CDC's URE's

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Author:
tromorg
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84778
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CDC's URE's
Updated:
2011-05-11 09:46:39
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volume 1
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  1. what is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?
    2
  2. what is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?
    Intranetwork
  3. what type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?
    Heterogeneous Network
  4. what type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?
    Homogeneous network
  5. what is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?
    Local Area Network (LAN)
  6. what type of communications network links a broad geographical region?
    Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
  7. what type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?
    Global Area Network (GAN)
  8. how many users are nomally in a peer to peer network?
    2-10
  9. how many users are in a single server network?
    10-50
  10. how many users are in a multi-server network?
    50-250
  11. how many users are in a multi server high speed backbone network?
    250-1,000
  12. what type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?
    Enterprise Network
  13. what is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?
    Media access control address
  14. how many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?
    4
  15. what is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
    01100000
  16. what is the network id of IP address 131.10.230.120/24?
    131.10.230.0
  17. what is the host id of IP address 131.10.230.120/24?
    0.0.0.120
  18. how many bits are typically covered in an IPv6 subnet mask?
    64
  19. what series of AF instruction series covers communications and information?
    33
  20. what air force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the air force global information grid (AF-GIG)?
    AFI 33-115v1
  21. according to the air force network structure, what tier is the air force network operations center (AFNOSC)?
    1
  22. what network entitiy provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?
    Network Control Center (NCC)
  23. what is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?
    Network Management Server
  24. which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?
    Centralized, Hierarchical, and Distributed
  25. what network architecture has a network mangement platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network mangement duties?
    Centralized
  26. what network architecture use multiple systems for network mangement, with one system acting as a central server and the other working as clients?
    Hierarchical
  27. What level of network mangement activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
    Interactive
  28. what level of network mangement activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at hand?
    Proactive
  29. performance mangement can be broke into what two separate functional categories?
    Monitoring and tuning
  30. which function of performance mangement tracks historical data by tracking activites on the network?
    Monitoring
  31. what network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?
    Security
  32. what is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?
    Tolerance Parameter
  33. network mangement protocols are designed(in most cases) to reside above what layer of the OSI model?
    Session
  34. what is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network mangement information available from network devices?
    Management Information Base
  35. what area of the simple network mangement protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?
    Private
  36. what SNMP node is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system?
    Agent
  37. what operational SNMP message asks for a specific instance of management information?
    Get
  38. what operational SNMP message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of info with minimal overhead?
    GetNext
  39. what operational SNMP message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management info?
    Set
  40. what operational SNMP message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?
    Trap
  41. what is the type of probe that collects interdevice connectivity info using proprietary topology management info bases (MIB)?
    Neighbor Probe
  42. what is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?
    Domain manager
  43. what component of the SMARTS application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
    Broker
  44. what are the 3 types of SMARTS notifications?
    compound events, problems, and symptomatic events.
  45. what color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events?
    Purple
  46. how many diff categories of info does the performance monitor provide you about your network?
    21
  47. what device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software?
    Protocol analyzer
  48. what provides info concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocl?
    protocol statistics
  49. what reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?
    Media Access Control (MAC) node statistics
  50. what automatically runs in the background when the protocol anaylyzer application is activated?
    Node Discovery
  51. what provides info concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?
    Connections Statistics
  52. what is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain info?
    authentication
  53. what are 3 primary ways to authenticate ones self?
    something you know, are, have.
  54. knowledge based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something you?
    know
  55. the AF requires a network password to be atleast how many characters long?
    9
  56. what regulation covers remanence security?
    AFSSI 8580
  57. storage media that retains data after power is removed is considered?
    Volitile
  58. which standard form is used to annotate storage media has been sanitized?
    711
  59. who can declassify storage media that has been sanitized?
    Infomation Owner
  60. what is the process of physically damaging the media to render is unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?
    destroying
  61. what is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field?
    Degaussing
  62. what is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media?
    Degaussing
  63. what is a comprehensive evaluation and validation of an air force info system to establish the degree to which it complies with assigned info assurance controls based on standardized procedures?
    Certification
  64. what is a formal declaration by a designated approving official (DAA) that an info system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk?
    Accredidation
  65. what is the DOD process for certifying and accrediting info systems to operate on the global info grid (GIG)?
    Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP)
  66. what documentation is required to permanently connect to the global info grid system?
    Authorization to Operate (ATO)
  67. what doc signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global info grid?
    Denial of Authorization to Operate (DATO)
  68. what process, along with AFI 33-210, air force certification and accredidation (C&A) program (AFCAP), provides the basic framework of the certification and accredidation?
    Information Technology (IT) lean reengineering
  69. what do you call the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere to when fielding a system?
    department of defense info technology system cert and accreditation process (DITSCAP)
  70. what is the database of record for registering all systems and applications?
    DITSCAP
  71. what is a collection of computing environments connected by one or more internal networks under the control of a single approval authority and security policy?
    Enclave
  72. how many non-secure internet protocol router network (NIPRNET) gateways does the af possess?
    16
  73. which agency must approve all info protection tools prior to their use?
    HQ USAF
  74. what device is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks?
    Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
  75. what are examples of network attacks that bypass the firewall?
    Tunneling and application based attacks
  76. what is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?
    Tunneling
  77. a base web server that inferfaces with the public must be placed in what area of a base network?
    DMZ
  78. what is the simplest and least expensive way to stop an inappropriate netowork address?
    packet filtering
  79. what type of firewall consists of a screening router and a set of rules that accept or reject a message based on information int he messages header (a packet): the source address, the destination, and the port?
    Packet Filtering
  80. what type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas?
    Bastion Host
  81. what type of firewall generates audit trails of all network related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes?
    Bastion Host
  82. what network dvice performs regorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?
    Vulnerability Scanners
  83. what action represents one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal networks?
    network connected computer systems with modems that make calls to accept calls from the public switched network
  84. what do you call a current and percieved capability, intention, or attack, directed to cause denial of service?
    threat
  85. an ainformation system on your network that is not to require the use of a common access card or password would be considered a?
    vulnerability
  86. a program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is a?
    virus
  87. what type of malicious logic can form large networks that can be used to launch a varitety of attacks without an info systems owners knowledge?
    bot
  88. what type of malicious logic can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file?
    worm
  89. what is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers?
    Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
  90. what is an electronic document that officially links together a user's identity with his public key?
    PKI certificate
  91. what is a file that is kept with you and will allow you to decrypt files encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code?
    private key
  92. what is an electronic document that officially links together a users identity with his public key?
    PKI certificate
  93. Which component of the PKI responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates?
    certificate authority
  94. the 2 ways key establishment can occur are key?
    transfer and aggreement
  95. which public key algorithm is exclusively a key establishment protocol?
    diffie and hellman
  96. what is the primary unclassified PKI token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the air force?
    CAC
  97. which team provides a communication link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities?
    initial communications support teams
  98. sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds how many days?
    30 days
  99. who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in-garrison units for the duration of a contigency?
    sustained communications support teams
  100. what program is known as a state of the are ground to ground communications infrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base?
    Theater Deployable Communications (TDC)

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