MORE QUESTIONS

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medic11
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83245
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MORE QUESTIONS
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2011-05-02 14:12:58
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MORE FINAL QUESTIONS
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More final questions 5/2/11
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  1. The max cumulative dose for attropine is?
    3 mg
  2. Bretylium is used for:
    V Tach, V fib refrac to Lido
  3. Bretylium first dose is:
    5 mg/kg IV
  4. Bretylium second dose is:
    10 mg/kg/15-30 mins to a max of 30 mg/kg
  5. CaCl is primarily used prehospital for?
    CCB OD
  6. Benadryl is contraindicated for _____.
    Asthma
  7. Cardizem is classed as a ____.
    CCB
  8. Epi max dose is?
    There is no max
  9. Epi pedi cardiac arrest dose is _____.
    0.01 mg/kg 1:10,000 IV/IO
  10. Etomidate is trade named?
    Amidate
  11. Romazicon is dosed @ _____.
    0.2 mg IV over 30-60 sec up to 1 mg
  12. Glucagon can be used in what 2 situations w/what doses?
    • Hypoglycemia 1 mg IM/SC
    • Beta blocker OD 50-150 mcg/kg over 1 min
  13. Isoproterenol is in 1 algorithm. What is it?
    Bradycardia refrac to atropine
  14. Mag works by:
    • Acting as a CCB, CNS depressant, Anticonvulsant
    • Depresses function of smooth, skeletal & cardiac muscles
  15. Solu medrol is dose @ what for spinal injury?
    30 mg/kg IV over 15 min
  16. At its weight based max you may run this much procainamide into your 80 kg pt.
    1360 mg
  17. Aminophyline is classed as a _____.
    Bronchodilator
  18. Chlordiazepoxide is generic for ____.
    Librium
  19. Morphine is classed as a ____ ____.
    Narcotic analgesic
  20. Morphine is contraindicated for COPD/Asthma. Why?
    Causes resp depression
  21. Racemic epi is indicated for ____.
    Croup
  22. Phenergan is classed as a ____.
    Antiemetic
  23. Trade name anectine is generic named ____.
    Succinylcholine
  24. Tridil is classed as a ____.
    Nitrate
  25. Thiamine is dosed @ _____.
    50-100mg IV
  26. Verapamil is classed as a ____.
    CCB
  27. Verapamil would be bad to use in a wide QRS b/c it?
    Slows AV conduction causing it to widen further
  28. Adenosine should be used secondary to an attempt @?
    Vagal maneuvers
  29. Albuterol is trade named ____.
    Proventil
  30. Amiodarone has a contraindication of ____ & ____.
    2nd & 3rd degree heart blocks
  31. Atrovent is generic named ?
    Ipratropium
  32. Atropine works by?
    Stimulating the parasympathetic NS & vagus nerve
  33. Atropine is used for what 3 things?
    • Slow PEA
    • Organo Phosphate Poisoning
    • Bradycardia
  34. Atropine is precautioned for ____ & for ____.
    AMI & for glaucoma
  35. An LBBB has a ____ deflection b/f the J point.
    Negative
  36. An extreme right axis & an upright V1 equals
    V-Tach
  37. An rSr pattern b/f the j point is what?
    RBBB
  38. Which left hemiblock has the highest mortality rate?
    Posterior hemiblock @ 71% b/c for it to occur 2 separate blood supplies have to be damaged
  39. Name 3 hypertension meds.
    • CCB
    • Beta blockers
    • Diuretics
    • ACE inhibitors
    • Cardiac Glycosides
  40. What class of drug is toradol?
    Analgesic
  41. What does Flumazenil do?
    Benzo antagonist
  42. Pharmacodynamics is defined as:
    How a drug interacts with the body to cause its effects
  43. The 6 rights of med admin are:
    • Patient
    • Med
    • Time
    • Route
    • Dose
    • Documentation
  44. Pregnancy Code A means:
    Adequate studies in pregnant women have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus in the 1st trimester or later trimesters
  45. Pharmacokinetics is defined as:
    How drugs are transported into and out of the body
  46. Biotransformation is defined as:
    How a drug changes body chem in order to achieve its desired effect
  47. Name 2 drug routes & give examples of each
    • Parenteral - IV, IO, IM, SC,
    • Enteral - PO, PR, UDT, Topical
  48. A receptor site is defined as:
    Place a drug binds to to achieve its desired result
  49. Schedule II drug is:
    • High abuse potential
    • Has medical uses
    • ie cocaine, morphine
  50. Schedule I drug is:
    • High abuse potential
    • No medical use
    • ie heroin, LSD
  51. Schedule III drug is:
    • Less abuse than I & II
    • Accepted med uses
    • ie vicodin, Tylenol w/codeine
  52. Schedule IV drug is:
    • Low abuse
    • Accepted med uses
    • ie Valium, Xanax
  53. An anesthetic is defined as a drug that:
    A drug that causes an absence of all sensation
  54. An analgesic is defined as a drug that:
    A drug that relieves the sensation of pain
  55. An agonist is a drug that:
    Drug that binds to a receptor & causes it to initiate the expected response
  56. Beta agonist effects include:
    • Beta 1 - Vasoconstriction, Bronchoconstriction
    • Beta 2 - Vasodilation, Bronchodilation
  57. Opiate properties include:
    • Analgesia
    • Euphoria
  58. A prototype drug is defined as:
    A drug within a class that exhibits ALL of the properties of that class
  59. Name 3 antianginal agents.
    • NTG
    • Tridil
    • Morphine
  60. Name 2 prehospital analgesics.
    MS, Nubain, Aspirin, Butorphanol/Stadol, Fentanyl, Meperidine/Demerol
  61. Name 1 diuretic.
    Lasix, Osmatrol
  62. Name 1 parasymphalytic.
    Atropine
  63. Name 3 antiarrhythmic drugs.
    Lido, Amio, Procainamide, Bretylium, Verapamil, Cardizem, Adenosine
  64. Indications for benadryl.
    • Dystonic reaction
    • Allergic reaction
  65. 3 indications for dopamine
    • To increase cardiac output
    • Non hypovolemic hypotension
    • Cardiogenic shock
  66. Dosage range for dopamine?
    2-20 mcg/kg/min
  67. Available routes for narcan?
    IV, IO, IM, IN
  68. Dosage range for narcan.
    0.4 -2mg up to 10mg
  69. Class of drug for procardia (nifedipine).
    CCB
  70. Class of drug: Propranolol
    Beta Blocker
  71. Indication for vecuronium (norcuron):
    Paralytic for RSI
  72. Actions of etomidate:
    Short acting hypnotic w/no analgesic effects & limited cardiovascular effects
  73. Class of drug: Isoproterenol (isuprel):
    Sympathomimetic
  74. Indication for Isoproterenol:
    Bradycardia
  75. Class of drug: Ipecac
    Emetic
  76. Class of drug: Verapamil
    CCB
  77. What is the prototype benzo?
    Ativan
  78. What does SLUDGE stand for?
    • Salivation
    • Lacrimation
    • Urination
    • Defacation
    • Gastric motility
    • Emesis
  79. If a rhythm is reg the most accurate way to calculate heart rate is to count the num of small squares between 2 R waves & divide the number into ______.
    1500
  80. The QRS in A fib is ____.
    <0.12
  81. Atrial rhythms originate in the ____ ____.
    Atrial pathways
  82. Name a factor that is not assoc w/an increased incidence of SIDS:
    Female Infant
  83. Poisons fr bacterial cells when they die are called:
    Endotoxins
  84. The largest % of water in the body is ____ fluid.
    Intracellular
  85. As blood vol is lost due to traumatic inj, the body's response is to:
    Increase HR & close precapillary sphincters
  86. Describe an antibody:
    A substance produced by B lymphocytes that binds w/an antigen
  87. The primary constituent of plasma is ____.
    Water
  88. The process of cell division by which the body grows is known as ____.
    Mitosis
  89. Drugs w/high abuse potential & no acceptable medical benefits are classified as Schedule ____.
    I
  90. A properly placed ____ ____ effectively isolates the trachea for ventilation & protection fr aspiration
    Endotracheal Tube
  91. The leading cause of death fr unintentional inj in the US is:
    MVAs
  92. What is a likely response to a dry drowning?
    Laryngospasm
  93. What measure most effectively protects EMS workers fr infectious disease?
    Hand washing
  94. What IV solution will remain in the vascular system the longest?
    Plasmanate
  95. Your pt is a toddler w/burns to the back of his head and his entire back. What % is he injured?
    27%
  96. You arrive @ an MCI. What is the first thing you should do?
    Scene size-up and set up command
  97. Define Guillain Barre Syndrome.
    A virus that triggers nerve damage and rapid loss of motor function
  98. Poisons released fr dying bacterial cells are called ____.
    Exotoxins
  99. Polio often ends in ____.
    Paralysis
  100. According to the AHA the gold standard treatment for V-Fib is _____.
    High quality CPR
  101. What are the S&S of Cardiac Tamponade?
    • Rapid Weak Pulse
    • Decreasing systolic BP
    • Narrowing Pulse Pressures
    • Pulsus Paradoxus
  102. What are the S&S of Cardiogenic Shock.
    • Anxiety/Restlessness/AMS
    • Hypotension
    • Tachycardia
    • Diapharesis
    • JVD
  103. What are the S&S of Becks Triad?
    • Hypotension
    • JVD
    • Distant, muffled heart sounds
  104. What are the S&S of cardiac tamponade?
    • Beck's Triad
    • Pulsus Paradaxus
    • Tachycardia
    • AMS
  105. Define Atherosclerosis.
    Thickening of artery walls due to build up of fatty materials
  106. Describe an AAA.
    Ballooning of the abdominal aorta >50%. Usually asymptomatic unless rupture occurs
  107. What are the S&S of an AAA?
    10/10 low back, flank, abdomen & groin pain
  108. What is thermolytic Inadequacy?
    Failure of body's thermoregulatory mechanisms to compensate adequately
  109. Hyperthermia is described as:
    Unusually high core body temp
  110. Passive cooling techniques include:
    • Shade
    • Ice Paks in arm pits, groin
  111. What is the result of left sided heart failure?
    Increased back pressure into the circulatory system
  112. What is the result of right sided heart failure?
    Increased back pressure into systemic venous circulation
  113. What is coughing up of clear or pink sputum indicative of?
    Pulmonary edema
  114. How do we make D10NS?
    Draw 50ccs fr a 250 bag and add 25g in 50ccs of D50
  115. What are the 4 types of thermolysis?
    • Conduction
    • Convection
    • Radiation
    • Respiration
  116. What is the acronym AEIOUTIPS used for & what does each stand for?
    • AMS
    • A acidosis/alcohol
    • E epilepsy
    • I infection
    • O OD
    • U uremia
    • T trauma
    • I insulin
    • P psychosis
    • S stroke
  117. What are the 2 divisions of the autonomic NS?
    • Sympathetic - fight or flight
    • Parasympathetic - feed & breed
  118. What are the 2 primary components of the CNS?
    • Brain
    • Spinal Cord
  119. The afferent NS carries impulses where?
    Toward the CNS
  120. The efferent NS carries impulses where?
    From brain & spinal cord to periphery
  121. Name 5 toxic metabolic states.
    • Anoxia
    • Ketoacidosis
    • Hepatic failure
    • Hypoglycemia
    • Toxic exposure
  122. What are S&S of pancreatitis?
    • Severe upper abd pain radiating to back
    • N/V
  123. What are S&S of acute gastroenteritis?
    • Stomach pain or spasms
    • N/V/D
    • Loss of appetite
    • H/A
  124. Ulcerative Colitis have S&S of:
    • Mucus like stool w/blood
    • Fever in severe cases
    • Different degrees of Abd pain
  125. S&S of Crohn's disease include:
    • Porridge like stool
    • Fever
    • GI bleeding
    • N/V/D
  126. S&S of diverticulitis include:
    • Abd pain/tenderness
    • N/V
    • Fever
    • Signs of lower GI bleeding
  127. Give 4 causes of a ruptured blood vessel in the skull (head bleed).
    • Physical trauma
    • Hemorrhagic stroke
    • Ruptured aneurysm
  128. Where is a subdural Hematoma located & what are S&S?
    • Between the dura & arachnoid
    • S&S H/A & AMS
  129. Where is an epidural hematoma located & what are S&S?
    • Between the duramater and the cranium
    • S&S Lucid interval followed by unconsciousness
  130. Where is a subarachnoid hemorrhage & what are S&S?
    • Between arachnoid & pia meningeal layers
    • S&S Sudden onset severe H/A
  131. Decorticate posturing is characterized by:
    • Elbows, wrists & fingers flexed
    • Legs extended w/inward rotation
  132. Decerebrate posturing is characterized by:
    • Head arched backward
    • Arms extended by sides
    • Legs extended
    • Body rigid w/teeth clenched
  133. TCA OD presents how on EKG?
    Lg R in aVR
  134. What determines a dry drowning?
    An insignificant amt of water in the lungs
  135. What determines a wet drowning?
    A significant amt of water in the lungs
  136. What is the mammalian diving reflex?
    A reflex in mammals which optimizes respiration to allow staying underwater for extended periods of time
  137. What is the primary cause of death in a drowning?
    Asphyxia
  138. A fresh water drowning causes what in the lungs?
    Causes alveoli to collapse fr lack of surfactant
  139. A salt water drowning has what effect on the lungs?
    • Causes hypoxemia due to hypertonic nature of salt water
    • Also causes Pulmonary Edema
  140. What does the xray look like in an ARDS pt?
    Broken glass
  141. What determines a drowning?
    Death fr asphyxia due to suffocation caused by liquid entering the lungs
  142. S&S of Beta blocker OD include:
    • Prolonged PRI
    • Bradycardia
    • Hx of Beta blocker use
  143. Dull crampy abd pain that is not reproducable and is not effected by palpation is usually ____ fr someplace else.
    Referred
  144. A calf that is swollen, cool to the touch and sore is probably caused by ____ ____.
    Compartment Syndrome
  145. When checking for excursion the thumbs are placed on the ____ ____.
    Costal Margins
  146. If insulin and beta blockers are taken together what can happen?
    The beta blockers can mask the effects of hypoglycemia
  147. Pupillary constriction, hypersalivation, wheezing, bradycardia are all part of what NS?
    Parasympathetic
  148. Inderol causes what?
    Bradycardia
  149. Being respectful to a pt's family is an example of what duty?
    Ethical
  150. Disadvantage of vascular replacement with isotonic crystaloids?
    It get rapidly excreted
  151. The least likely cause of PEA is _____.
    Electricution
  152. A cardiac risk factor for stroke is _____.
    A-Fib
  153. Initial Algorithm for anaphylaxis simply put.
    O2 -> Epi -> Benadryl
  154. STEMI in 2,3,aVf = ____.
    Left Ventricular MI
  155. What is the time for the PRI?
    0.12 - 0.20 sec
  156. Aspiration causes ____ ____ & ____ ____.
    • Tissue Damage
    • Pulmonary Edema
  157. Sexually assualted w/a foreign obj w/vaginal hemorrhage what is appropriate?
    Fluid replacement
  158. The leading cause of unintentional inj is _____.
    MVA
  159. An obligation to treat all pts fairly is legally known as ____.
    Justice
  160. A seizure w/rapid loss of consciousness & motor coordination, muscle spasms & jerky motions is known as ____ ____.
    Tonic Clonic
  161. What is collace?
    Stool Softner
  162. What is the Pedi dose of albuterol?
    1.25mg
  163. What is the pedi dose for Epi?
    0.01mg/kg w/max single dose of 0.3-0.5mg SC
  164. What is the Pedi dosage for benadryl (hint same as dog dosage).
    1 mg/kg to a max of 50 mg
  165. What is Pedi dosage for solu-medrol?
    1-2 mg/kg
  166. What is the minimum dose of atropine for a Pedi pt & why is there a minimum?
    0.1 mg regardless of calc b/c lower dosage could cause reverse?
  167. What is the max single dose of atropine for a pedi pt repeated how many times?
    0.5 mg repeated twice
  168. Give 3 S&S of symptomatic Bradycardia?
    • AMS
    • Poor hemodynamics
    • CP
  169. When BLS doesn't work for FBAO what is the ALS algorithm?
    • McGills & scope
    • ET around
    • Push R mainstem
    • Needle Crichothyrotomy
  170. Unresponsive w/tombstone T's & STEMI in V1-V4 equals?
    Anteroseptal MI
  171. Left ventricular hypertrophy shows how on an EKG?
    R's > 35 boxes in 2 or more consecutive leads
  172. What are 4 characteristics of SVT?
    • Regularily Regular
    • Narrow complex
    • HR >150
    • P's present but not discernible
  173. Pedi pt w/uncontrollable drooling and SOB probably has ____.
    Epiglotitus
  174. Tx for an anteroseptal MI includes what med in what dose?
  175. What part of the kidney forms urine?
    Nephron
  176. Propranalol causes what effect on tropic properties?
    Neg chronotropy
  177. A pregnant pt w/tearing abd pain & recent cocaine use is probably experiencing ____ ____.
    Abruptio Placenta
  178. Death fr an MI is most commonly caused by ____.
    Dysrhythmias
  179. Which of the following is part of the mother's routine post pardum care? Oxytocin, fundal massage, 1000mL NS or Encourage mother to bear down to deliver placenta?
    Fundal Massage

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