Midterm

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lvessey
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8601
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Midterm
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2010-03-01 15:13:36
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Environmental Geology
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Environmental Geology Midterm Study
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  1. Chapter 1: Which item listed below has helped to increase the carrying capacity of the earth?
    A. the development of nitrogen based fertilizers
    B. the development and application of chemical pesticides
    C. the development and application of chemical herbicides
    D. genetic modification of grains and other crops
    E. all of the above
    E. all of the above
  2. Chapter 1: What is the population of the world likely to be by the year 2050?
    A. 600 million
    B. 90 million
    C. 900 million
    D. 9 billion
    E. 6 billion
    D. 9 billion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Chapter 1: Which of the following statements is true regarding the world population growth since 1965?
    A. it has been increasing slowly
    B. it has stayed the same
    C. it has been increasing at an alarming rate
    D. it has been decreasing at an alarming rate
    E. it has been decreasing slowly
    E. it has been decreasing slowly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Chapter 1: IPAT equation is about which of the following?
    A. earthquake prediction
    B. global warming trends
    C. inflation
    D. slope stability
    E. environmental impact
    E. environmental impact
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Chapter 1: Which of the following is true of Environmental Geology?
    A. it is concerned with how natural geological process affect man
    B. it is concerned largely with surface geological processes
    C. it applies the science of geology to problems arising from the complex interactions of water, soil, air, soild earth and life
    D. it seeks ways for the earth's inhabitants to interact safely with their geological surroundings
    E. all of the above
    E. all of the above
  6. Chapter 1: The number of people/ animals that can be supported by a given area of land is called:
    A. doubling time
    B. carrying capacity
    C. growth rate
    D. critical mass
    E. population dynamics
    B. carrying capacity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Chapter 1: Which of the following is true of the world population in the 20th century?
    A. it quintupled
    B. it tripled
    C. it remained the same because of wars
    D. it quadrupled
    E. it doubled
    D. it quadrupled
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Chapter 1: Which of the following is not a variable in the IPAT equation?
    A. Natural Resources
    B. Populations
    C. Technology
    D. Affluence
    E. Impact
    A. Natural Resources
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Chapter 1: Exceeding of carrying capacity is referred to as
    A. negative feedback
    B. ecological overshoot
    C. population dynamics
    D. involutional melancholia
    E. diminishing returns
    B. ecological overshoot
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Chapter 1: Which of the following is NOT one of the environmental "successes" that have been accomplished since 1970?
    A. unleaded gasoline has reduced lead emission by 98%
    B. the California gray whale, the bald eagle, and the American alligator have been removed from the endangered species list
    C. the numer of large cities violating the clean-air standards has dropped significantly
    D. concentrations of atmospheric carbon dioxide have begun to decrease
    E. all of the above
  11. D. concentrations of atmospheric carbon dioxide have begun to decrease
  12. Chapter 1: What factor other than decreased birth rates has contributed to the lower United Nations world population project (made in 2002) for the year 2050?
    A. acts of terrorism
    B. deaths from war
    C. highway deaths
    D. HIV / AIDS
    E. pollution-related deaths
    D. HIV / AIDS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Chapter 1: Which of the following is NOT somethng that is included on derivative maps?
    A. landslide hazards zones
    B. depth to underground water
    C. areas susceptible to flooding
    D. seismic hazard zones
    E. all of the above
    E. all of the above
  14. Chapter 1: What is the computer system that assembles, stores, manipulates and displays geographic data according to location?
    A. GIS
    B. GPS
    C. GOP
    D. GSA
    E. GPA
    A. GIS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. Chapter 1: What are lines of equal elevation called on a topographic maps?
    A. geological contacts
    B. lineations
    C. isotherms
    D. grid lines
    E. contours
    A. geological contacts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Chapter 1: How much greater are population growth rates in the poorer countries than they are in the richer countries?
    A. 10 times
    B. 4 times
    C. 6 times
    D. 2 times
    E. 8 times
    C. 6 times
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Chapter 1 True or False: The large argicultural yields obtained today are fundamentally dependant upon fossil fuels.
    True
  18. Chapter 1 True or False: An average American citizen consumes 35 times the resources of an average Indian citizen over the course of his/her lifetime.
    True.
  19. Chapter 1 True or False: Nearly half of the population of the world is living in cities.
    True
  20. Chapter 1 True or False: The main purpose of geological maps is to show the shape of the earth's surface.
    False.
  21. Chapter 1 True or False: Once the earth's carrying capacity is exceeded, population reduction will occur whether we want it to or not.
    True
  22. Chapter 1 True or False: GIS is a new navigational system that will soon replace GPS.
    False
  23. Chapter 1 True or False: Derivative maps are made from computer data sets that are analyzed and plotted for special applications.
    True.
  24. Chapter 1 True or False: Malthus posulated in 1812 that populations growth would soon cause global famine and collapse of society.
    True
  25. Chapter 1 True or False: Annual population growth rate of +1% corresponds to the situation where there were 100 more deaths per thousand individuals than live births in a given year.
    False
  26. Chapter 1 True or False: With a population growth rate of 0.7% it would take 100 years for the population to double.
    True
  27. Chapter 1 True or False: The highest soil degradation rates occur in Africa.
    False
  28. Chapter 1 True or False: Nations that tend to have the greatest environmental impacts are those with the lowest population growth rates.
    True
  29. Chapter 1 True or False: The size of our population is limited by the amount of food we can grow.
    True
  30. Chapter 1 True or False: Since 1950 about one third of all US cropland has been lost to erosion.
    True
  31. Chapter 1 True or False: The population density of the earth has tripled since World War II.
    True
  32. Chapter 2: The geological concept that processes active today have been active during the earth's past history is somethimes paraphrased as "the present is the key to the past" and is called
    A. the law of thermodynamics
    B. the law of superposition
    C. involutional melancholia
    D. evolution theory
    E. the law of Uniformaitarianism
    E. the law of Uniformaitarianism
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Chapter 2: An atom having either a positive or negative electrical charge is called
    A. none of the foregoing
    B. an electron
    C. an isotope
    D. a molecule
    E. an ion
    E. an ion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Chapter 2: A variet of an element that is heavier than normal because of the presences of extra neutrons is called
    A. an electron
    B. a molecule
    C. an isotope
    D. an ion
    E. none of the foregoing
    C. an isotope
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Chapter 2: Most of the mass of an atom is located in its
    A. nucleus
    B. electrons
    C. outer orbits
    D. ions
    E. protons
    A. nucleus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Chapter 2: Which of the following is NOT part of the general definition of a mineral?
    A. crystalline character
    B. naturally occuring
    C. narrow range of chemical composition
    D. amorphous
    E. inorganic
    D. amorphous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Chapter 2: Most of the rocks of the earth's crust are made up of which of the following mineral groups?
    A. oxides
    B. vanadates
    C. carbonates
    D. tungstates
    E. silicates
    E. silicates
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. Chapter 2: Which silicate mineral is the most abundant in the earth's crust?
    A. obsidian
    B. feldspar
    C. calcite
    D. basalt
    E. magnetite
    B. feldspar
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Chapter 2: Which property of minerals is variable and therefore the least reliable as a clue in identifying a mineral type?
    A. chemical composition
    B. hardness
    C. color
    D. crystal form
    E. cleavage
    C. color
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Chapter 2: What are the three general classes of rocks that are defined based upon origin?
    A. basaltic, granitic, and andesitic
    B. sandstone, shale and conglomerate
    C. igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic
    D. slate, schist, and gneiss
    E. irgnorant, sedentary, and metaphysical
    C. igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Chapter 2: Plutonic rocks are atype of
    A. metamorphic rock
    B. sedimentary rock
    C. volcanic rock
    D. extrusive igneous rock
    E. intrusive igneous rock
    E. intrusive igneous rock
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Chapter 2: What is a common distinguishing characteristic of sedimentary rock masses?
    A. they are always very colorful
    B. they tend to be layered
    C. they tend to be extremely hard
    D. they are formed by solidification from a melt
    E. all of the above
    B. they tend to be layered
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Chapter 2: In addition to particles, what other material can be found in sedimentary rocks?
    A. Inorganic chemical precipitates
    B. fossils (e.g. shell fragments)
    C. biogenic chemical precipitates
    D. lithified plant debris
    E. all of the above
    E. all of the above
  44. Chapter 2: What distinguishes the pairs of rocks listed in the igneous rock classification from each other?
    (Consider, for example, basalt and gabbro.)
    A. mineral composition
    B. chemical composition
    C. crystal system
    D. texture
    E. all of the above
    D. texture
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Chapter 2: What would be the method of choice for dating an organic substance less than 100,000 years old?
    A. Uranium-238
    B. Potassium-40
    C. Carbon-14
    D. Europium-123
    E. Rubidum-87
    C. Carbon-14
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Chapter 2: What is an aggregate composed of one or more varieties of interlocking mineral crystals called?
    A. quartz
    B. feldspar
    C. rock
    D. lava
    E. magma
    C. rock
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Chapter 2 True or False: The chances of being struck by lightning are about three times higher than the chances of a non-smoker dying from asbestos-related disease.
    True
  48. Chapter 2 True or False: There are over 30,000 mineral species.
    False
  49. Chapter 2 True or False: Oxygen and Silicon alone comprise 75% of crustal rocks by weight.
    True
  50. Chapter 2 True or False: About 20 out of the thousands of known mineral species make up the bulk of the earth's crust.
    True
  51. Chapter 2 True or False: In comparison to white asbestos, blue asbesto is the less harmful type used for industrial purposes.
    False
  52. Chapter 2 True or False: Magma is the general term for molten rock including bother underground and surface occurrences.
    False.
  53. Chapter 2 True or False: Rapid cooling of molten rock produces large crystals.
    False.
  54. Chapter 2 True or False: Rocks such as basalt, on the ride of the igneous rock classification, are darker-colored and have higher specific gravity than do rocks such as granite, on the left side.
    True
  55. Chapter 2 True or False: Metamorphic rocks where minerals have been flattened into layers by directed pressure are saild to be foilated.
    True
  56. Chapter 2 True or False: Relative age dating enables scientists to determine the age in years of a rock mass, whereas absolute age dating can only determine the sequence of events.
    False
  57. Chapter 2 True or False: Rock layers containing extensive fossils of organisms with hard parts represent only about 12% of geologic time.
    True
  58. Chapter 2 True or False: In two "half-lives," one fourth of a radioactive substance will remain.
    True
  59. Chapter 2 True or False: Dates on zircons from western Australia suggest that the oldest crustal rocks are more than 4 billion years old.
    True
  60. Chapter 2 True or False: The earliest evidence of life on earth is over 3 billion years old.
    True.
  61. Chapter 2 True or False: Most of the world's diamonds come from South America.
    False.
  62. Chapter 3: Which of the following is NOT one of the lines of evidence cited by Alfred Wegener in support of the Continental Drift hypothesis?
    A. fossil animals
    B. glacial patterns
    C. studies of the earth's magnetic field
    D. fossil plants
    E. the puzzle piece like fit of the edges of continents
    C. studies of the earth's magnetic field
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. Chapter 3: Which of the following is NOT part of the lithosphere?
    A. all are part of the lithosphere
    B. continental crust
    C. asthenosphere
    D. mantle lid
    E. oceanic crust
    C. asthenosphere
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Chapter 3: Which of the following is a type of plate boundary where new sea floor is formed?
    A. transform
    B. passive
    C. divergent
    D. convergent
    E. emergent
    C. divergent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Chapter 3: At what type of plate boundary do compression and subduction take place?
    A. emergent
    B. convergent
    C. divergent
    D. passive
    E. transform
    B. convergent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Chapter 3: What essential line of evidence in the 1960's helped to confirm the motion of the continents?
    A. glacial patterns
    B. fossil plants
    C. fossil animals
    D. puzzle piece like fit of the edges of the continents
    E. studies of the earth's magentic field
    E. studies of the earth's magentic field
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Chapter 3: The sequence of events that describes the opening and closing of ocean basins is called
    A. the geophysical cycle
    B. orogenesis
    C. die Vershiebung der Kontinente
    D. the lithologic cycle
    E. the Wilson cycle
    E. the Wilson cycle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. Chapter 3: What force is thought to be an important cause of plate tectonic motion?
    A. volcanic eruptions
    B. earthquakes
    C. thermal convection currents
    D. earth tides
    E. shear strain
    C. thermal convection currents
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. Chapter 3: What was the name given by Alfred Wegener for the single large continent that he believed existed at the end of the Paleozoic Era?
    A. Pangea
    B. Eurasis
    C. Eurasia
    D. Laurentia
    E. Gondwanaland
    A. Pangea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. Chapter 3: What type of plate boundary is the San Andreas Fault?
    A. transform
    B. divergent
    C. passive
    D. convergent
    E. none of the above
    A. transform
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Chapter 3: Which of the following is a characteristic or feature of a convergent plate boundary?
    A. compressive stress
    B. subduction complex
    C. volcanic arc
    D. trench
    E. all of the above
    E. all of the above
  72. Chapter 3: What does a Benioff-Wadati zone refer to?
    A. a transform plate boundary
    B. a subduction zone
    C. an area of extensional stress
    D. an area lacking deep earthquakes
    E. an area of high heat flow
    B. a subduction zone
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. Chapter 3: What was the name of the concept proposed by Harry Hess in 1960 that provided a mechanism for the Continental Drift hypothesis?
    A. polar wandering
    B. obduction
    C. the expanding earth theory
    D. dynamic physiography
    E. sea floor spreading
    E. sea floor spreading
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Chapter 3: What was the main objection to the Continental Drift hypothesis?
    A. Wegener's paleomagnetic data was fault
    B. Wegener was not even a certified geologist
    C. Wegener could not provide a mechanism for moving the continents
    D. its German name, die Verschiebung der Kontinente, was too difficult to pronouce
    E. all of the above
    C. Wegener could not provide a mechanism for moving the continents
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Chapter 3: What do VLBI, SLR, and GPS have in common with respect to plate tectonics?
    A. they are methods of measuring the velocity of plate motion
    B. they are abbreviations of the names of various lithospheric plates
    C. they are types of heat sensors
    D. they refer to ways of expressing the intensity of earthquakes shaking in a subduction zone
    E. they are funding organizations that support research
    A. they are methods of measuring the velocity of plate motion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. Chapter 3: Which statement below is true about the oceanic crust in comparison to continental crust?
    A. oceanic crust is thinner and heavier (higher specific gravity)
    B. oceanic crust is thicker and lighter (lower specific gravity)
    C. oceanic crust is thicker and heavier (higher specific gravity)
    D. oceanic crust is thinner and lighter (lower specific gravity)
    E. oceanic crust is heavier and has about the same thickness
    A. oceanic crust is thinner and heavier (higher specific gravity)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. Chapter 3 True or False: Alfred Wegener is credited with developing the modern theory of Plate Tectonics back in the year 1910
    False
  78. Chapter 3 True or False: The crust of the earth is thickest under mountain ranges and thinnest in oceanic areas
    True
  79. Chapter 3 True or False: The lithospheric plates are thought to move primarily as a result of thermal conduction
    False
  80. Chapter 3 True or False: Transform plate boundaries are places where shear stresses dominate.
    True.
  81. Chapter 3 True or False: There are 3 types of convergent plate boundaries.
    True.
  82. Chapter 3 True or False: The earth's magnetic field has reversed itself many times in the geologic past.
    True
  83. Chapter 3 True or False: The oldest ocean floor is less than 200 million years old.
    True.
  84. Chapter 3 True or False: Sea floor spreading happens at a rate of several meters per year.
    False.
  85. Chapter 3 True or False: The Mediterranean Sea has dried up completely during the geologic past and then rapidly refilled again.
    True
  86. Chapter 3 True or False: People living along a passive margin have a low probability of experience volcanoes and earthquakes
    True
  87. Chapter 3 True or False: There are 70 major plates that cover the outer surface of the earth
    False
  88. Chapter 3 True or False: Volcanic mountain ranges and deep earthquakes are common features of continental-oceanic convergent plate boundaries.
    True
  89. Chapter 3 True or False: The highest mountain ranges on earth occur along oceanic-oceanic convergent plate boundaries.
    False.
  90. Chapter 3 True or False: The Hawaiian Islands formed at a spreading ridge.
    False
  91. Chapter 3 True or False: Yellowstone is considered to be a potentially hazardous volcanic center because it's located above a hot spot.
    True
  92. Chapter 4: Reverse, normal and strike-slip all refer to types of
    A. tectonic plates
    B. earthquakes
    C. none of the foregoing
    D. plays in football
    E. faults
    E. faults
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. Chapter 4: What is the map location of an earthquake called?
    A. epicenter
    B. ground zero
    C. nexus
    D. a bad place to be
    E. focus
    A. epicenter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. Chapter 4: What is stress?
    A. change in position
    B. change in volume
    C. change in shape
    D. force applied to an area
    E. all of the above
    D. force applied to an area
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. Chapter 4: What is the point of subsurface origin of an earthquake called?
    A. a bad place to be
    B. ground zero
    C. epicenter
    D. nexus
    E. focus
    E. focus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Chapter 4: Which type of earthquake wave moves the fastest?
    A. Love waves
    B. Permanent waves
    C. P-waves
    D. S-waves
    E. Rayleigh waves
    C. P-waves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. Chapter 4: Which type of earthquake wave could travel through a vaccum?
    A. P-waves
    B. S-waves
    C. surface waves
    D. all of the above
    E. none of the above
    E. none of the above
  98. Chapter 4: Which type of earthquake wave most closely resembles sound waves?
    A. Love waves
    B. Rayleigh waves
    C. P-waves
    D. S-waves
    E. none of the above
    C. P-waves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Chapter 4: Which type of earthquake body wave cannot pass through liquids?
    A. Surface waves
    B. P-waves
    C. Love waves
    D. Rayleigh waves
    E. S-waves
    E. S-waves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. Chapter 4: How much more energy does a magnitude 8 earthquake release than a magnitude 7 earthquake?
    A. 10 times more
    B. 30 times more
    C. 900 times more
    D. 2 times more
    E. 27,000 times more
    B. 30 times more
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. Chapter 4: How is the distance to the epicenter of an earthquake determined using a seismograph?
    A. by how hard the seismograph needle swings back and forth
    B. the arrival times of surface waves are notes
    C. you can't do this with a single seismograph
    D. travel time is clocked and then compared to the reported time of the earthquake at the epicenter
    E. by considering the delay time between the P-waves and the slower S-waves
    E. by considering the delay time between the P-waves and the slower S-waves
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. Chapter 4: What is one way that earthquake intensities are determined?
    A. with postal questionnaires
    B. with seismeters
    C. with satellites
    D. with seismographs
    E. with accelerometers
    A. with postal questionnaires
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. Chapter 4: How much more energy does a magnitude 8 earthquake release than a magitude 6 earthquake?
    A. 900 times more
    B. 27,000 times more
    C. 2 times more
    D. 10 times more
    E. 30 times more
    A. 900 times more
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. Chapter 4: What did the San Francisco (1906) and Kobe (1995) earthquakes have in common?
    A. there were huge tsunamis
    B. they were the same size
    C. landslides were a major cause of death
    D. there were large uncontrolled fires
    E. all of the above
    D. there were large uncontrolled fires
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. Chapter 4: What can be concluded from the observation that objects were thrown into the air during the earthquake?
    A. the ground acceleration was greater than 1.0 g
    B. the first motion of the ground was down
    C. there was an elastic ground response
    D. the site was not constructed according to code
    E. the earthquake had a magnitude of greater than 7.5
    A. the ground acceleration was greater than 1.0 g
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. Chapter 4: Where is the safest place, among those listed below, in the 48 continguous states with respect to earthquake seismic risk?
    A. South Dakota
    B. South Carolina
    C. Maine
    D. Missouri
    E. all have low seimic risk
    A. South Dakota
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. Chapter 4 True or False: Movements on faults must be abrupt in order for earthquakes to occur.
    True
  108. Chapter 4 True or False: All earthquakes break the ground surface
    False
  109. Chapter 4 True or False: Compression is the kind of force that produces normal faults.
    False
  110. Chapter 4 True or False: The focus of an earthquake is the point on the ground surface directly above the epicenter.
    False
  111. Chapter 4 True or False: Shear forces characterize the San Andreas fault.
    True
  112. Chapter 4 True or False: Earthquakes below about 300 kilometers in depth cause little or no damage.
    True
  113. Chapter 4 True or False: Earthquake waves that travel along the surface of the earth are called body waves.
    False.
  114. Chapter 4 True or False: Body waves generally slow down as they go deeper into the earth.
    False
  115. Chapter 4 True or False: Surface waves are generated by body waves.
    True
  116. Chapter 4 True or False: p-waves travel slower than S-waves.
    False
  117. Chapter 4 True or False: A single seismograph can determine the location of an earthquake.
    False
  118. Chapter 4 True or False: No earthquake has been observed with the Richter Magnitude of greater than 8.9
    True
  119. Chapter 4 True or False: The "moment magnitude scale" has replaced the Richter Scale.
    True
  120. Chapter 4 True or False: Mercalli intensities are determined from seismographs.
    False
  121. A magnitude 7 earthquake releases 27,000 times more energy than a magnitude 4 earthquake.
    True

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