easyJet Flashcards.txt

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easyJet Flashcards.txt
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  1. What is the IATA Code for easyJet?
    U2
  2. What is the ICAO code for easyJet?
    EZY
  3. What is the callsign for easyJet flights?
    Easy
  4. What happens to the B737-700 aircraft in the easyJet fleet?
    Will be phased out by late 2011
  5. What are the five easyJet values?
    • 1. Saftey
    • 2. Teamwork
    • 3. Pioneering
    • 4. Passionate
    • 5. Integrity
  6. Where is the headquarter of easyJet based?
    Luton, England (hangar 89)
  7. In which hangar is easyJet's headquarter baseds?
    Hangar 89 in Luton
  8. When was easyJet founded?
    1995 by Sir Stelios Haji-Loannou
  9. Who founded easyJet?
    Sir Stelios Haji-Loannou
  10. Who is the current CEO of easyJet?
    Carolyn McCall
  11. Who is the COO of easyJet?
    Warwick Brady
  12. Who is the CFO of easyJet?
    Jeff Carr
  13. On which stock exchange is easyJet listed?
    The London Stock Exchange
  14. What was the first international destination for easyJet?
    Amsterdam in april 1996.
  15. What were the first two destinations flown by easyJet?
    Glasgow and Edinburgh from Luton.
  16. What are the three largest easyJet bases?
    London Gatwick, Milan Malpensa, London Luton
  17. What is the difference between Ryanair and easyJet?
    easyJet flies mainly to primary airports, while Ryanair flies to secundary airports.
  18. What aircraft does easyJet have in its fleet?
    A319-100, A320-200, B737-700 (will be phased out in 2011)
  19. WHat kind of engines does the Airbus have?
    CFM56-5B engines
  20. Why do the easyJet A319 ahve two pairs of overwing exits, instead of the standard one pair?
    Because a typical A319 carries 140 seats, easyJet configured the aircraft with smaller galleys, which allowd it to seat 156 seats.
  21. When was the first flight of the A320?
    22 february 1987
  22. What are advantages of fly-by-wire?
    Flight envelope protection, lower weight and cost, easier maintenance.
  23. What kind of engines does the Airbus have?
    Turbofan engines of CFM International (CFM56-5B)
  24. How is easyJet different from other carriers/LCC's?
    EasyJet flies mainly to primary airports, unline competitors who fly to secondary airports.
  25. What is easyJet's mission?
    To provide our customers with safe, good value, point-to-point air services.
  26. When did Carolyn McCall start as CEO of easyJet?
    March 24th 2010
  27. What is easyJet's largest base?
    London Gatwick
  28. What does EFIS mean?
    Electronic Flight Instrument System
  29. What does ECAM mean?
    Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitor
  30. What does FADEC mean?
    Full Authority Digital Engine Control
  31. What are the 2 different types of drag?
    Parasite and induced drag
  32. Explain parasite drag:
    Parasite drag in independent of lift generation and is subdivided into: Skin friction drag, Form (pressure) drag, Interference drag. Parasite drag varies directly with the square of the IAS. Factors affecting parasite drag are: IAS, Configuration and Airframe contamination. Parasite drag varies directly in proportion to the frontal area presented to the airflow (flaps, gear etc..). Contamination by ice, snow, mud or slush will increase the parasite drag coefficient.
  33. Explain induced drag:
    Induced drag is the result of lift. Wingtip vortices modify upwash and downwash in the vicinity of the wing which produces a rearward component to the lift vector known as induced drag. The lower the IAS, the higher the AOA � the stronger the vortices, the greater the induced drag. Factors that affect induced drag are; the size of the lift force, the speed of the aircraft, the aspect ratio of the wing.
  34. Why do modern jet aircraft have such large all moving horizontal tailplanes?
    • - To provide a balancing force for large CG ranges (due to fuel consumption)
    • - To provide a balancing force for a large speed range
    • - To minimise the drag, since the aerofoil is more streamlined
    • - To cope with large trim changes as a result of position changes to the wing leading and trailing edge high lift devices.
    • - Trimming does not reduce the range of pitch control, as the elevator is approximately neutral when the aircraft is trimmed.
  35. Why are swept wings used?
    To increase Mcrit
  36. How does wing sweep increase Mcrit?
    Because a swept wing makes the velocity vector normal (perpendicular) to the leading edge a shorter distance than the chordwise resultant. Since the wing is responsive only to the velocity vector normal to the leading edge, the effective chordwise velocity is reduced. This means the airspeed can be raised before Mcrit is reached.
  37. What are advantages of swept back wings?
    High Mach cruise speeds and Stability in turbulence
  38. What are disadvantages of swept back wings?
    • Poor lift qualities
    • Higher stall speeds
    • Speed instability below Vmd
    • A wingtip stalling tendency
  39. What are slats/ slots?
    A slat is a auxillery aqerofoil attached to the leading edge of the wing. When deployed, the slat forms a slot which allows the passage of air from the high pressure region below the wing to the low pressure region above.
  40. Why use slats/ slots?
    Additional kinetic energy is added to the airflow. It reenergizes the boundary layer and thereby delaying boundary layer separation to a much higher AOA.
  41. What is Dutch Roll?
    Dutch roll is an oscillatory instability associated with swept wing jets. A combination of yawing & rolling.
  42. What causes Dutch Roll?
    When a yaw is induced the strong dihedral effect will role the aircraft due to the lift increase on the wing into wind. The increased induced drag on the rising wing will yaw the aircraft in the opposite direction, reversing the coupled oscillation.
  43. What is the function of a yaw damper?
    To counter Dutch Roll.
  44. How does a yaw damper work?
    This automatically displaces the rudder proportional to the rate of yaw to damp out the oscillations.
  45. What is Vmca?
    Vmca is the CAS, at which, directional control can be maintained in the air with the critical engine inoperative, with a maximum angle of bank of not more than 5 degrees.
  46. What is Vmcg?
    Vmcg is the CAS during the rake off run at which it is possible to maintain directional control on the ground, in the event of a failure of the critical engine, without the use of nose wheel steering (primary aerodynamic controls alone) to enable the take off to be safely continued using normal piloting skills.
  47. What is Mcrit?
    Mcrit is the free stream mach number at which the local velocity first reaches Mach 1 (sonic).
  48. Why is flying faster than Mcrit a problem?
    • - Increase in drag (because of airflow separation)
    • - Initial Mach buffer (caused by the shock waves on the upper surface of the wing)
    • - A nose down change in attitude (mach tuck)
  49. What is Mach Tuck?
    Mach tuck is the nose down pitching moment an aircraft experiences as it passes its critical Mach number (Mcrit). It is cause by the rearward movement of the center of pressure.
  50. How is Mach Tuck prevented?
    Mach tuck is prevented by a Mach trimmer. This is a device that corrects for Mach tuck by sensing the aircraft�s speed and signalling a proportional upward movement of the elevator or variable incidence stabalizer to maintain the aircraft�s pitch attitude.
  51. What is a vortex generator?
    A vortex generator is a small aerofoil which creates a vortex at its tip. This induces high energy air from the free stream flow to mix with the boundary layer.
  52. Why are vortex generators used?
    They are used to prevent spanwise flow and to maximize effectiveness of control surfaces (such as ailerons)
  53. Why would you have a vortex generator in front of the APU inlet?
    To improve high altitude starting of the APU by redicerting and reenergizing the airflow into the APU inlet.
  54. What happens if you move the throttle forward?
    Pitch up moment, because the thrust line is below the CG.
  55. Why would we have bleed valves on the engine
    • 1. To provide bleed air for auxilery systems
    • 2. To regulate the correct airflow pressures between different engine sections.
  56. What are the uses of bleed air?
    • - Airconditioning
    • - Anti icing
    • - Pressurisation
    • - Engine start
  57. What kind of engine does a Seneca have?
    A six cylinder, horizontally opposed, direct driven, Fuel injected, Air cooled, turbocharged, wet sump oil system, 200 Rated HP
  58. What is the difference between a 737/ a320
    • � The A320 is fly by wire
    • � A320 has a larger range (3300nm B737-8: 3115nm)
    • � A320 has a higher Mmo
    • � B737 had a lower gear, which means the engines are closer to the gorund; suspectable of ingestion of FOD.
  59. What navigation equipment does the Seneca have?
    VOR, DME, ADF, ILS, GPS
  60. What de-ice/ anti-ice equipment does the Seneca have?
    • Anti icing: Windscreen defroster
    • Heated lift detectors
    • Heated pitot head
    • De icing: Pneumatic de-icing boots on the wing, tailplane, fin
    • Windscreen de-icing fluid spray
    • Electro thermal propeller pads
  61. squawk code hijack & loss of comms
    hijack; 7500, comms failure; 7600, emergency; 7700
  62. Do you know the time and distance separation minima?
    • Heavy Heavy 4 -
    • Heavy Medium 5 2
    • Heavy Light 6 3
    • Medium Heavy 3 -
    • Medium Medium 3 -
    • Medium Light 5 3
  63. Relating to wake turbulence what is the separation distance required for a medium jet approaching/landing after another medium jet?
    3 nm's
  64. What is RVSM?
    It is the reduction of the standard vertical separation minima of 2000 ft between FL290 and FL410 to 1000 feet.
  65. If you don�t have enough track miles, how do you solve that problem
    request delaying trackmiles, request the amount of track miles needed, use speedbrake in the descent.
  66. What are the stages of a thunderstorm?
    • 1. Developing stage; Updrafts move air aloft, allowing condensation to take place throughout the ascent of the convective currents
    • 2. Mature stage; The most hazardous stage of a thunderstorm. The dangers include; torrential rain, hail, severe turbulence, severe icing, windshear, microbursts, lightning. Downdraughts and updraughts.
    • 3. Decaying stage; The final stage of a TS. Still windshear danger.
  67. How can you tell a thunderstorm is in its dissipating stage?
    No more continuous rain, but sporadic showers, sometimes as virga due to a temperature inversion beneath the cloud base, which can cause a marked windshear.
  68. What is the Dew Point?
    Dew point is the temperature at which a parcel of air becomes saturated .It�s capacity to hold water vapour is equal to that which it is actually holding. it�s relavtive humidity is 100%.
  69. Obviously fuel is a huge cost to an airline, how would you help use less fuel
    • 1. Take only the fuel needed
    • 2. Fly as much as possible at the optimum altitude
    • 3. Request for shortcuts/ shorter routing
    • 4. Careful planning
    • 5. Not too early/ not too late start configuration (flaps, gear etc..)
    • 6. Minimize the use of APU
  70. What is virga?
    Virga is rain that falls from the base of a cloud and evaporates at a lower altitude in drier warmer air before it reaches the ground. This is a sign of a temperature inversion, which in turn is an indication of possible windshear.
  71. What is the pressure in the hydraulic system?
    3000 PSI
  72. Difference between flap 30 and flap 40
    Flaps 40 will decrease the approach speed, and thereby decrease the landing run. Also better visibility because of the higher CL.
  73. What happens if you move throttle forward (pitch moment)
    Pitch up moment, because the thrust line is below the CG.
  74. Why would we have bleed valves on the engine
    • 1. To provide bleed air for auxilery systems
    • 2. To regulate the correct airflow pressures between different engine sections.
  75. List the uses of bleed air
    • � Pressurisation
    • � Air conditioning
    • � Engine and airframe anti icing
    • � Engine start
  76. From TAF/METAR �BR, GR and FU
    • -BR = Light mist
    • GR = Hail
    • FU = Fumes
  77. How many engines does the PA-34 200T have?
    2
  78. What type of engine does the Pa-34 have?
    Six cylinder, Direct driven, Horizontally opposed, Fuel injected, air cooled, turbo charged
  79. Who is the manufacturer of the engine used on the PA-34?
    Continental
  80. What is the engine model number of the engines used on the PA-34?
    TSIO-360E (EB)/ LTSIO-360E (EB)
  81. How many rated horse power are the engines on the PA-34?
    At sea level 200 HP, above 12000 ft 215 HP
  82. What is the compression ratio of the engines on the PA-34?
    7.5:1
  83. What kind of propellors on the PA-34?
    Hartzell or McCauley
  84. How many blades does the Hartzell propellor have?
    2
  85. How many blades does the McCauley propellor have?
    3
  86. What type of propellors does the PA-34 have?
    Constant speed, Hydraulically actuated, Full feathering
  87. What is the fuel capacity on the PA-34
    98 U.S. Gal
  88. What is the useable fuel onthe PA-34?
    93 U.S. Gal
  89. What is the oil capacity on the PA-34?
    8 U.S. Quarts
  90. What is the minimum oil quantity for flight on the PA-34?
    7 Quarts
  91. What is the maximum take-off weight for the PA-34?
    4570 Lbs.
  92. What is the maximum landing weight?
    4342 Lbs.
  93. What is Vne on the PA-34?
    195
  94. What is Vno on the PA-34?
    163
  95. What is Vfe on the PA-34?
    107
  96. What is Vmc on the PA-34?
    66
  97. What is Vle on the PA-34?
    129
  98. What is the green arc speed on the PA-34?
    63 - 163
  99. What is the yellow arc speed on the PA-34?
    163 - 195
  100. What is the white arc speed on the PA-34?
    61 - 107
  101. What is the blue line speed on the PA-34? (best rate of climb single engine)
    89
  102. Is flight into icing conditions allowed on the PA-34?
    • Yes, when fitted with:
    • - Pneumatic Wing and empenage boots
    • - Electro-thermal propellor boots
    • - Electric windshield panel
    • - heated pitot head
    • - Wing ice ligt
    • - Heated lift detectors
    • - Propellor spinners must be installed
  103. Up to what altitude is flight with the Pa-34 approved
    Up to 25000 ft when equipped with supplemental oxygen
  104. What material is used to construct the airframe of the PA-34?
    Alluminium Alloy
  105. What kind of design is used on the fuselage of the PA-34?
    semi-monocoque
  106. What kind of wing design has the PA-34?
    conventional wing design
  107. How are the flaps operated on the PA-34?
    Mechanically by a handle located between the two front seats
  108. In what direction does the propellor of the left engine rotate?
    Clockwise
  109. In what direction does the propellor of the right engine rotate?
    counter clockwise
  110. Tell something about the engines on the PA-34?
    The engines are air-cooled, fuel injected and are equipped with oil coolers, a low temperature by pass system and engine mounted oil filters.
  111. What kind of trim tab does the PA-34 have on the stabilator?
    anti servo trim tab.
  112. Why does the stabilator have an anti servo trim tab on the PA-34?
    To improve longitudinal stability and provide longitudinal trim.
  113. In which direction, compared to the stabilator does the trim tab on the PA-34 move?
    In the same direction as the stabilator, but with increased level.
  114. How is rudder effectiveness increased on the PA-34?
    By an anti servo tab on the rudder.
  115. How is assymetric thrust during take off and the climb eliminated on the PA-34?
    By counter rotating engines.
  116. What type of fuel injection system does the PA-34 have?
    Continous flow
  117. What is the critical engine ont he PA-34?
    There is none, due to the counter rotating propellors.
  118. What kind of landing gear has the PA-34?
    A hydraulically operated, fully retractable tricycle landing gear.
  119. What kind of brakes does the PA-34 have?
    2 single disc, double puck brake assemblies.
  120. What kind of ailerons are fitted to the PA-34?
    Ailerons of the ' frise' type
  121. How are the flaps on the PA-34 operated?
    Manually
  122. Which flap positions does the PA-34 have?
    10 degrees, 25 degrees, 40 degrees.
  123. What kind of altenators does the PA-34 have?
    Two 65 Amp altenators (one on each engine)
  124. What kind of battery does the PA-34 have?
    A 35 ampere, 12 Volt battery
  125. What are the uses of bleed air?
    To pressurize the cabin, pressurizing pneumatic actuators, De-icing (engine intakes, wing leading edge, slats), engine start, Early aircraft used it to drive the gyroscopes in cockpit instruments (cockpit artificial horizons).
  126. What Anit Icing does the Airbus have?
    • Hot air & electircal
    • Wing anti ice, engine intake, probes (pitot, static ports, TAT probe, AOA sensor), window heating
  127. The take-off distance available is:
    the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.
  128. Pressure altitude is:
    The altimeter indication when 1013 hPa is set on the sub-scale
  129. What is Vr dependant of?
    Mass and flap setting
  130. What happens with the Take Off distance as flap setting increases up to the optimum setting (+/- 15 degrees)?
    Reduces
  131. What happens with the Take Off distance as flap setting increases beyond the optimum setting?
    Increases
  132. What happens to the acceleration during the Take Off?
    Reduces
  133. Why does the acceleration reduces during the take off run?
    Because thrust reduces and drag increases.
  134. What happens to the take off distance if Mass increases?
    Inreases
  135. What happens to the take off distance if Temperature increases?
    Increases
  136. What happens to the take off distance if Pressure altitude increases?
    Increases
  137. What happens to the take off distance if Headwind increases?
    Reduces
  138. What happens to the take off distance if tailwind decreases
    Reduces
  139. What happens to the take off distance with an upsloping runway?
    Increases
  140. What happens to the climb gradient with flaps?
    Decreases
  141. What is the absolute ceiling?
    The altitude at which the rate of climb is zero
  142. What is the service ceiling?
    The altitude at which the rate of climb is 500 ft for jet aircraft and 100 ft for propellor aircraft
  143. The climb gradient is defined as the ratio of....
    The increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage.
  144. What is Vx?
    The speed for best angle of climb
  145. What is the maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling?
    0 ft/ min
  146. What is the Vx speed for jet aircraft?
    Vmd
  147. What is Vy?
    Speed for maximum rate of climb.
  148. What is the Vy speed for jet aircraft?
    1.32 x Vmd
  149. What happens to Vy as altitude increases?
    Decreases
  150. What happens to Vx as altitude increases?
    Remains constant
  151. What happens to Vx and Vy at the absolute ceiling?
    They are equal
  152. What is the maximum range speed for jet aircraft?
    1.32 x Vmd
  153. What happens to the drag and speed stability when the speed is reduced below Vmd?
    Drag increases and speed stability decreases.
  154. As altitude increases the stalling speed of an aircraft in terms of IAS, TAS and Mach number will....
    • IAS: remain constant
    • TAS: Increase
    • MACH: Increase
  155. What does Vs0 mean?
    The stall speed in the landing configuration
  156. What happens to the induced drag with increasing IAS
    Decreases
  157. Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight?
    The lift
  158. Can a stopway be used in take off distance calculations?
    No
  159. The stopway allows an increase in only which area?
    The accelerate-stop distance available
  160. What happens with slush on the runway to the take off distance requiered?
    Increases
  161. What happens with too early and too late rotation during the take-off?
    It increases the ground run and decreases the climb ability.
  162. An aircraft is climbing in a standard atmosphere above the tropopause at a constant Mach number. What happens with the IAS and TAS?
    • IAS: Decreases
    • TAS: Remains constant
  163. An aircraft is climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause. What happens to IAS and TAS?
    • IAS: Decreases
    • TAS: Decreases
  164. What happens to the pitch angle when descending at a constant Mach number?
    The pitch angle will decrease.
  165. What is the main reason for using the step climb technique?
    Increase range
  166. When doen thrust = drag?
    Flying level at a constant IAS
  167. How is SFC affected by the CG position?
    SFC is not affected by CG position.
  168. Wat is the most important property in generating lift?
    Air density
  169. What are the four forces acting upon an aircraft in flight?
    Lift, weight, drag and thrust
  170. What happens to the OAT at the stratosphere?
    Remains constant
  171. What is the approximate height of the Stratosphere?
    36.000 ft
  172. What happens to density if static pressure decreases?
    Decreases
  173. What happens to density if temperature increases?
    Decreases
  174. What happens to density if humidity increases?
    Decreases
  175. The sum of what is Total pressure?
    Dynamic Pressure and Static Pressure
  176. Which factors affect Air density?
    Temperature, Static Pressure, Humidity
  177. Whay does increasing altitude decrease the air density?
    Because the effect of decreasing static pressure is more dominant than decreasing temperature.
  178. What is the Critical Mach Number (Mcrit)?
    The speed of the airflow over some part of the aircraft (usually the point of maximum thickness on the aerofoil) first reaches the speed of sound.
  179. The inputs to an air speed indicator are from?
    A pitot and static source.
  180. What is the principle of continuity?
    Enegery and Mass can neither be created nor destroyed, only changed from one form to another.
  181. What happens to the mass flow and velocity of the airflow if the cross sectional area of an airflow is mechanically reduced?
    Mass flow remains constant, velocity increases.
  182. What will be insignificant at flow speeds less than four tenths the speed of sound (Mo.4)?
    Changes in density due to dynamic pressure.
  183. What is the definition of Chord Line?
    A straight line joining the centers of curvature of the leading and trailing edges of an aerofoil.
  184. What is the chord?
    The distance between the leading and trailing edges measured along the chord line.
  185. What is the angle of incidence?
    The angle between the wing root chord line and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. (This angle is fixed for the wing, but may be variable for the tailplane)
  186. What is the Mean line or Camber line?
    A line joing the leading and trailing edges of an aerofoil, equidistant fromt he upper and lower surfaces.
  187. What is the thickness to chord ratio?
    The maximum thickness or depth of an aerofoil section expressed as a percentage of the chord.
  188. What is the leading edge radius?
    The radius of curvature of the leading edge.
  189. What is the center of pressure (CP)?
    The point on the chord line, through which lift is considered to act.
  190. At what angle to the relative airflow does lift act?
    90 degrees.
  191. What is the angle of attack (AOA)?
    The angle between the chord line and the relative airflow.
  192. What is the effective angle of attack?
    The angle between the chord line and the effective airflow.
  193. What is Pressure Gradient?
    A change in air pressure over a distance.
  194. What is adverse pressure gradient?
    When air pressure is rising in the direction of airflow.
  195. What happens to the Center Of Pressure with increasing angle of attack?
    Moves forward.
  196. When is the Center Of Pressure at its most forward location?
    Just before the stall (Clmax)
  197. What will airflow pattern and eventually lift and drag depend upon?
    Angle of attack, Aerofoil shape (thickness & camber), air density, velocity.
  198. What is the definition of lift?
    The aerodynamic force which atcs at 90 degrees to the relative airflow.
  199. The point on an aerofoil section through which lift atcs is the...?
    Center of pressure.
  200. What is sweep angle?
    Measured as the angle between the line of 25% chords and perpendicular to the root chord.
  201. When does the generation of wake vortex begin?
    When the nosewheel lifts off the runway on take off.
  202. When does the generation of wake vortex stop?
    Untill the nosewheel touches down on the landing.
  203. On which characteristics are trailing vortices dependand on?
    • Weight - Heavier aircraft, stronger vortices
    • Wingspan - Has an influence upon the proximity of the two trailing votices
    • Airspeed - The lower the airspeed, the stronger the vortices
    • Configuration - Vortex strength is greatest with aircraft in a "clean" configuration (for a given speed and weight)
    • Attitude - The higher the angle of attack, the stronger the vortices
  204. What happens tot he lift and drag in ground effect?
    Lift will be increased and drag decreased.
  205. What comprises total drag?
    Parasite drag & Induced drag
  206. What comprises Parasite drag?
    Skin friction drag, form/ pressure drag & interference drag?
  207. How are sking friction drag and form drag also called?
    Profile drag
  208. In which direction does drag act?
    Parallel to and in the same direction as the relative airflow (in the opposite direction to the flight path).
  209. What is induced drag the result of?
    Lift generation
  210. What is the reason for form(pressure) drag?
    This is due to the high pressure at the leading edge and low pressure at the trailing edge.
  211. What are factors affecting Parasite drag?
    • - Indicated airspeed (increasing airspeed, increasing drag)
    • - Parasite drag varies directly with the sqaure of the IAS
    • - Configuration
    • - Airframe contamination
  212. Whose responsibility is it to check, before flight, that the aircraft�s mass is such that the flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
    The commander
  213. At least how long must type 1 and 2 FDR's keep data and parameters?
    25 hours op operation
  214. When are life jackets requiered to be carried on board an aeroplane?
    Flights more than 50 NM from land
  215. Where is the MEL found?
    In the Operations manual
  216. What is supplemental oxygen used for?
    Provide oxygen to passengers who might requiere it, following a cabin depressurisation.
  217. Where can information concerning evacuation procedures be found?
    Operation manual
  218. Where is general information found concerning the carriage of dangerous goods by air?
    Operations manual
  219. Who is responsible for the establishment of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL)?
    The operator
  220. What is the flying practice requirement for Pilot-in-Command currency?
    Must have made at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot-incommand on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days.
  221. When are all flight crewmembers required to be at their stations?
    Take off and landing
  222. When must a radiator indicator be carried?
    For flights above 49000 ft
  223. What skills constitute pilot proficiency checks?
    Flying technique, emergency procedures and IFR.
  224. As recommended by ICAO, how often should pilot proficiency checks be performed?
    2 within a year, more than 4 months between checks.
  225. Destination alternate for a turbojet � what is the required fuel overhead?
    30 minutes at 1500ft in standard conditions.
  226. Who is responsible for ensuring that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight?
    The PIC
  227. Above what altitude are quick-don masks required?
    25.000 ft
  228. Above what cabin altitude is oxygen required for the crew and all of the passengers?
    13.000 ft
  229. What is the recording requirement of a CVR?
    Must record the last 30 minutes of flight.
  230. When are life rafts required to be carried?
    Flight over water of more than 120mins or 740 Km (400nm) whichever is less.
  231. When are flight crew members on the flight deck required to keep their seat belts fastened?
    While at their station
  232. How long is the Operator required to retain completed flight preparation forms for?
    3 months
  233. If the reported met conditions fall below the applicable minima when flying an ILS approach, at what point must the approach be discontinued?
    No closer than the outer marker (or equivalent position) providing this point has not already been passed.
  234. Who is responsible for producing the MEL?
    The operator
  235. An aeroplane must be provided with a flight data recorder when the maximum certified take-off mass (MTOM) is greater than:
    5700 Kg
  236. Who compiles the MEL and where would it be found?
    The Operator and in the Operations Manual.
  237. Where is permanent approval for the carriage of dangerous goods recorded?
    The Air Operator�s Certificate (AOC).
  238. How far from the aerodrome of departure can a take-off alternate be for a 2-engined aeroplane?
    60 mins at one engine cruise speed.
  239. Who approves the MEL?
    The Authority of the State of the Operator.
  240. Who compiles the MMEL and who approves it?
    Compiled by the Manufacturer and approved by the Authority of the State of Design or the Authority of the State of the Manufacturer.
  241. To whom is JAR-OPS 1 applicable to?
    Commercial Air Transport of Operators in JAA member states.
  242. After an incident, how long must the FDR recording be kept?
    60 days
  243. To what relates the first part of the JAR OPS document?
    JAA State Operators flying commercial air transport aeroplanes.
  244. On what is the JAR OPS document based?
    ICAO Annex 6
  245. What is the purpose of an operations manual?
    For the guidance of operations personnel.
  246. Who is responsible for ensuring that all flight and ground operations personnel are properly trained?
    The operator
  247. Who is responsible for establishing normal and abnormal checklists for crew members?
    The operator
  248. Is it essential for the final part of an instrument approach to be flown visually?
    No, if it is as per an established instrument procedure.
  249. What are the rules on the carriage of PRMs?
    Must be seated so not to impede the performance of crew duty.
  250. What is the system minimum for an NDB approach?
    300 Ft.
  251. What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIC approach?
    No minimum
  252. According to JAR OPS, what is the minimum required RVR for CAT IIIB operations?
    75m
  253. A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with a decision height of at least ..... ft?
    100 ft
  254. What is VAT?
    VSO x 1.3.
  255. According to JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), a Category IIIA approach has a Decision Height of less than 100 feet or no DH, and a minimum RVR (Runway Visual Range) of:
    200 m
  256. When is MDH referenced to the runway threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation?
    When the threshold is more than 2m below AD Elevation
  257. When is DH used?
    Precision approaches.
  258. A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
    550m
  259. The Cat I minimum decision height (system minimum) is:
    200 feet
  260. What is the Cat IIIA RVR minimum?
    200m
  261. The minimum visibility for a Cat C aeroplane on a circling approach is:
    2400m
  262. What is the minimum capacity of life rafts that must be provided for passengers in the event of the aeroplane ditching?
    One life raft for every 100 persons
  263. What is the weakest part of a jet engine?
    The turbine
  264. How is the cycle of a jet engine called?
    The Brayton cycle
  265. In which section is power generated by a jet engine?
    In the turbine section
  266. What is a pure jet?
    All the airflow is going through the combustion chamber
  267. What generates the noise coming from jet engines?
    The airflow exhausted and difference the difference between exhaust temperature and ambient temperature.
  268. What is the by pass ratio?
    the ratio of the amount of air which is by passed around the hot core of the engine, to the amount of air which passes through the hot core.
  269. Where occurs the highest pressure in a gas turbine engine?
    Between the compressor and the combustion chamber.
  270. What controlles the fan speed in a turbo fan engine?
    The turbine.
  271. What is the advantage of modular constrution?
    It enables malfuntioning sections of the engine to be changed without changing the whole engine.
  272. The by pass ratio of an engine is the ratio of:
    cold stream air to that flowing through the hot core of the engine.
  273. During the Brayton cycle, combustion takes place....?
    continuously
  274. What is the pressure ratio of a gas turbine engine compressor?
    The ratio between compressor outlet and compressor inlet pressure.
  275. A stage of an axial flow compressor consists of what?
    One rotor assembly and one row of stator vanes
  276. How are the ring of blades which sometimes precede the first rotor stage of an axial flow compressor called?
    the inlet guide vanes
  277. What is the action to be taken in the event of an engine surge?
    Slowly close the throttle
  278. Shrouding of the stator blade tips is designed to do minimise what?
    Vibration
  279. What does OCA mean?
    Obstacle clearance altitude
  280. What does OCH mean?
    Obstacle Clearance Height
  281. What is the manoeuvring area?
    The part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft excluding aprons.
  282. What is the movement area?
    That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the aprons.
  283. When was the first International conference on civil aviation?
    1919 in Paris
  284. When was the chicago convention?
    1944
  285. What is sovereignty?
    The right of a country, or contracting ICAO state, to impose national law to users of the state's territorial airspace.
  286. What deals Annex 1 deal with?
    Personnel licensing
  287. What does Annex 2 deal with?
    Rules of the air
  288. What does Annex 3 deal with?
    Meteorological services for International Air Navigation
  289. What does Annex 4 deal with?
    Aeronautical charts
  290. What does Annex 5 deal with?
    Units of measurement to be used in Air and Ground Operations
  291. What does Annex 6 deal with?
    Operation of Aircraft
  292. What does Annex 7 deal with?
    Aircraft nationality and registration marks
  293. What does Annex 8 deal with?
    Airworthiness of aircraft
  294. What does Annex 9 deal with?
    Facilitation
  295. What does Annex 10 deal with?
    Aeronautical telecommunications
  296. What does Annex 11 deal with?
    Air traffic services
  297. What does Annex 12 deal with?
    Search and Rescue
  298. What does Annex 13 deal with?
    Aircraft Accident Investigations
  299. What does Annex 14 deal with?
    Aerodromes
  300. What does Annex 15 deal with?
    Aeronautical Information Services
  301. What does Annex 16 deal with?
    Environmental Protection
  302. What does Annex 17 deal with?
    Security - Safeguarding International Civil Aviation against Acts of Unlawful Interference
  303. What does Annex 18 deal with?
    The safe transport of dangerous goods
  304. What does cabotage refer to?
    Domestic air services within a state
  305. Which freedom of the air is applicable to a flight which whishes to land in a foreign state for technical reasons?
    2nd freedom
  306. By whom is the certificate of airworthiness issued?
    By the state of registration
  307. For what kind of aircraft must a structural integrity programme be established?
    For aircraft with a MTOW of 5700kg or greater
  308. Who is requiered to ensure that a structural integrety programme is established for aircraft?
    The state of design
  309. Where are registration marking requiered on the aircraft?
    On the lower surface of the wing, the fuselage (between the wings and the tail), or on the upper half of the vertical tail surface.
  310. What is the minimum height for registration marking on the lower side of the wing?
    At least 50cm high
  311. What is the minimum height for registration markings on the fuselage and vertical surfaces?
    At least 30cm high
  312. What is the definition of the PIC (pilot in command)?
    The PIC is the pilot who is responsible for the safety of the aircraft and compliance with the rules of the air, during flight time.
  313. What is the definition of the commander?
    A pilot designated by the operator who is qualified as PIC, who may deligate the responsibility for the conduct of the flight to another qualified pilot.
  314. What is the definition of the co-pilot?
    A licensed pilot serving in any capacity other than PIC but excluding a pilot who is on board for the sole purpose of receiving instruction.
  315. Between what ages may you excercise the privileges of an ATPL (A) unrestricted?
    Between 21 and 60
  316. What is the minimum age for an CPL(A)?
    18
  317. What is the minimum age for an ATPL(A)?
    21
  318. After how many hours of hospital or clinic admission must a licence holder inform the authority's?
    More than 12
  319. When must a licence holder inform the authority's about their medical fitness?
    • Hospital of clinic admission for more than 12 hours
    • Surgical operation or invasive procedure
    • The regular use of medication
    • The need for regular use of correcting lenses
  320. How many pilot proficiency checks are requiered when flights are conducted in IFR?
    two a year (the two checks not conducted within 4 months)
  321. How long is a medical valid after the age of 60?
    6 months
  322. What is the maximum level of blood/alcohol permitted in the UK?
    0.2. promille
  323. What is the transponder code for an emergency?
    7700
  324. What is the transponder code for a radio failure?
    7600
  325. What is the transponder code for an unlawful interference?
    7500
  326. What is the definition of low visibility operations?
    Take-offs and landings with RVR less than 800m
  327. On what is the MOC generally based?
    On the highest obstacle within 5nm of track.
  328. How much is the MOC ath the DER (departure end of runway)?
    0 feet
  329. What is the minimum obstacle clearance in the turn initiation area for a turning departure?
    90m (295 ft)
  330. What is a straight departure?
    A departure in which the initial departure track is within 15 degrees of the allignment of the runway.
  331. Turning departures provide track guidance within what distance of the completion of turns?
    10KM
  332. Tha MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation facility at the aerodrome?
    25nm
  333. What does the abbreviation DER stand for?
    Departure end of runway
  334. What does the abbreviation OIS stand for?
    Obstacle Identification Surface
  335. What is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument procedure?
    The terrain surrounding the aerodrome
  336. What are the five parts of an approach procedure?
    • - The arrival segment
    • - The initial segment
    • - The intermediate segment
    • - The final segment
    • - The missed approach procedure
  337. What is the MOC in the primary area of an approach segment?
    300m or 600m (in ountainous areas)
  338. What is the MOC in the secundary area of an approach segment?
    300 or 600m reducing to 0 at the outer edges.
  339. Where does the arrival segment in an approach procedure start?
    At the point where the aircraft departs from the en-route airways system to begin the instrument arrival.
  340. What is the climb gradient requiered during the intermediate segment of a missed approach?
    2.5%
  341. What is the MOC in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment?
    300m reducing to 150m
  342. What is the optimum distance of the FAF from the threshold?
    5nms
  343. On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment start?
    FAP
  344. On an instrument approach, what is the maximum permissible descent gradient in the final approach?
    6.5%
  345. For the intermediate section of a missed approach, what is the minimum obstacle clearance?
    30m
  346. Within what angle of the extended runway centerline is a non-precision approach considered to be straight in?
    30 degrees
  347. At what point does the intermediate phase of a missed approach end?
    When 50m obstacle clearance is attained and can be maintained
  348. Is it permitted to fly over the MAPT at an altitude higher than MDA?
    Yes
  349. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
    Where a climb is established
  350. Who determines OCA/H?
    The authority of the state
  351. What is the descent gradient in the final segment for an ILS CAT II approach?
    3 degrees
  352. What is the minimum ground visibility for a CAT I ILS approach?
    800m
  353. Where does the initial approach segment begin in an instrument approach procedure?
    At the IAF
  354. What kind of turns must be made in a holding pattern?
    Rate 1 turns or 25 degrees of bank, whichever is the least.
  355. What kind of turns are in a standard holding pattern?
    Right turns
  356. What is the holding speed for holding patterns up to 14000 ft?
    230kts
  357. What is the holding speed for holding patterns above 14000 ft?
    240Kts
  358. What is the holding speed, wherever possible, for holding patterns associated with airway route structures?
    280Kts
  359. How wide is the bufferzone surrounding the holding area?
    5nm
  360. What is the MOC applied in the bufferzone of an holding area?
    Reducing from 300m to zero.
  361. A proceudre to alter level in a holding pattern is known as..?
    Shuttle
  362. What is needed for all parallel runway operations?
    The use of radar.
  363. By how many degrees must the missed approach track diverge with simultaneous parallel operations?
    A minimum of 30 degrees
  364. How often is an ATIS updated?
    When there is a significant change in information
  365. The ATIS message should not exceed...?
    30 seconds
  366. What are the three Wake Turbulence Categories?
    Light, medium, heavy
  367. By what are aircraft categorised to relate to the severity of wake turbulence generated?
    By the MTOM (maximum take off mass)
  368. Who must be informed about differences from the Standards of the Annexes to the
    • convention.
    • ICAO
  369. For a straight departure, within how many degrees of the runway centerline must the initial departure track be?
    Within 15 degrees
  370. What covers the convention of Rome?
    damage caused by aircraft to 3rd. parties on the ground by foreign registered aircraft.
  371. Which convention covers damage caused by aircraft to 3rd. parties on the ground by foreign registered aircraft.
    The convention of Rome
  372. Which factor is most likely to dictate the design of an instrument departure procedure?
    The terrain surrounding the airport.
  373. What is the validity of a SNOWTAM and an ASHTAM
    24 hours
  374. What is the maximum distance from the threshold to the FAF?
    10 NM
  375. What is the optimum distance from the threshold to the FAF?
    5 NM
  376. What is the MOC in the initial approach segment primary area during an instrument approach?
    300 m (600m in mountainous areas)
  377. What is the MOC in the intermediate segment of an instrument approach?
    150 m
  378. The type of entry into a holding pattern is based on what?
    The aircrafts magnetic heading
  379. To what is the DH for a CAT1 approach referenced?
    Pressure altimeter
  380. To what is the DH for a CAT II/III approach referenced?
    Radio altimeter
  381. What is the obstacle clearance at 5 nms from the edge of the holding area?
    0 Ft.
  382. Which convention deals with the right of passengers to claim compensation from the carrier, or the agent, in the event of injury, delay or loss of luggage.
    The Warsaw convention
  383. What covers the Warsaw convention?
    The right of passengers to claim compensation from the carrier, or the agent, in the event of injury, delay or loss of luggage.
  384. What does AIRAC mean?
    Aeronautical Regulation and Control.
  385. What is AIRAC?
    An amendment method based on a common system of 28 days intervals.
  386. When may a one minute separation be used during departures?
    If the aircraft are to fly tracks diverging immediately after take-off by at least 45�.
  387. When is VFR flight over FL200 permitted?
    With ATC permission.
  388. Describe runway end lighting.
    • - Fixed
    • - Unidirectional
    • - Red in the direction of the runway
  389. How are the first and second freedoms of the Air known?
    The technical freedoms
  390. How are the third, fourth and fifth Freedoms of the Air known?
    The Commercial freedoms
  391. Which direction is the standard holding pattern?
    Right turns
  392. What are the aircraft categories based on?
    Vat = 1.3 x Vso (Stall speed in landing configuration) or 1.23 x Vs1g
  393. What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach
    • - Arrival
    • - Initial
    • - Intermediate
    • - Final
    • - Missed approach
  394. What is the MOC in the final segment for non-precision approaches? (with FAF and without)
    75 m with FAF and 90m without
  395. What are the holding speeds in normal conditions?
    • up to and inclusive 14000 ft - 230 Kts
    • Over 14000 ft - 240 Kts
    • Turbulent conditions - 280 Kts
  396. What does SNOCLO mean in a METAR?
    The aerodrome is closed for snow clearance operations.
  397. What are the wake tubulence categories?
    • Heavy 136000 KG and more
    • Medium >7000 KG - 135999
    • Light < 7000 KG
  398. When is the PIC responsible for terrain clearence?
    At all times, except during Radar vectoring
  399. When are NOTAMS issued?
    • 1. temporary nature and of short- termed duration
    • 2. permanent and operationally significant nature
    • 3. temporary changes of long duration are made at short notice - except when extensive text and/ or graphics are used (in which it comes out as an AIP supplement)
  400. When is a runway reported damp?
    When the surface shows a change in colour due to moisture
  401. When is a runway reported wet?
    The surface is soaked but no significant patches of standing water.
  402. When is a runway reported water patches?
    significant patches of standing water (also used when at least 25% of the runway length is covered with standing water)
  403. When is a runway reported flooded?
    extensive standing water.
  404. Endurance & range of the PA34?
    Endurance 5 hrs, range 800nm
  405. What is SFC?
    Specific Fuel Consumption is the quantity/weight (lb) of fuel consumed per hour divided by the thrust of an engine in pounds.
  406. What are the main engine instruments?
    EPR (engine pressure ratio gage), N1, EGT, N2, Fuel Flow
  407. What are indications of a wet start?
    • EGT not rising
    • RPMs stabalize at starter maximum
  408. What are the requiered actions for a wet start?
    • Close the fuel supply lever as soon as wet start is diagnosed
    • Motor the engine to blow out the fuel (usually about 60 seconds).
  409. What is an engine hung start?
    When the engine ignites but does not reach its self sustaining RPM's.
  410. What is the cause of an hung start?
    • Insufficient airflow to support combustion due to the compressor not supplying enough air because of;
    • 1. High altitude, low density air
    • 2. Hot conditions, low density air
    • 3. Inefficient compression
    • 4. Low starter RPM's
  411. What are the indications of a hung start?
    • 1. High EGT
    • 2. RPM's below normal self sustaining speed
  412. What are the actions requiered with a hung start?
    • 1 Close fuel lever
    • 2. Motor over the engine to blow out the fuel (usually about 60 secs.)
  413. What is an hot start?
    The engine ignites and reaches self sustaining rpms, but the combustion is unstable amd the exhaust gat temperature (EGT) rises rapidly past its maximum limit.
  414. What are the causes for an hot start?
    • 1. Overfuelling (throttle open)
    • 2. Air intake/ exhaust blocked
    • 3. Tailwind, causing the compressor to run backwards
    • 4. Seized engine (ice blockage)
  415. What are the actions requered with an hot start?
    • 1. Close the fuel lever/ stop fuel delivery before the EGT limit has been reached
    • 2. When the engine rpm's have slowed to the reeengagement speed, motor over the engine to blow out the fuel (approx 60 secs.)
  416. Why do you use derated thrust takeoffs in jet aircraft?
    • 1. To protect engine life and to improve reliability
    • 2. To reduce noise generated by the aircraft
  417. What is a jet engine surge?
    It is the reversal of airflow through an engine, where the high pressure air in the combustion chamber is expelled forward through the compressors, with a loud bang and resulting loss of engine thrust.
  418. How is an engine surge caused?
    • 1. All the compressor stages have stalled
    • 2. An excessive fuel flow creates a high pressure in the rear of the engine.
  419. What are the indications of an engine surge?
    • 1. Total loss of thrust
    • 2. A large increase in TGT
  420. What are the requiered actions in the event of an engine surge?
    • 1. Close the throttles smoothly and slowly
    • 2. Adjust the aircrafts attitude to unstall the engines (which lead to the surge)
    • 3. Slowly and smoothly reopen the throttles.
  421. What does FADEC mean?
    Full authority Digital Engine Control
  422. What is fadec?
    A system that automatically controls engine functions, i.e., start procedures, engine monitoring, fuel flow, ignition system and power levels requiered.
  423. How do jet engines generate noise?
    The noise is from the sheer effect of different displaced air velocities. The sheer is the diff3erence between the jet's faster displaced air and the slower ambient air around it.
  424. How can an engine's noise be controlled or reduced?
    • 1. Bypass engines
    • 2. Reduced thrust take offs
  425. What are the pressure flight instruments?
    • 1. ASI/ Mach meter
    • 2. Altimeter
    • 3. VSI
  426. How do pressure instruments work?
    They sense the atmospheric pressure by using the pitot-static system. The pitot tube measures total pressure (static & dynamic). A Statit port measures static pressure. The dynamic pressure is calculated by subtracting the static pressure from the total pressure.
  427. What are the altimiter instrument errors?
    • 1. Instrument error
    • 2. Pressure error (position error)
    • 3. Time lag error
    • 4. Barometric error
    • 5. Temperature/ density error
    • 6. blovked static port
  428. What do you know about a servo assisted altimeter?
    It increases the accuracy of a simple pressure altimeter because its design no longer relies on a direct mechanical linkage between its capsule and the altitude pointer on the instruments. It uses an electrically conducted E&I bar.
  429. What is the advantage of a servo-assisted altimeter?
    It removes instrument error and time leg error.
  430. What are the gyro flight instruments?>
    • 1. Directional Indicator
    • 2. Artificial horizon
    • 3. Turn and slip indicator or turn coordinator
  431. What does EFIS stand for?
    Electronic Flight Instrument System
  432. What is EFIS?
    A fully integrated computer based digital navigation system that uses color cathode-ray tube (CRT) types of electronic attitude directional indicator (EADI) and horizontal situation indicator (EHSI).
  433. What components make up a typical EFIS?
    • 1. Cathode-Ray tubes
    • 2. EFIS Control panel
    • 3. Symbol generators
    • 4. EADI (electornic attitude directional indicator)
    • 5. EHSI (electornic horizontal situation indicator)
  434. What factors affect the range of VHF communications?
    • 1. Transmitting power
    • 2. Frequency
    • 3. Hight of the transmitter and receiver
    • 4. Obstructions
    • 5. Fading
  435. What is the purpose of a flight Management System? (FMS)
    To manage the aircrafts performance and route navigation to achieve opti8mal result
  436. What aircraft systems use hydraulic power?
    • 1. Landing gear
    • 2. Brakes/ antiskid system
    • 3. Steering
    • 4. Flying controls
    • 5. Stairs
    • 6. Doors
  437. At what cabin altitude should a pilot go on oxygen?
    10.000 ft
  438. At what cabin altitude should passengers go on oxygen?
    14000 ft
  439. What elements are requiered for a fire?
    • 1. Oxygen
    • 2. Combustile material (fuel)
    • 3. Ignition source (heat)
  440. What is the most practicle way to eliminate fire?
    Remove it's oxygen supply
  441. What is the greatest contamination of fuel?
    Water
  442. What is a de-icing system?
    A de-icing system is one in which ice is allowed to build up on a surface and it then removed.
  443. What is an anti-icing system?
    Is one in which ice is prevented from building up on a surface
  444. What are icing conditions?
    • OAT or TAT is +10C or below and;
    • - visible moisture or
    • - visibility of 1500m or less or
    • - standing water/ slush or snow
  445. What are the characteristics of a type 1 de-icing fluid?
    • - Unthickened
    • - To clear snow or ice
    • - Limited hold over time (5-8 min)
  446. What are the characteristics of a type 2 de-icing fluid?
    • - Thickening agent
    • - Min. 50% glycol
    • - Long hold over time (ca 30-60 min)
  447. What does MSA mean?
    Minimum Sector Altitude
  448. What does MORA mean?
    Minimum Off Route Altitude; 1000' on an airway and 2000'over mountains
  449. WHat are high lift devices?
    • Leading edge flaps
    • Trailing edge flaps
    • Slats
  450. What are lift dumping and brake assits devices?
    • - Speed brakes
    • - Spoilers
    • - Reverse thrust
    • - Wheel brakes
  451. What parts are connected to the N2 shaft of an engine?
    • - Fuel pumps
    • - Oil pumps
    • - IDG
    • - Air starter
    • - Engine driven hydraulic pumps
  452. How do you calculate your Top of Descent (TOD)?
    Altitude/300 + 2 miles to start descent + 4-6 for speed reduction
  453. What is the fuel policy?
    • 1. Taxi fuel
    • 2. Trip fuel
    • 3. Reserve fuel;
    • Contingency fuel = 5% of trip fuel
    • Final reserve fuel = 30 min hold at 1500'
    • 4 alternate fuel
    • 5. extra fuel (captains discretion)
  454. What is then JAR-OPS definition of contingency fuel?
    • The fuel requiered to compensta efor unforesee factors which could have an influence on the fuel consumption to the destination aerodrome such as;
    • - deviation of an individual plane from the expected fuel consumption data
    • - deviations from forecast meteorological conditions and
    • - deviations from planned routings and or cruising levels and altitudes
  455. What is easyJet's vision?
    To Turn Europe Orange
  456. How is easyJet going to turn Europe orange?
    By offering low fares to convenient (primary) airports on convenient times of the day
  457. How many aircraft in the easyJet fleet?
    200 (162 A319/ 31 A320/ 7 B737)
  458. By how much increased easyJets total revenue in May 2011 compared to 2010?
    By 8,1%
  459. How many people are employed by easyJet?
    7300
  460. How many pilots are employed by easyJet?
    1900 pilots
  461. What are the financial risks for easyJet?
    Fuel price & currency fluctuations & Liquidity risk.
  462. How many routes does easyJet fly?
    509 routes
  463. How many seats were sold in May 2011?
    28,1 million (increase of 11.1%)
  464. What was the reported profit before tax in 2010?
    154 million pounds
  465. How many passengers flown easyJet in 2010?
    48,8 million passengers
  466. How many people live within one hour driving of one of easyjet's airports?
    300 million
  467. Of the passenger numbers, how many people were business travelers?
    18%
  468. How many airports does easyJet fly to?
    125
  469. In how many countries does easyjet fly?
    29 countries
  470. What is easyjet's vision and how are they going to achieve that?
    • To turn Europe orange by:
    • - No compromises on safety
    • - Offering low fares to convenient (primary) airports, on convenient times of the day
    • - Smart cost management
  471. How does a Jet engine work
    By forcing incoming air into a tube, where the air is compressed, mixed with fuel, burned and exhausted at high speed to generate thrust.
  472. How are the turbine blades cooled
    • By 3 ways:
    • 1. Convection cooling; by passing cooling air through passages internal to the blade
    • 2. Film cooling; by pumping cool air out of the blade through small holes. The air creates a thin layer on the blade of cool air protecting it to the high temperatures.
    • 3. Transpiration cooling; It creates a thin film of cooling air on the blade by leaking through a porous shell.
  473. What is the difference between a turbofans and turbojet engine
    Most components remain the same in a turbofan and turbojet engine, but the turbofan engine introduces a fan section in front of the compressors. This fan is also turbine driven but it�s primary purpose is to force a large volume of air through outer ducts that go around the engine core. This large mass of air that is accelerated by the fan produces a significant thrust without burning any additional fuel.
  474. What are the aerodynamic consequences of having under-wing mounted engines?|
    A pitch up moment when adding thrust, delaying wing flutter to a higher speed, Pylons can acts as fences to minimise spanwise flow, Intake efficiency is rarely compromised by interference flows,
  475. What differences do we have when mounting engines under the wing instead of at the aft fuselage?
    • - Intake efficiency is rarely compromised by interference flows
    • - The engines provide bending relief, thus reducing wing structure weight
    • - At high incidence the pylons tend to act in a way similar to fences by controlling spanwise flow
    • - Good engine accessibility
    • - Unless the engines are mounted well inboard the asymmetric yawing moment following failure is high, so this demands good rudder control
    • - Roll freedom on the ground is limited.
    • - A low thrust line can have an adverse effect on longitudinal control
    • - Low mounted engines encourage ingestion from the runway surface. (FOD damage)

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