient's skin may be a result of complications from:
    Blood clotting abnormalities
  459. A blood clotting abnormality such as thrombocytopenia can sometimes be detected by seeing:
    Petechiae (small red spots) on the patient�s skin
  460. To avoid having the vein collapse during venipuncture on an elderly patient, it is best to use:
    A smaller needle size
  461. What is the most common agent used to decontaminate a venipuncture site?
    Isopropanol
  462. For inexperienced phlebotomists, when learning how to decontaminate the venipuncture site, it is most important to wipe down the area:
    By rubbing in concentric circles from inside out
  463. The term "3-way match" refers to patient identification. It means that the phlebotomist must have the following:
    Stated name (1) must match the requisition (2) and the armband (3)
  464. If a patient is burned near the right elbow, where would the preferred venipuncture location be?
    Left arm's AC area
  465. If there is a large bandage covering a deep wound on the dorsal side of the right wrist, where is the wound and where would the preferred venipuncture location be?
    The wound is on the backside of the right wrist; the venipuncture should be in the AC area of the left arm
  466. For an inexperienced phlebotomist, when learning how to locate arm veins, it is most important to learn how to:
    Feel the vein
  467. A phlebotomist was having trouble finding a vein on a hospitalized patient, even after leaving the tourniquet on for a couple of minutes, asking the patient to clench her fist, and dangling the patient�s arm off the side of the bed. The phlebotomist decided to warm the site and try again later. Which step was inappropriate?
    Leaving the tourniquet on too long
  468. Coagulation tests can be affected by ingestion of:
    Aspirin
  469. Excessive, vigorous mixing of a blood specimen for coagulation can lead to:
    Shortened clotting time
  470. Why are bandages after a venipuncture not recommended for small children?
    Risk of irritation and swallowing the bandage
  471. What is another term for the fluid found in tissue?
    Interstitial
  472. How many times can the venipuncture apparatus (lancet or sharp) be used for finger sticks on the same patient? Once
    • When learning how to decontaminate a skin puncture site, it is most important to wipe the area: Then allow it to dry
    • Sometimes a patient�s veins are �saved for therapy.� In such case, what type of specimen collection is preferred?
    • Fingerstick technique
  473. A phlebotomist was supposed to perform a skin puncture on a patient, but the patient had very cold, pale hands. What step should the phlebotomist consider next? What could this mean?
    Warming the hand, may have poor peripheral vascular circulation
  474. A phlebotomist was assigned to perform a glucose screening test on a pregnant woman in a doctor's office. The phlebotomist noticed that the patient just finished eating her sack lunch. What extra step should a phlebotomist take?
    Document the non-fasting condition
  475. If a patient is known to have poor peripheral circulation, what type of specimen collection will NOT work well for her?
    Fingerstick technique
  476. Fingerstick procedures are NOT recommended for:
    Coagulation tests
  477. Before a blood donation, the blood collector must always check the blood donor's:
    Hematocrit and hemoglobin value
  478. Hemoglobin represents:
    Blood protein, and the ability for the blood to transport O2 from the lungs to the cells of the body
  479. The suffix enemia only pertains to:
    Blood
  480. If a physician orders a CBC with diff, the lab will use an automated cell counter (ACC) to determine:
    The 5 different types of WBCs (N, B, E, L, )
  481. The term for RBC formation, which occurs in red bone marrow, is:
    erythropoiesis
  482. Erythrocytopenia is the term for:
    Decreased RBCs
  483. Leukocytopenia is the term for:
    Decreased WBCs
  484. Thrombocytopenia is the term for:
    Decreased platelets
  485. If a vein is marked with "SVT," this means means:
    The vein is "saved for therapy," most likely the patient is undergoing chemotherapy
  486. T/F: When a patient�s blood is drawn, the MA must always ensure that proper specimen labeling has occurs and that the blood stored correctly until the lab courier has arrived for pick-up
    True
  487. T/F: Venous blood has a higher concentration of O2, explaining it�s bright red color.
    False
  488. When working in a physician office lab, you must comply with guidelines of:
    OSHA & CDC
  489. Before scheduling a dx test, the office must contact the insurance carrier to:
    Obtain approval if required; determine facilities are approved for payment; confirm coverage
  490. If a claim is denied because pre-certification is not obtained:
    Either the patient or the ordering physician is responsible for charges
  491. When removing the isolation PPE, the first item that is taken off is:
    Gloves
  492. If a lab worker is correcting an error on a paper document, the following should be done:
    Mark a single line through and write �error�
  493. A phlebotomist walks into a patient�s room to collect a blood specimen. The patient does not have an armband, but is conscious. What should the phlebotomist do?
    Ask the nurse to positively ID the patient
  494. A phlebotomist walks into a patient�s room to collect a blood specimen. There are several family members there and one of them asks about the interpretation of the patient�s lab results. What should the phlebotomist do?
    Suggest that the member address the question to the patient and his doctor, then ask the patient if it is okay to have the family step outside during the procedure
  495. If a doctor is ordering a lab test on an emergency basis, how should/would it be indicated?
    As a STAT notation on the test request
  496. The quality of blood specimens can be affected by:
    Timing of transport, centrifuge method, method of transport
  497. The specimen tubes should be stored:
    In an upright position with a secure closure
  498. Glycolic action is:
    Breakdown of glucose
  499. Name on reason that times tests are important.
    Help confirm drug dosage
  500. What is another term for a winged infusion?
    Butterfly
  501. A phlebotomists walks into a patients room to collect a blood specimen. There are several family members in the room with the patient watching television. What should the phlebotomists do?
    Ask the patient if it is okay for the family to step outside for the procedure
  502. How many times can sterile needles be used for routine venipuncture?
    Once
  503. Which of the following has the highest percentage of needlestick injuries?
    Butterfly needles
  504. Which of the following is the vacuum blood collection tube of choice for CBC blood collection?
    Purple (lavender) topped tube
  505. Which of the following is the vacuum blood collection tube of choice for glucose testing?
    Grey-topped tube
  506. Which of the following is the anticoagulant of choice for coagulation blood studies?
    Sodium citrate
  507. Which of the following tests usually requires blood collected in a royal blue topped vacuum blood collection tube?
    Trace elements
  508. The yellow-topped vacuum blood collection tube has the following additive:
    SPS
  509. Which of the following additives prevent coagulation of blood by removing calcium through formation of insoluble calcium salts
    EDTA; potassium oxalate; sodium citrate
  510. Which of the following is the best for the sterile blood collection for nutritional studies?
    Royal blue-topped tube
  511. Which of the following blood collection tubes has a glycolytic inhibitor?
    Grey-topped tube
  512. Which of the following tests uses specimens collected in a light blue-topped collection tube?
    PT & PTT
  513. T/F: Blood consists of plasma and the cellular components of RBCs, WBCs, and platelets.
    True
  514. T/F: RBCs play an important role in the body�s immune defense and protect against disease.
    False
  515. T/F: The primary function of platelets is to clot blood.
    True
  516. T/F: Some blood collection tubes have additives to assist with the chemical testing to be performed.
    True
  517. T/F: It does not matter the order in which blood is collected into the tubes.
    False
  518. T/F: The most common venipuncture site is the AC fossa.
    True
  519. T/F: When drawing a blood sample, you should tell the patient that it will not hurt.
    False
  520. T/F: A hematocytometer is used for manual WBC and platelet counts.
    True
  521. T/F: Automated cell counters and chemical analyzers reduce the risk of human error.
    True
  522. T/F: A tourniquet can be applied for an unlimited amount of time prior to blood draw.
    False
  523. T/F: MAs must follow OSHA guidelines and Universal Precautions when obtaining blood specimens.
    True
  524. Solid components of blood include:
    Thromcytes; erythrocytes; leukocytes
  525. The liquid component of blood is:
    90% water; plasma
  526. The cellular components of blood include:
    WBCs; RBCs; platelets
  527. Types of leukocytes include:
    Neutrophils; monocytes; lymphocytes; esonophils; basophils
  528. Eosinophils are:
    WBCs
  529. Platelets are also called:
    Thrombocytes
  530. Agglutination refers to __________ that clump together.
    Platelets
  531. Patients with very low platelet count will:
    Bleed for an extended period of time
  532. The study of antigens, antibodies, and their interaction is:
    Immunohematology
  533. The most common site for venipuncture is:
    Arm, at the elbow
  534. Blood draws are usually performed using:
    Vacuum tubes
  535. Before drawing blood, the MA should:
    Verify the DOB; confirm that the patient followed preparation instruction; ID the patient
  536. When preparing to draw blood, it is important to tell the patient:
    You will feel a pinch; this will sting for a moment
  537. Adults usually have blood drawn while:
    Sitting
  538. Patient or employee test results must be:
    Treated confidentially at all times; released only with patient�s permission
  539. Basic hematology testing includes:
    WBC counts; RBC counts; hct (tests for anemia) & hgb (carrying capacity of O2)
  540. Blood smears are made from:
    Fresh blood
  541. The most common stain used for differential blood testing is:
    Wright's stain
  542. The purpose of a blood smear is to:
    See stained structures easily and to differentiate them; Allow easy view of the cellular components
  543. Hematocrit (and hgb) is a blood test to screen for:
    Anemia
  544. Capillary tubes are spun for:
    2 - 5 minutes
  545. When obtaining a capillary sample, the tube should be _____ full.
    3/4
  546. During a capillary collection, what must you do after the needle is inserted?
    • Wipe away the first drop of blood
    • Why is it important not to squeeze blood to the site of a capillary stick?
    • Increases the amount of interstitial fluid, resulting in flase reading
  547. Laboratories often combine ordered chemistry tests into:
    Panels
  548. When obtaining a capillary sample, the tube is:
    Sealed at one end
  549. Cholesterol levels are influenced by:
    Physical activity; Diet and caloric intake; family heritage
  550. When would measuring by gm/dL be used in testing?
    Hct (so many grams of blood per Hct/Hgb)
  551. In a healthy adult male, what is an appropriate percentage of blood for a hematocrit reading?
    45% (range = 42-52%)
  552. In a healthy adult female, what is an appropriate percentage of blood for a hematocrit reading?
    38% (range = 36-46%)
  553. In a healthy newborn, what is an appropriate percentage of blood for a hematocrit reading?
    55% (range = 50-62%)
  554. In a healthy adult male, what is an appropriate percentage of blood for a hemoglobin reading?
    16.0% (range =14-18%)
  555. In a healthy adult male, what is an appropriate percentage of blood for a hemoglobin reading?
    12.0% (range =12-16%)
  556. In a healthy adult male, what is an appropriate percentage of blood for a hemoglobin reading?
    20.0% (range =17-23%)
  557. What does a blood draw without "stasis" mean?
    It is to be drawn without using a tourniquet
  558. How long must you wait for blood to clot in a vacuum tube with no additive (red topped tube)?
    Up to 60 minutes/1 hr (30 - 60 min)
  559. What is the additive in the Yellow/Sterile tube?
    SPS (sodium polyanetholsulfonate) = anticoagulant
  560. What tests are run using the yellow topped blood collection tube?
    Blood cultures; microbiology
  561. What is the additive in the light blue tube?
    Sodium citrate = anticoagulant
  562. What lab tests are run on a blood sample collected in the light blue topped tube?
    Coagulation*; PT/INR & PTT; fibrinogen
  563. What is the additive in the red topped blood collection tube?
    no additive
  564. What lab tests are run on a blood sample collected in the red topped tube?
    Electrolyte; cholesterol; blood bank; serology
  565. What is the additive in the Marble/Speckled/Tiger Top (SST) blood collection tube?
    • 1 – gel separator
    • 2 – Thrombin = clot activator
  566. What lab tests are run on a blood sample collected in the Marble/Speckled/Tiger Top (SST) tube?
    Chemistry???
  567. What is the additive in the green/light green blood collection tube?
    Sodium, litium , or ammonium heparin (will contain one of the three) = anticoagulant
  568. What lab tests are run on a blood sample collected in the green/light green blood collection tube green/light green tube?
    Chemistry testing (cannot test for identical heparin additive)
  569. What is the additive in the lavendar/purple topped blood collection tube?
    EDTA = anticoagulant
  570. What lab tests are run on a blood sample collected in the lavendar/purple-topped tube?
    Hematology*; CBC; ESR; reticulocyte count
  571. What is the additive in the Royal Blue (Pink or White) blood collection tube?
    EDTA = anticoagulant
  572. What lab tests are run on a blood sample collected in the Royal Blue (Pink or White) topped tube?
    red label for trace metal analysis
  573. What is the additive in the dark blue blood collection tube?
    FDP
  574. What is the additive in the Grey-topped blood collection tube?
    Sodium floride & potassium oxalate = Glycolic inhibitor
  575. What lab tests are run on a blood sample collected in the Grey-topped blood collection tube?
    Blood glucose; GT; GTT

What would you like to do?

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview