patho 21-23

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patho 21-23
2011-05-30 10:14:24

patho 21-23
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  1. Pyelonephritis may be distinguished from cystitis by the presence of ________ & _______ in pyelonephritis
    urinary casts and flank pain
  2. What indicates the early stage of renal failure?
    very low GFR nd increased serum urea
  3. Why is cystitis more common in females?
    urethra is short
  4. Urine that is cloudy may indicate the presence of what?
    protein and bacteria
  5. Urethritis is an upper UTI
  6. Urinary cast reveal what kind of infection?
  7. A representative form of glomerulonephritis is _________.
  8. Glomerulonephritis usually begins as what infections?
    upper respiratory infection, middle ear, or strep throat
  9. Proteinuria and hematuria produce ______, _______, ___________ urine.
    dark, cloudy, coffee-colored
  10. What is urolithias?
    kindey stones (calculi)
  11. Where does CSF circulate around the brain and spinal cord?
    subarachnoid space
  12. Whay is a major cause of cerebral palsy?
  13. Which of the following is NOT criteria for brain death....No activity on EEG, no reflex, no respirations, head injury
    head injury
  14. Which is not a type of aphasia? Receptive, local, global, expressive
  15. Bruising of brain tissue with rupture of small blood vessels and edema is known as a _______
  16. Debris or solid material in the urinary tract forms what?
    nidus- upon which a kidney stones begins to form
  17. 75% of calculi are __________ and the rest are __________.
    calcium salts, uric acid
  18. What is the treatment of Urolithiasis called?
  19. Large calculi are called what?
    staghorn calculi
  20. Clear and sraw-colored is the condiion of what kind of urine?
  21. Cloudy urine indicates what?
    protein, cells, bacteria, pus
  22. Dark urine indicates what?
    hematuria, billirubin, high concentrate
  23. Odor in urine indicates what?
  24. Pyelonephritis is what kind of UTI?
  25. Cystitis and urethritis are what kind of UTI?
  26. What is the most causitive agent of a UTI?
    E. coli
  27. Most infections are from microbes that _______ from the _______ area
    ascend, perineal
  28. Excessive insoluble salts and inadequate fluid intake can cause
    kidney stones-urolithiasis
  29. Acute renal failure occurs _______ and is usually _______.
    suddenly , reversible
  30. What is used to replace kidney function?
  31. Urinalysis revealing bacteria, pyuria, hematuria indicates what?
    cystitis-bladder infection
  32. What is the result of not resolving underlying causes of renal failure?
  33. Tubule obstruction, decreasesblood flow, or inflammation are causes of what?
    acute renal failure
  34. Hyperkalmia is a major symptom of what?
    acute renal failure
  35. Kidneys have a _______ _______, as a result renal failure is asymptomatic
  36. Late signs (end stage) of chronic renal failure are:
    pruritis, CHF, uremic frost, failure to activate vitamin D
  37. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease is more common in _____.
  38. Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease occurs mostly in _______.
  39. 60% of nephron loss in renal failure is what stage?
    decreased renal reserve
  40. 70% nephron oss equals what stage of renal failure?`
    renal insufficiency
  41. 90% nephron loss equals what stage of renal failure?
    end stage renal failure
  42. Acute renal failure is ________, while chronic renal failure is ________.
    reversible, irreversible
  43. Thin, web-like mebrane located between dur matter and pi matter
    arachnoid matter
  44. space between arachnoid matter and pi matter
    sub archnoid space
  45. space below dura matter
    sub-dural space
  46. space between dura and arachnoid matter
    sub-dural space
  47. space between dura matter nd peristeum of skull
    epideral space
  48. Clear fluid that circulates around brain nd spinal cord-
    CSF-cerebral spinal fluid
  49. CSF is formed where?
    choroid plexuses in ventricles
  50. What is the function of CSF?
    cushion for brain and spinal cord
  51. Loss of logical thinking, analytical skills, communication skills, and other intellectual skills are controlled by
    left brain
  52. Behavior, spatial orientation, relationships, mobility and appreciation for art and music re controlled by
    right brain
  53. Most serious level of consciousness is
  54. N response to painful or verbal stimuli, some relfexes, and flaccid body equals what?
  55. Loss o all reflexes, fixed/dialated pupils, slow/irregular pulse and respirations equals
    terminal stage deep coma
  56. Loss of awareness and mentl capabilities-brain stem function continues equals
    vegetative state
  57. Unresponsive to stimuli and appear to sleep/wake (open/close eyes)
    vegetative state
  58. Capable of thinking but paralyzed and can not communicate
    locked-in syndrome
  59. Name the criteria for brain death
    cessation fo brain function-absense of brain stem reflexes or responses-absense of spontaneous respiration w/o respirator- certain of irreversible brain damage
  60. Damage to right eye or right optic nerve results in
    right eye blindness
  61. Damage to lower motor neurons in the anterior horn of spinal cord causes
    flaccid muscles, absent reflexes, paralysis on same side at or below site of injury
  62. Damage to upper motor neuronsin cerebrl cortex or coricospinal tracts causes
    weakness/paralysis on opposite side f injury, increase muscle tone and reflexes
  63. Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) serves as a warning to
    CVAs (cardiovascualr accidents)
  64. Destruction of optic chiasm results in
    vision loss in both eyes
  65. Damage to right occipital lobe or right optic tract results in
    vision loss on left side
  66. Eyes have sunset sign, enlarged head, unclosed sutures, lethargic, high-pitched,shrill cry
  67. Posterior spinous process on vertebrae does not close
    spina bifida
  68. Herniation of spinal cord and meninges does NOT occur
    spina bifida occulta
  69. Herniation of meninges occurs hrough a defect, no nerve issue in herniated sac
    spina bifida meningocele
  70. Herniationof spinal cord and nerves along with meninges and CFS
    spina bifida myelomeningocele
  71. Non-progressive, 1-2 per 1000 births, 500,000 cases in the U.S., damage may occur before, during or shortly after birth
    cerebral palsy
  72. Hypoxia or ischemia is the major cause of brain damage in
    cerebral palsy
  73. Area of damage for spastic cerebral palsy (CP)
    motor cortex or pyramidal tracts
  74. Area of damage for dyskinetic disease
    basal nuclei or extrapyramidal tracts
  75. Area of damage for ataxia CP
  76. Reduction in dopamine, muscle weakness, pill-rolling motion, shuffling steps, dysfunction of extrapyramidal motor system
    parkinson's disease
  77. Common form of dimentia, progressive loss of intellectual function, cognitive function declines
    Alzheimer's disease
  78. Multiple origins in deep structures of cerebral hemispheres and brainstem-causes loss of consciousness
    generlaized seizures
  79. single origin in cerebral cortex, may or may not involve loss of consciousnes
    partial seizure
  80. breif loss of awareness, momentarily stares into space, lasts 5-10 seconds, lip smacking, most common in children
    absence (petit mal) seizure
  81. prodromal signs, aura, loss f consciousness, strong tonic muscle contraction, clonic stage, contractions subside, person confused and fatigued
    pattern for tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizure
  82. progrssive de-myelination of neurons in the brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves
    multiple sclerosis (MS)
  83. blurred vision, scotoma, weakness in legs
    (MS) multiple sclerosis
  84. result of mild blow to the head, sudden excessive movement to the brain leading to loss of consciousness
  85. bruising of brain tissue wth rupture of small blood vessels and edema
  86. brain tissue is injured and blood vessels may be ruptured but skull is not fractured
    closed head injury
  87. fractures and penetrationof the brain by missiles or sharp objects
    open head injury
  88. simple cracks in bone
    linear fractures
  89. several fracture lines, but may notbe complicated
    comminuted fracture
  90. involves trauma in which brain tissue is exposed to the environment, likely brain damage, high risk of infection
    compound fracture
  91. displacment of a piece of bone below level of skull, compressed brain tissue, impaired blood supply, considerable pressure
    depressed skull fractures
  92. occurs at base of skull, may have leakibng CSF thru ears or nose, raccoon sign
    basilar fracture
  93. skull and brain hit a solid object which causes brain to rebound against the opposite side of the skull, usually only minor brain damage
  94. receptive (sensory) aphasia effects ability to understand written or spoken language-what is the site of damage?
    broca's area, left frontal lobe
  95. expressive (motor) aphasia effecs the ability to speak or write fluently or appropriately--what is the site of damage?
    wernicke's area, left temporal lobe, prefrontal
  96. global aphasia effects the ability to express oneself or comprehend other's language--what is the site of damage?
    broca's and wernicke's areas and communication fibers
  97. intellectual function and personality is controlled by what area of the frontal lobe?
    prefrontal area
  98. skilled movement is controlled by what area of the frontal lobe?
    premotor cortex
  99. voluntary movements are controlled by what area of the frontal lobe?
    motor cortex
  100. speech (expression) is cntrolled by what area of the frontal lobe?
    broca's area
  101. sensation (touch, pain) is controlled by what area of the parietal lobe?
    somatosensory area
  102. hearing is controlled by what area of the temporal lobe?
    auditory cortex
  103. vision is controlled by what area of the occipital lobe?
    visual cortex
  104. smell is controlled by what area of the temporal lobe?
    olfactory cortex
  105. comprehension of speech and memory is controlled by what are of the temporal lobe?
    wernicke's area
  106. body balance and position, coordinated movement are controlled by
  107. control/coordination centers for respiration, cardiovascular (vasomotor) swallowing, vomiting,cough reflex are controlled by what
    medulla oblongata
  108. ANS,link wih endocrine system, body temp and fluid balance, and the center for thirst control
  109. sensory sorting and relay center is controlled by what?
  110. coordination and control of body movementis controlled by what?
    basal nuclei
  111. arousal and awareness is controlled by what?
    reticular actiating system
  112. emotional responses are controlled by what?
    limbic system
  113. sympathetic and parasympatheic response to stimuli of heart blood vessels=
    s-increase rate and force of contractions, p-decreases rate and contractility
  114. parasympathetic and sympathetic response to stimulation of male genitalia=
    p-erection s-ejaculation
  115. sympathetic and parasympatheitc response to stimuli of sphincters of the bladder=
    s- consriction p- relaxes
  116. sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation of digestive secretions and peristalsis=
    s- decreased p-increases
  117. sympathetic response of stimuli of sweat glands=
    increased secretions
  118. sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation of the eye=
    p- pupil constriction s-pupil dilation
  119. sympathetic and parasympathetic stimuli of the respiratory system =
    s- bronchodilation p-bronchoconstriction
  120. sympathetic and parasympathetic response of stimuli of skin, mucosa, viscrera=
    s-vasoconstriction p-no innervation
  121. sympathetic and parasympathetic response to stimuli of skeletal muscle=
    s-vasodilation p-no innervation
  122. sympathetic and parasympathetic response to stimuli o adrenal medulla=
    s-secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine p- no innervation