NBDE 1988 Tooth Anatomy, Pathology, Dental Occlusion, Microbiology

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NBDE 1988 Tooth Anatomy, Pathology, Dental Occlusion, Microbiology
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NBDE 1988 Tooth Anatomy Pathology Dental Occlusion Microbiology
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NBDE 1988 Tooth Anatomy, Pathology, Dental Occlusion, Microbiology
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  1. Which of the following laboratory results is diagnostic of acute pancreatitis?
    A) Elevated alkaline phosphatase.
    B) Decreased albumin
    C) Elevated serum lipase
    D) Decreased serum amylase
    C) elevated serum lipase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. A complication of peptic ulcer disease that accounts for the majority of deaths is
    A) malignant transformation.
    B) bleeding.
    C) perforation.
    D) surgical complication.
    E) obstruction from edema or scarring.
    C) Perforation

    90% caused by H. pylori

    #1 complication is bleeding

    #1 cause of death is perforation (peritonitis)

    - can penetrate liver and pancreas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. A cross section at midroot of a permanent mandibular central incisor is likely to show that the pulp cavity is
    A) shaped much the same as that of a maxillary central incisor.
    B) almost round.
    C) flattened mesiodistally.
    D) flattened faciolingually.
    E) divided into two canals.
    C) bc wider faciolingually
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Which of the following permanent teeth has its mesial marginal ridge located more cervically than its distal marginal ridge?
    A) Mandibular first molar
    B) Maxillary second premolar
    C) Mandibular first premolar
    D) Maxillary first molar
    E) Mandibular second premolar
    F) Mandibular second molar
    C
  5. In a normal, healthy mouth, the interdental papilla that is the shortest cervicoincisally (cervico-occlusally) is between mandibular
    A) lateral incisor and canine.
    B) central and lateral incisors.
    C) first and second premolars.
    D) second premolar and first molar.
    E) central incisors.
    F) canine and first premolar.
    D) 2nd premolar and 1st molar
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. A patient with which of the following diseases is least likely to show "clubbing" of fingers and cyanotic nail beds?
    A) Congestive heart failure
    B) Chronic pulmonary disease
    C) Polycythemia
    D) Systemic lupus erythematosus.
    E) Congenital heart disease
    • Associated w/
    • - lung disease
    • - heart disease
    • - GI and hepatobiliary
    • - hyperthyroidism
  7. In the intercuspal position, the cusp tip of the permanent maxillary canine is in direct alignment with which anatomic feature of the mandibular teeth?
    A) Interproximal space
    B) Facial embrasure
    C) Distal ridge of the cusp of the mandibular canine
    D) Mesial ridge of the facial cusp of the mandibular first premolar
    E) Incisal embrasure
    B.
  8. Pronounced developmental grooves are usually associated with embrasures between permanent:
    (a) maxillary central and lateral incisors; (b) maxillary lateral incisors and canines; (c) maxillary canines and first premolars; (d) maxillary first and second premolars; (e) mandibular canines and first premolars; (f) mandibular first and second premolars; (g) mandibular second premolars and first molars; (h) mandibular first and second molars.
    A) (c) onlyB) (d) onlyC) (g) onlyD) (b) onlyE) (d) and (f)F) (a) onlyG) (c) and (e)
    G) C and E

    • - mesial marginal groove on max 1st premolar
    • - mesiolingual developmental grove on mand 1st premolar

  9. The drawing is a cross section at the cervical line of what permanent tooth?
    A) Mandibular first premolar
    B) Mandibular canine
    C) Mandibular central incisor
    D) Maxillary lateral incisor
    C) mandibular central
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. A primary mandibular second molar differs from a permanent mandibular first molar in that a primary mandibular second molar
    A) has roots that are more divergent.
    B) is darker in color.
    C) is larger in size.
    D) has a form peculiar to itself.
    E) has a larger occlusal surface.
    A) bc the permanent premolar grows inbetween the roots
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. The most common cause of a massive hematemesis in alcoholics is
    A) esophageal varices.
    B) Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
    C) peptic ulcer.
    D) acute gastritis.
    E) acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis.
    A) esophageal varices
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

  12. Viewed anteriorly, which diagram represents a chewing stroke?
    4

  13. The sketch represents the
    A) mesial view of a permanent mandibular third molar.
    B) distal view of a permanent mandibular first molar.
    C) distal view of a permanent mandibular second molar
    .D) mesial view of a permanent mandibular first molar.
    E) mesial view of a permanent mandibular second molar.
    B
  14. In an ideal intercuspal position, the distolingual cusp of a permanent maxillary first molar opposes the
    A) lingual sulcus of the mandibular first molar.
    B) facial embrasure between mandibular first and second molars.
    C) mesial fossa of the mandibular second molar.
    D) mesial marginal ridge area of the mandibular second molar.
    E) central fossa of the mandibular first molar.
    D
  15. Bacteria of which of the following genera have a limited range of habitats in the oral cavity ?
    (a) Treponema; (b) Bacteroides; (c) Actinomyces (d) Streptococcus
    A and B

    Can't Breath Air= anaerobic

    • Bacteriodes
    • Treponema= motile spirochete that is anaerobic
    • Actinomyces- anaerobic or facultatively anaerobic
  16. Features of the herpes simplex virus type 1 virion surface include
    A) an envelope synthesized de novo.
    B) none of the above.
    C) an envelope acquired by budding through the nuclear membrane.
    D) no envelope.
    E) an envelope acquired by budding through the cytoplasmic membrane.
    C)

  17. Assuming occlusion and alignment are normal, the arrows on the sketch represent the path taken by the
    A) lingual cusp of second premolar and the mesiolingual cusp of first molar.
    B) cusp of canine and facial cusp of first premolar.
    C) facial cusp of second premolar and the mesiofacial cusp of first molar.
    D) facial cusps of premolars.
    E) lingual cusps of premolars.
    D
  18. In which of the following areas is the alveolar process the thinnest?
    A) Facial to the maxillary second molars
    B) Lingual to the maxillary central incisors
    C) Lingual to the mandibular first molars
    D) Lingual to the maxillary second molars
    E) Lingual to the maxillary canines
    F) Facial to the mandibular central incisors
    F
  19. The protrusive pathway of mandibular cusps on maxillary posterior teeth is toward the
    A) lingual.B) None of the above C) mesial.D) distal.E) facial.
    C mesial
  20. In the intercuspal position, which of the following anterior teeth has the potential to contact both anterior and posterior antagonists?
    A) Mandibular canine
    B) Mandibular lateral incisor
    C) Maxillary canine
    D) Maxillary lateral incisor
    C. maxillary canine
  21. Phage conversion is responsible for
    A) transduction of bacteria.
    B) antigenic phase variation.
    C) production of erythrogenic toxin by Streptococcus pyogenes.
    D) production of B-galactosidase
    E) ability of Rhizobium species to fix nitrogen.
    C)

    Phage conversion= Lysogenic conversion
    - when a temperate bacteriophage (virus that infects bacteria) induces a change in phenotype of the bacteria infected--> increases the pathogenic capability of the bacteria/host

    - can later turn into lytic phase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Calcification of the roots of the primary dentition is normally completed at what age?
    A) 7-8 years
    B) 5-6 years
    C) None of the above
    D) 3-4 years
    E) 1-2 years
    D) 3-4 yrs

    - roots are 50% calcified at time of eruption
  23. Which of the following permanent teeth is least likely to have a divided pulp canal?
    A) Mandibular central incisor
    B) Mandibular lateral incisor
    C) Mandibular first premolar
    D) Maxillary central incisor
    E) Maxillary first premolar
    D) Maxillary central incisor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Generally, the antibiotic of choice for prophylactic therapy covering dental procedures in a patient with a heart valve abnormality who is allergic to penicillin
    is

    A) ampicillin.
    B) streptomycin.
    C) lincomycin.
    D) tetracycline.
    E) erythromycin.
    E) erythromycin

    - a macrolide w/ antimicrobial spectrum similar to or slightly wider than penicillin
    - used for people w/ allergy to pen
    - inhibits protein synthesis by bacteria by binding 50S ribosome

    - *** CAUSES GI DISTURBANCES- DIARRHEA, NAUSEA, AB PAIN bc it increases motilin secretion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Most rickettsial diseases produce severe illness in humans because rickettsiae
    A) are particularly destructive to cutaneous tissues.
    B) are destructive for endothelial cells.
    C) are primarily neurotropic and cause extensive damage in certain CNS centers.
    D) produce potent exotoxins.
    B) destructive for endothelial cells

    Rickettsia
    - motile, Gram (-), non spore-forming, highly pleomorphic bacteria
    - OBLIGATE intracellular parasites that usually depend on growth and replicated in endothelial cells of host
    - susceptible to tetracycline
    - carried as parasites by many ticks, fleas, lice

    - Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
    - Rickettsia Typhi
    - Rickettsia Prowezaki (lice)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. In the mandibular arch, the greatest lingual inclination of the crown from its root is seen in a permanent
    A) lateral incisor.B) canine.C) central incisor.D) third molar.E) first premolar.
    E) 1st premolar
  27. The most acceptable conditions for complete sterilization by autoclaving are
    A) 15 minutes at 275° F. (135° C.) and 10 lbs. of pressure.
    B) 20 minutes at 250° F. (121° C.) and 10 lbs. of pressure.
    C) 20 minutes at 250° F (121° C) and 15 lbs. of pressure.
    D) 5 minutes at 275° F. (135° C.) and 15 lbs. of pressure.
    C)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. In an ideal intercuspal position, a permanent mandibular lateral incisor opposes the:
    (a) distal marginal ridge of a maxillary central incisor;
    (b) mesial marginal ridge of a maxillary lateral incisor;
    (c) distal marginal ridge of a maxillary lateral incisor;
    (d) mesial marginal ridge of a maxillary canine;
    (e) maxillary lateral incisor 2-3 mm. cervically to the incisal edge;
    (f) maxillary lateral incisor at the incisal edge.
    A) (c), (d) and (e) B) (a), (b) and (f)C) (a) and (b) onlyD) (a), (b) and (e)E) (b) only
    a,b,e
  29. The lingual cusp of a mandibular first premolar contacts the
    A) mesial incline plane of the lingual cusp of a first premolar
    .B) mesial marginal ridge of a maxillary first premolar.
    C) cingulum of a maxillary canine.
    D) None of the above
    E) lingual embrasures of a maxillary canine and a maxillary first premolar.
    D) none of the above! the lingual cusp of 1st molar is nonfunctional (acts most closely to the cingulum of a canine)
  30. Which of the following is characterized by a collapse of alveoli?

    A) Emphysema
    B) Atelectasis
    C) Pneumonia
    D) Bronchiectasis.
    E) Empyema
    • B) Atelectasis
    • - lack of gas exchange w/ lung alveoli due to alveolar collapse or fluid consolidation
    • - may occur as post operative complication OR surfactant deficiency

    - in premature neonates: causes infant respiratory distress syndrome

    • cough, but not prominent
    • chest pain
    • breathing difficulty
    • low oxygen saturation- amount of Hb saturated w. O2
    • pleural effusion (transudate type)
    • cyanosis (late sign)
    • increased heart rate
  31. Infants are routinely immunized against diseases caused by:
    (a) Brucella abortus; (b) Bordetella pertussis; (c) Corynebacterium diphtheriae; (d) Clostridium tetani; (e) Hemophilus influenzae.

    A) (b), (c) and (d)B) (b), (d) and (e)C) (c), (d) and (e).D) (a), (b) and (c)E) (a), (c) and (e)
    B,C,D
  32. The primary function of the dental pulp is to
    A) protect the periodontium.
    B) provide sensation.
    C) assure root-end closure.
    D) form dentin.
    E) provide nutrition.
    D. form dentin
  33. Hepatitis B

    1. Anti-HBs and HBs-antigen
    2. Anti-HBc and Anti-HBs
    3. Anti-HBs no Anti-HBc

    window period- have Anti-HBc but not Anti-HBs
    • 1. Anti-HBs and HBs-antigen= person is a carrier
    • 2. Anti-HBc and Anti-HBs= person was infected, but immune system fought it off
    • 3. Anti-HBs no Anti-HBc= person was immunized window period- have Anti-HBc but not Anti-HBs
  34. In cases of delayed resorption of primary incisors, the permanent incisors may be expected to erupt
    A) lingual to the normal arch form.
    B) distal to the normal arch position.
    C) facial to the normal arch form
    D) mesial to the normal arch position.
    A) lingual
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Which of the following teeth is most likely to resist caries?
    A) Mandibular first premolar
    B) Maxillary central incisor
    C) Maxillary lateral incisor
    D) Mandibular canine
    D) mandibular canine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Based upon morphology, a mesio-occlusal (Class II) cavity preparation would be most difficult in which of the following teeth?
    A) Permanent mandibular first molar
    B) Primary mandibular first molar
    C) Permanent maxillary second molar
    D) Primary mandibular second molar
    B because the pulp chambers are higher up into cusp tip and easier to hit the pulp
  37. The roots of mandibular first premolars are :
    (a) flattened faciolingually;
    (b) broader facially than lingually;
    (c) frequently sharply curved distally;
    (d) usually free of marked distal curvature;
    (e) frequently seen with slight concave areas on mesial and distal surfaces.
    B,D,E
  38. In healing of a fracture, which of the following will prevent favorable reconstruction and alignment of bone ? (a) Formation of pseudoarthrosis;
    (b) Functional remodeling of the procallus by osteoblasts and osteoclasts;
    (c) Formation of new bone at the site of fracture;
    (d) Presence of sequestrum;
    (e) Organization of a hematoma at the site of fracture
    (a) and (d)


    Sequestrum- a piece of dead bone that has become separated during the process of necrosis from normal/sound bone.

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