Psychobiology

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rach123
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84982
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Psychobiology
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2011-05-10 11:48:16
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psychobiology
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Psychobiology Exam Semester 2
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  1. Which part of the brain is invloved in Thinking, Planning, Emotion and Motor Control?
    Frontal Lobe
  2. What is the Parietal Lobe responsible for?
    Spatial Awareness, Sensations, Visual System.
  3. Which part of the brain is known as the 'What Pathway'?
    Temporal Lobe
  4. What is the temporal lobe responsible for?
    Memory, Hearing, Facial Recognition
  5. What is the Occipital Lobe also known as?
    Visual Cortex
  6. Which part of the brain is responsible for maintaining homeostasis?
    Hypothalamus
  7. The Hypothalamus is responsible for...?
    Eating Behaviour, Emotions, Sleep Cycle
  8. Which part of the brain is responsible for seasonal cycles?
    Pineal Gland
  9. Which hormone is secreted by the Pineal gland?
    Melatonin
  10. Which part of the brain contains dopamine receptors?
    Nucleus Accumbens
  11. The Nucleus Accumbens is the _______ circuit?
    Reward
  12. What is the master gland in the brain?
    Pituitary Gland
  13. Where are growth and stress hormones secreted from?
    Pituitary Gland
  14. Which part of the brain acts as a relay station?
    Thalamus
  15. Which system regulates basic drives and emotion?
    Limbic System
  16. Which part of the Limbic system plays a part in reward?
    Amygdala
  17. Which part of the Limbic system plays a part in memory?
    Hippocampus
  18. Schizophrenia is characterised by ______ episodes?
    Psychotic
  19. What are the positive symptoms of Schizophrenia?
    Delusions, Hallucinations, Disorganised Thoughts
  20. What are the negative symptoms of Schizophrenia?
    Flat Affect, Alogia, Avolition, Anhedonia
  21. Which type of symptom appears first?
    Negative
  22. Flat Affect means no ______?
    Emotion
  23. Which symptom is characterised by uncommunicativeness?
    Alogia
  24. What is the term for the inability to experience pleasure?
    Anhedonia
  25. What is an alternative term for apathy?
    Avolition
  26. There are over ___________ risk genes for Schizophrenia?
    a dozen
  27. In the 1950's, drugs were discovered that blocked the action of dopamine at ______________?
    postsynaptic receptors
  28. Which illegal drug mimics the action of dopamine?
    Amphetamines
  29. Amphetamines illustrate that dopamine is involved in ________?
    Psychosis
  30. Amphetamines prevent the reuptake of dopamine, therefore they are dopamine _________?
    Agonists
  31. There is evidence that ________ drugs block dopamine?
    Antipsychotic
  32. The dopamine hypothesis says that Schizophrenia is related to an ___________ of dopamine neurones in the frontal cortex?
    Underactivity
  33. Postive symptoms of Schizophrenia are realted to excessive dopamine transmission in ___________?
    Subcortical regions
  34. Negative symptoms of Schizophrenia are related to a defecit in ________________?
    Cortical dopamine transmission
  35. Modern antipsychotic drugs are ______________?
    Partial Agonists - they block partial receptor activity
  36. The forst drugs in the 1950s that blocked the action of dopamine were _______?
    Dopamine Antagonists
  37. The negative symptoms of Schizophrenia are associated with the __________ pathway?
    Mesocortical
  38. The positive symptoms of Schizophrenia are associated with the _________ pathway?
    Mesolimbic
  39. Which dopamine receptor blocking drug was first found to eliminate positive symptoms of Schizophrenia?
    Chlorpromazine
  40. Amphetamines and Cocaine produce the ________ symptoms of Schizophrenia?
    Positive
  41. There is an argument that antipsychotic drugs exert their therapeutic effects by ________ dopamine receptors?
    blocking
  42. The mesolimbic pathway leads from the Ventral Tegmental Area to __________?
    Nucleus Accumbens and Amygdala
  43. The mesolimbic pathway more likely to be associated with the positive symptoms of Schizophrenia because the Nucleus Accumbens is involved in ________?
    reinforcement.
  44. What was the first treatment for depression in the 1950's?
    Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors
  45. MAOI's inhibit the reuptake of _______ and _______?
    Serotonin and Norepinephrine
  46. What is the side effect associated with MAOI's?
    The cheese effect
  47. What was the next set of drugs which also inhibited the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine after MAOI's?
    Tricyclic Antidepressants
  48. MAO Inhibitors and Tricyclic Antidepressants are ________?
    Monoaminergic Agonists
  49. The Monoamine Hypothesis says that depression is a result of insufficient activity of _________?
    Monoaminergic neurones
  50. Depression is treated by _______ drugs?
    Agonist
  51. Depression is caused by Monoamines ______?
    Antagonist
  52. What is the amino acid used to make Serotonin?
    Tryptophan
  53. Experiments relating to tryptophan depletion suggest that the effect of antidepressants is dependent upon the availability of ________?
    Serotonin
  54. The 2-3 week timescale for antidepressants to begin working can be explained, as drugs which increase serotonin release may temporarily inhibit the activity of some serotonin neurones in the _______?
    Raphe Nuclei
  55. What is the difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of a cell?
    Membrane Potential
  56. At resting potential, the charge is _____?
    -70mv
  57. At resting potential, there is a higher ______ concentration outide the cell?
    Sodium (Na+)
  58. At resting potential, there is a higher concentration of ____ ions inside the cell?
    K+
  59. Which mechanism restores the balance of ions across the mebrane following the generation of an action potential?
    Sodium Potassium pump
  60. During the depolarisation phase, there is more ________ inside than outside the cell?
    Sodium
  61. Too much ________ leaves the cell to produce hyperpolarisation?
    Potassium
  62. Which ion enters the cell during depolarisation?
    Sodium
  63. Depression is associated with the neurotransmitter ________?
    Serotonin
  64. The activity of modern antipsychotic drugs is thought to be mediated within the ________?
    Nucleus Accumbens
  65. At which phase do Potassium channels open to force out K+ ions?
    Repolarisation
  66. At which phase does the electrical charge return to -70mv?
    Repolarisation
  67. At what stage does the electrical charge overshoot past -70mv?
    Hyperpolarisation
  68. After the membrane overshoots its resting value, Sodium-potassium transporters remove ______ from inside and retrieve _____ from outisde the cell?
    Na+ and K+
  69. Between neurones, transmission is ________ in nature?
    Chemical
  70. Between neurone communication is caused by the release of neurotransmitters, stimulated by _______?
    Action potential
  71. What forces cause Na+ to rush into the cell during depolarisation?
    Diffusion and Electrostatic Pressure
  72. What are the two divisions of the Peripheral Nervous system?
    Somatic and Autonomic
  73. Which part of the PNS receives information from sensory organs and controls muscles?
    Somatic nervous system
  74. The sympathetic and parasympathetic are divisons of ________?
    Autonomic nervous system
  75. What is the name of the cell body of a neurone, which containes the nucleus?
    Soma
  76. What produces vesicles?
    Golgi Apparatus
  77. Which part of a cell is involved in the production of energy?
    Mitochondria
  78. Dendrites receive messages from _______?
    Terminal Buttons
  79. Axons are often covered in a ___________?
    Myelin Sheath
  80. What is the name of supporting cells in the nervous system?
    Glia
  81. Which type of glia connect to many neurones in bundles within the CNS?
    Astrocytes
  82. Which type of glia wraps around an axon in the PNS to form a segment?
    Schwann Cells
  83. What type of glia in the CNS surrounds many axons to form one segment around each?
    Oligodendrocytes
  84. The gaps in the myelin sheath which help the signal to regenerate are called _______?
    Nodes of Ranvier
  85. What are the two types of neurones?
    Sensory and Motor
  86. Schwann cells differ to Oligodendrocytes in function as they also aid in _________?
    regeneration of damaged axons
  87. What is a reduction (towards 0) of the mebrane potential?
    Depolarisation
  88. An increase in the membrane potential is _______?
    Hyperpolarisation
  89. What is the term for the action potential appearing to jump from one Node of Ranvier to the next?
    Saltatory Conduction
  90. Neurotransmitters attach to the ________ of a receptor molecule?
    binding site
  91. In terminal buttons, molecules of nerotransmitter are found in ________?
    Vesicles
  92. By what process to neurotransmitters go across the synaptic gap?
    Diffusion
  93. Postsynaptic receptors open ________ to allow passage of ions?
    Nerotransmitter dependent ion channels
  94. By which two processes is the postsynaptic potential terminated?
    Reuptake or Enzymatic deactivation
  95. During reuptake, neurotransmitter is rapidly removed from the synaptic cleft by the _______?
    Terminal Buttons
  96. At resting potential, the inside of the cell is more ______ charged?
    Negatively
  97. The inside of the cell becomes positively charged at the _________?
    Threshold of excitation following generation of an action potential
  98. During hyperpolarisation, the membrane potential becomes more _______ than normal?
    Negative
  99. The opening of _______ occurs as a result of a change in membrane potential ?
    Voltage dependent ion channels
  100. Which VDI channel opens first as a result of a change in voltage?
    Sodium channel
  101. An action potential travels along under the myelin sheath by ________?
    Cable properties
  102. At the hyperpolarisation phase, the membrane potential is ____?
    -90mv
  103. A postsynaptic potential is a brief _______?
    Depolarisation
  104. What is formed when groups of protein molecules in the vesicle attach to protein molecules in the membrane?
    Fusion pore
  105. The release of vesicle contents into the synaptic cleft is called ________?
    Exocytosis
  106. What opens as a result of the depolarisation when the action potential reaches terminal buttons?
    Voltage Dependent Calcium Channels
  107. What ions bind with the clusters of protein molecules in the membrane?
    Ca2+
  108. What process causes buds of the membrane to pinch off to stop the membrane becoming larger?
    Pinocytosis
  109. What process causes new vesicles to be formed?
    Cisternae
  110. What is the condition which means an individual cannot see certain parts within the visual field?
    Blindsight
  111. What part of the eye accounts for 80% of focussing power?
    The Cornea
  112. What controls the amount of light entering the eye?
    Pupil
  113. What is the first optically active part of the visual system?
    The Cornea
  114. What are scotopic conditions?
    Low light levels
  115. What is the proportion of the two types of visual receptiors?
    120 million rods, 5 million cones
  116. Whcih part of the eye contains only cones?
    The fovea
  117. Which part of the eye contains rods and cones?
    the periphery
  118. Individuals born with only rods are called _______?
    Rod monochromats
  119. Are rods or cones better at night?
    Rods
  120. How does information travel from the eye to the brain?
    the optic nerve
  121. Which has a higher sensitivity - rods or cones?
    Rods
  122. What are the two types of ganglion cell output?
    P cells and M Cells
  123. Which ganglion cell output deals with colour/object information and is slow acting?
    P Cells
  124. Which ganglion cell output is fast acting?
    M Cells
  125. What are the two visual pathways?
    Tectopulvinar and Geniculostriate
  126. What is the bilateral structure which regulates the flow of information?
    Lateral Geniculate Nucleus
  127. How many layers does the LGN have?
    6
  128. Where is motor and colour information first separated?
    LGN
  129. What is the mid stage of visual processing?
    Occipital lobe
  130. Where are the larger receptors found?
    Periphery
  131. What conditions arise as a result of damage to area V1?
    Scotoma, Cortical Blindness
  132. 98% of visual information goes straight to area ____?
    V1
  133. Which is the most cognitively dramatic area?
    V4
  134. What is caused by lesions in area V4?
    Cerebral Achromotopsia - inability to see colour
  135. Which area is purely specialised in global motion?
    V5/MT
  136. What condition is the inability to perceive movement?
    Akinatopsia
  137. Where in the eye are receptors found?
    Retina
  138. Which receptor cell is more sensitive to light of low intensity?
    Rods
  139. Which receptor cell is responsible for daytime and colour vision?
    Cones
  140. What is the central region of the retina that mediates our most acute vision?
    Fovea
  141. Which area of the brain is responsible for local motor detection?
    V3
  142. In very dim light we use _____ vision?
    rod
  143. When the photopigment of human rods is exposed to light, it breaks down into ______ and ______?
    Opsin and Retinal
  144. When rhodopsin is exposed to light, its colour changes to _______?
    Yellow (bleaching)
  145. The inner two layers of neurones on the LGN are called _______?
    Magnocellular Layers
  146. The outer four layers of neurones in the LGN are called ________?
    Parvocellular layers
  147. Information regarding colour and fine detail is transmitted by neurones in the ______ layer?
    Parvocellular
  148. Information regarding the perception of form, movement and depth is transmitted by neurones in the ______ layer?
    Magnocellular
  149. What is the primary visual cortex?
    Striate cortex
  150. The photoreceptors connect to the ganglion cells via ______ cells?
    bipolar
  151. What type of learning involves learning the connection between a behaviour and its consequences?
    Instrumental Learning
  152. What says that responses followed by a pleasant outcome will increase in occurrence and responses followed by a negative outcome will decrease in occurrence?
    Law of effect
  153. A reqard or punisher is a conditioned _________?
    Reinforcer
  154. The Skinner box was designed to look at the idea of _________?
    Reinforcement
  155. What did Olds and Miller use to show what parts of the brain were involved in reward?
    Intracranial Self-stimulation
  156. Stimulation of which area produces the most pleasure?
    Medial Forebrain Bundle
  157. The reward circuit lies within the ________?
    Medial Forebrain Bundle
  158. What are the three subdivisions of the MFB?
    Nigrostriatal System, Mesolimbic System, Mesocortical System
  159. Which system carries information from the VTA to the Nucleus Accumbens?
    Mesolimbic System
  160. Drugs that block dopamine receptors in the Nucleus Accumbens also block _______?
    Reinforcement
  161. A dopamine _______ interferes with reinforcement?
    antagonist
  162. Opiates, Nicotine and Caffeine are dopamine _______?
    Agonists
  163. Dopamine Agonist drugs release dopamine into the _______?
    Nucleus Accumbens
  164. Animals will press levers to inject dopmaine ______ into the Nucleus Accumbens?
    Agonists
  165. Lesions to the _______ disrupt behaviours learned through instrumental conditioning?
    Basal Ganglia
  166. Systematic injections of dopamine agonists are ______?
    Reinforcing
  167. Systematic injections of dopamine antagonists ______?
    block reinforcement
  168. What is located in the Nucleus Accumbens, Basal Ganglia and Prefrontal Cortex?
    Synaptic Change (Plasticity)
  169. The major reward system of the brain is the ______?
    Medial Forebrain Bundle
  170. Physical dependence on a drug leads to _____ and _____?
    Tolerance and Withdrawal
  171. Tolerance is a decrease in ________?
    Sensitivity
  172. What is the desensitisation of receptors which leads to tolerance?
    Downregulation
  173. Tolerance can occur as a result of decreased dendritic branching within the ______?
    Nucleus Accumbens
  174. What is the principle active compound in opiates?
    Morphine
  175. What is the second active compound in opiates?
    Codeine
  176. Opiate receptors are present in the ______ and the _____?
    Nucleus Accumbens and VTA
  177. Injections of opiates cause release of ______ in the Nucleus Accumbens?
    dopamine
  178. Cocaine and Amphetamines exert their addicting effects by altering the activity of the ___________?
    Mesolimbic dopamine system
  179. Cocaine increases the effectiveness of dopaminergic synapses by _______ the reuptake of dopamine?
    blocking
  180. Amphetamine blocks reuptake and ______ the release of dopamine?
    increases
  181. Destruction of ______ can reduce addictive behaviour?
    receptors

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