What happens to the B737-700 aircraft in the easyJet fleet?
Will be phased out by late 2011
What are the five easyJet values?
Where is the headquarter of easyJet based?
Luton, England (hangar 89)
In which hangar is easyJet's headquarter baseds?
Hangar 89 in Luton
When was easyJet founded?
1995 by Sir Stelios Haji-Loannou
Who founded easyJet?
Sir Stelios Haji-Loannou
Who is the current CEO of easyJet?
Who is the COO of easyJet?
Who is the CFO of easyJet?
On which stock exchange is easyJet listed?
The London Stock Exchange
What was the first international destination for easyJet?
Amsterdam in april 1996.
What were the first two destinations flown by easyJet?
Glasgow and Edinburgh from Luton.
What are the three largest easyJet bases?
London Gatwick, Milan Malpensa, London Luton
What is the difference between Ryanair and easyJet?
easyJet flies mainly to primary airports, while Ryanair flies to secundary airports.
What aircraft does easyJet have in its fleet?
A319-100, A320-200, B737-700 (will be phased out in 2011)
WHat kind of engines does the Airbus have?
Why do the easyJet A319 ahve two pairs of overwing exits, instead of the standard one pair?
Because a typical A319 carries 140 seats, easyJet configured the aircraft with smaller galleys, which allowd it to seat 156 seats.
When was the first flight of the A320?
22 february 1987
What are advantages of fly-by-wire?
Flight envelope protection, lower weight and cost, easier maintenance.
What kind of engines does the Airbus have?
Turbofan engines of CFM International (CFM56-5B)
How is easyJet different from other carriers/LCC's?
EasyJet flies mainly to primary airports, unline competitors who fly to secondary airports.
What is easyJet's mission?
To provide our customers with safe, good value, point-to-point air services.
When did Carolyn McCall start as CEO of easyJet?
March 24th 2010
What is easyJet's largest base?
What does EFIS mean?
Electronic Flight Instrument System
What does ECAM mean?
Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitor
What does FADEC mean?
Full Authority Digital Engine Control
What are the 2 different types of drag?
Parasite and induced drag
Explain parasite drag:
Parasite drag in independent of lift generation and is subdivided into: Skin friction drag, Form (pressure) drag, Interference drag. Parasite drag varies directly with the square of the IAS. Factors affecting parasite drag are: IAS, Configuration and Airframe contamination. Parasite drag varies directly in proportion to the frontal area presented to the airflow (flaps, gear etc..). Contamination by ice, snow, mud or slush will increase the parasite drag coefficient.
Explain induced drag:
Induced drag is the result of lift. Wingtip vortices modify upwash and downwash in the vicinity of the wing which produces a rearward component to the lift vector known as induced drag. The lower the IAS, the higher the AOA � the stronger the vortices, the greater the induced drag. Factors that affect induced drag are; the size of the lift force, the speed of the aircraft, the aspect ratio of the wing.
Why do modern jet aircraft have such large all moving horizontal tailplanes?
- To provide a balancing force for large CG ranges (due to fuel consumption)
- To provide a balancing force for a large speed range
- To minimise the drag, since the aerofoil is more streamlined
- To cope with large trim changes as a result of position changes to the wing leading and trailing edge high lift devices.
- Trimming does not reduce the range of pitch control, as the elevator is approximately neutral when the aircraft is trimmed.
Why are swept wings used?
To increase Mcrit
How does wing sweep increase Mcrit?
Because a swept wing makes the velocity vector normal (perpendicular) to the leading edge a shorter distance than the chordwise resultant. Since the wing is responsive only to the velocity vector normal to the leading edge, the effective chordwise velocity is reduced. This means the airspeed can be raised before Mcrit is reached.
What are advantages of swept back wings?
High Mach cruise speeds and Stability in turbulence
What are disadvantages of swept back wings?
Poor lift qualities
Higher stall speeds
Speed instability below Vmd
A wingtip stalling tendency
What are slats/ slots?
A slat is a auxillery aqerofoil attached to the leading edge of the wing. When deployed, the slat forms a slot which allows the passage of air from the high pressure region below the wing to the low pressure region above.
Why use slats/ slots?
Additional kinetic energy is added to the airflow. It reenergizes the boundary layer and thereby delaying boundary layer separation to a much higher AOA.
What is Dutch Roll?
Dutch roll is an oscillatory instability associated with swept wing jets. A combination of yawing & rolling.
What causes Dutch Roll?
When a yaw is induced the strong dihedral effect will role the aircraft due to the lift increase on the wing into wind. The increased induced drag on the rising wing will yaw the aircraft in the opposite direction, reversing the coupled oscillation.
What is the function of a yaw damper?
To counter Dutch Roll.
How does a yaw damper work?
This automatically displaces the rudder proportional to the rate of yaw to damp out the oscillations.
What is Vmca?
Vmca is the CAS, at which, directional control can be maintained in the air with the critical engine inoperative, with a maximum angle of bank of not more than 5 degrees.
What is Vmcg?
Vmcg is the CAS during the rake off run at which it is possible to maintain directional control on the ground, in the event of a failure of the critical engine, without the use of nose wheel steering (primary aerodynamic controls alone) to enable the take off to be safely continued using normal piloting skills.
What is Mcrit?
Mcrit is the free stream mach number at which the local velocity first reaches Mach 1 (sonic).
Why is flying faster than Mcrit a problem?
- Increase in drag (because of airflow separation)
- Initial Mach buffer (caused by the shock waves on the upper surface of the wing)
- A nose down change in attitude (mach tuck)
What is Mach Tuck?
Mach tuck is the nose down pitching moment an aircraft experiences as it passes its critical Mach number (Mcrit). It is cause by the rearward movement of the center of pressure.
How is Mach Tuck prevented?
Mach tuck is prevented by a Mach trimmer. This is a device that corrects for Mach tuck by sensing the aircraft�s speed and signalling a proportional upward movement of the elevator or variable incidence stabalizer to maintain the aircraft�s pitch attitude.
What is a vortex generator?
A vortex generator is a small aerofoil which creates a vortex at its tip. This induces high energy air from the free stream flow to mix with the boundary layer.
Why are vortex generators used?
They are used to prevent spanwise flow and to maximize effectiveness of control surfaces (such as ailerons)
Why would you have a vortex generator in front of the APU inlet?
To improve high altitude starting of the APU by redicerting and reenergizing the airflow into the APU inlet.
What happens if you move the throttle forward?
Pitch up moment, because the thrust line is below the CG.
Why would we have bleed valves on the engine
1. To provide bleed air for auxilery systems
2. To regulate the correct airflow pressures between different engine sections.
What are the uses of bleed air?
- Anti icing
- Engine start
What kind of engine does a Seneca have?
A six cylinder, horizontally opposed, direct driven, Fuel injected, Air cooled, turbocharged, wet sump oil system, 200 Rated HP
What is the difference between a 737/ a320
� The A320 is fly by wire
� A320 has a larger range (3300nm B737-8: 3115nm)
� A320 has a higher Mmo
� B737 had a lower gear, which means the engines are closer to the gorund; suspectable of ingestion of FOD.
What navigation equipment does the Seneca have?
VOR, DME, ADF, ILS, GPS
What de-ice/ anti-ice equipment does the Seneca have?
Anti icing: Windscreen defroster
Heated lift detectors
Heated pitot head
De icing: Pneumatic de-icing boots on the wing, tailplane, fin
Do you know the time and distance separation minima?
Heavy Heavy 4 -
Heavy Medium 5 2
Heavy Light 6 3
Medium Heavy 3 -
Medium Medium 3 -
Medium Light 5 3
Relating to wake turbulence what is the separation distance required for a medium jet approaching/landing after another medium jet?
What is RVSM?
It is the reduction of the standard vertical separation minima of 2000 ft between FL290 and FL410 to 1000 feet.
If you don�t have enough track miles, how do you solve that problem
request delaying trackmiles, request the amount of track miles needed, use speedbrake in the descent.
What are the stages of a thunderstorm?
1. Developing stage; Updrafts move air aloft, allowing condensation to take place throughout the ascent of the convective currents
2. Mature stage; The most hazardous stage of a thunderstorm. The dangers include; torrential rain, hail, severe turbulence, severe icing, windshear, microbursts, lightning. Downdraughts and updraughts.
3. Decaying stage; The final stage of a TS. Still windshear danger.
How can you tell a thunderstorm is in its dissipating stage?
No more continuous rain, but sporadic showers, sometimes as virga due to a temperature inversion beneath the cloud base, which can cause a marked windshear.
What is the Dew Point?
Dew point is the temperature at which a parcel of air becomes saturated .It�s capacity to hold water vapour is equal to that which it is actually holding. it�s relavtive humidity is 100%.
Obviously fuel is a huge cost to an airline, how would you help use less fuel
1. Take only the fuel needed
2. Fly as much as possible at the optimum altitude
3. Request for shortcuts/ shorter routing
4. Careful planning
5. Not too early/ not too late start configuration (flaps, gear etc..)
6. Minimize the use of APU
What is virga?
Virga is rain that falls from the base of a cloud and evaporates at a lower altitude in drier warmer air before it reaches the ground. This is a sign of a temperature inversion, which in turn is an indication of possible windshear.
What is the pressure in the hydraulic system?
Difference between flap 30 and flap 40
Flaps 40 will decrease the approach speed, and thereby decrease the landing run. Also better visibility because of the higher CL.
What happens if you move throttle forward (pitch moment)
Pitch up moment, because the thrust line is below the CG.
Why would we have bleed valves on the engine
1. To provide bleed air for auxilery systems
2. To regulate the correct airflow pressures between different engine sections.
List the uses of bleed air
� Air conditioning
� Engine and airframe anti icing
� Engine start
From TAF/METAR �BR, GR and FU
-BR = Light mist
GR = Hail
FU = Fumes
How many engines does the PA-34 200T have?
What type of engine does the Pa-34 have?
Six cylinder, Direct driven, Horizontally opposed, Fuel injected, air cooled, turbo charged
Who is the manufacturer of the engine used on the PA-34?
What is the engine model number of the engines used on the PA-34?
TSIO-360E (EB)/ LTSIO-360E (EB)
How many rated horse power are the engines on the PA-34?
At sea level 200 HP, above 12000 ft 215 HP
What is the compression ratio of the engines on the PA-34?
What kind of propellors on the PA-34?
Hartzell or McCauley
How many blades does the Hartzell propellor have?
How many blades does the McCauley propellor have?
What type of propellors does the PA-34 have?
Constant speed, Hydraulically actuated, Full feathering
What is the fuel capacity on the PA-34
98 U.S. Gal
What is the useable fuel onthe PA-34?
93 U.S. Gal
What is the oil capacity on the PA-34?
8 U.S. Quarts
What is the minimum oil quantity for flight on the PA-34?
What is the maximum take-off weight for the PA-34?
What is the maximum landing weight?
What is Vne on the PA-34?
What is Vno on the PA-34?
What is Vfe on the PA-34?
What is Vmc on the PA-34?
What is Vle on the PA-34?
What is the green arc speed on the PA-34?
63 - 163
What is the yellow arc speed on the PA-34?
163 - 195
What is the white arc speed on the PA-34?
61 - 107
What is the blue line speed on the PA-34? (best rate of climb single engine)
Is flight into icing conditions allowed on the PA-34?
Yes, when fitted with:
- Pneumatic Wing and empenage boots
- Electro-thermal propellor boots
- Electric windshield panel
- heated pitot head
- Wing ice ligt
- Heated lift detectors
- Propellor spinners must be installed
Up to what altitude is flight with the Pa-34 approved
Up to 25000 ft when equipped with supplemental oxygen
What material is used to construct the airframe of the PA-34?
What kind of design is used on the fuselage of the PA-34?
What kind of wing design has the PA-34?
conventional wing design
How are the flaps operated on the PA-34?
Mechanically by a handle located between the two front seats
In what direction does the propellor of the left engine rotate?
In what direction does the propellor of the right engine rotate?
Tell something about the engines on the PA-34?
The engines are air-cooled, fuel injected and are equipped with oil coolers, a low temperature by pass system and engine mounted oil filters.
What kind of trim tab does the PA-34 have on the stabilator?
anti servo trim tab.
Why does the stabilator have an anti servo trim tab on the PA-34?
To improve longitudinal stability and provide longitudinal trim.
In which direction, compared to the stabilator does the trim tab on the PA-34 move?
In the same direction as the stabilator, but with increased level.
How is rudder effectiveness increased on the PA-34?
By an anti servo tab on the rudder.
How is assymetric thrust during take off and the climb eliminated on the PA-34?
By counter rotating engines.
What type of fuel injection system does the PA-34 have?
What is the critical engine ont he PA-34?
There is none, due to the counter rotating propellors.
What kind of landing gear has the PA-34?
A hydraulically operated, fully retractable tricycle landing gear.
What kind of brakes does the PA-34 have?
2 single disc, double puck brake assemblies.
What kind of ailerons are fitted to the PA-34?
Ailerons of the ' frise' type
How are the flaps on the PA-34 operated?
Which flap positions does the PA-34 have?
10 degrees, 25 degrees, 40 degrees.
What kind of altenators does the PA-34 have?
Two 65 Amp altenators (one on each engine)
What kind of battery does the PA-34 have?
A 35 ampere, 12 Volt battery
What are the uses of bleed air?
To pressurize the cabin, pressurizing pneumatic actuators, De-icing (engine intakes, wing leading edge, slats), engine start, Early aircraft used it to drive the gyroscopes in cockpit instruments (cockpit artificial horizons).
What Anit Icing does the Airbus have?
Hot air & electircal
Wing anti ice, engine intake, probes (pitot, static ports, TAT probe, AOA sensor), window heating
The take-off distance available is:
the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.
Pressure altitude is:
The altimeter indication when 1013 hPa is set on the sub-scale
What is Vr dependant of?
Mass and flap setting
What happens with the Take Off distance as flap setting increases up to the optimum setting (+/- 15 degrees)?
What happens with the Take Off distance as flap setting increases beyond the optimum setting?
What happens to the acceleration during the Take Off?
Why does the acceleration reduces during the take off run?
Because thrust reduces and drag increases.
What happens to the take off distance if Mass increases?
What happens to the take off distance if Temperature increases?
What happens to the take off distance if Pressure altitude increases?
What happens to the take off distance if Headwind increases?
What happens to the take off distance if tailwind decreases
What happens to the take off distance with an upsloping runway?
What happens to the climb gradient with flaps?
What is the absolute ceiling?
The altitude at which the rate of climb is zero
What is the service ceiling?
The altitude at which the rate of climb is 500 ft for jet aircraft and 100 ft for propellor aircraft
The climb gradient is defined as the ratio of....
The increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage.
What is Vx?
The speed for best angle of climb
What is the maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling?
0 ft/ min
What is the Vx speed for jet aircraft?
What is Vy?
Speed for maximum rate of climb.
What is the Vy speed for jet aircraft?
1.32 x Vmd
What happens to Vy as altitude increases?
What happens to Vx as altitude increases?
What happens to Vx and Vy at the absolute ceiling?
They are equal
What is the maximum range speed for jet aircraft?
1.32 x Vmd
What happens to the drag and speed stability when the speed is reduced below Vmd?
Drag increases and speed stability decreases.
As altitude increases the stalling speed of an aircraft in terms of IAS, TAS and Mach number will....
IAS: remain constant
What does Vs0 mean?
The stall speed in the landing configuration
What happens to the induced drag with increasing IAS
Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight?
Can a stopway be used in take off distance calculations?
The stopway allows an increase in only which area?
The accelerate-stop distance available
What happens with slush on the runway to the take off distance requiered?
What happens with too early and too late rotation during the take-off?
It increases the ground run and decreases the climb ability.
An aircraft is climbing in a standard atmosphere above the tropopause at a constant Mach number. What happens with the IAS and TAS?
TAS: Remains constant
An aircraft is climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause. What happens to IAS and TAS?
What happens to the pitch angle when descending at a constant Mach number?
The pitch angle will decrease.
What is the main reason for using the step climb technique?
When doen thrust = drag?
Flying level at a constant IAS
How is SFC affected by the CG position?
SFC is not affected by CG position.
Wat is the most important property in generating lift?
What are the four forces acting upon an aircraft in flight?
Lift, weight, drag and thrust
What happens to the OAT at the stratosphere?
What is the approximate height of the Stratosphere?
What happens to density if static pressure decreases?
What happens to density if temperature increases?
What happens to density if humidity increases?
The sum of what is Total pressure?
Dynamic Pressure and Static Pressure
Which factors affect Air density?
Temperature, Static Pressure, Humidity
Whay does increasing altitude decrease the air density?
Because the effect of decreasing static pressure is more dominant than decreasing temperature.
What is the Critical Mach Number (Mcrit)?
The speed of the airflow over some part of the aircraft (usually the point of maximum thickness on the aerofoil) first reaches the speed of sound.
The inputs to an air speed indicator are from?
A pitot and static source.
What is the principle of continuity?
Enegery and Mass can neither be created nor destroyed, only changed from one form to another.
What happens to the mass flow and velocity of the airflow if the cross sectional area of an airflow is mechanically reduced?
Mass flow remains constant, velocity increases.
What will be insignificant at flow speeds less than four tenths the speed of sound (Mo.4)?
Changes in density due to dynamic pressure.
What is the definition of Chord Line?
A straight line joining the centers of curvature of the leading and trailing edges of an aerofoil.
What is the chord?
The distance between the leading and trailing edges measured along the chord line.
What is the angle of incidence?
The angle between the wing root chord line and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. (This angle is fixed for the wing, but may be variable for the tailplane)
What is the Mean line or Camber line?
A line joing the leading and trailing edges of an aerofoil, equidistant fromt he upper and lower surfaces.
What is the thickness to chord ratio?
The maximum thickness or depth of an aerofoil section expressed as a percentage of the chord.
What is the leading edge radius?
The radius of curvature of the leading edge.
What is the center of pressure (CP)?
The point on the chord line, through which lift is considered to act.
At what angle to the relative airflow does lift act?
What is the angle of attack (AOA)?
The angle between the chord line and the relative airflow.
What is the effective angle of attack?
The angle between the chord line and the effective airflow.
What is Pressure Gradient?
A change in air pressure over a distance.
What is adverse pressure gradient?
When air pressure is rising in the direction of airflow.
What happens to the Center Of Pressure with increasing angle of attack?
When is the Center Of Pressure at its most forward location?
Just before the stall (Clmax)
What will airflow pattern and eventually lift and drag depend upon?
Angle of attack, Aerofoil shape (thickness & camber), air density, velocity.
What is the definition of lift?
The aerodynamic force which atcs at 90 degrees to the relative airflow.
The point on an aerofoil section through which lift atcs is the...?
Center of pressure.
What is sweep angle?
Measured as the angle between the line of 25% chords and perpendicular to the root chord.
When does the generation of wake vortex begin?
When the nosewheel lifts off the runway on take off.
When does the generation of wake vortex stop?
Untill the nosewheel touches down on the landing.
On which characteristics are trailing vortices dependand on?
Weight - Heavier aircraft, stronger vortices
Wingspan - Has an influence upon the proximity of the two trailing votices
Airspeed - The lower the airspeed, the stronger the vortices
Configuration - Vortex strength is greatest with aircraft in a "clean" configuration (for a given speed and weight)
Attitude - The higher the angle of attack, the stronger the vortices
What happens tot he lift and drag in ground effect?
- Parasite drag varies directly with the sqaure of the IAS
- Airframe contamination
Whose responsibility is it to check, before flight, that the aircraft�s mass is such that the flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
At least how long must type 1 and 2 FDR's keep data and parameters?
25 hours op operation
When are life jackets requiered to be carried on board an aeroplane?
Flights more than 50 NM from land
Where is the MEL found?
In the Operations manual
What is supplemental oxygen used for?
Provide oxygen to passengers who might requiere it, following a cabin depressurisation.
Where can information concerning evacuation procedures be found?
Where is general information found concerning the carriage of dangerous goods by air?
Who is responsible for the establishment of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL)?
What is the flying practice requirement for Pilot-in-Command currency?
Must have made at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot-incommand on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days.
When are all flight crewmembers required to be at their stations?
Take off and landing
When must a radiator indicator be carried?
For flights above 49000 ft
What skills constitute pilot proficiency checks?
Flying technique, emergency procedures and IFR.
As recommended by ICAO, how often should pilot proficiency checks be performed?
2 within a year, more than 4 months between checks.
Destination alternate for a turbojet � what is the required fuel overhead?
30 minutes at 1500ft in standard conditions.
Who is responsible for ensuring that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight?
Above what altitude are quick-don masks required?
Above what cabin altitude is oxygen required for the crew and all of the passengers?
What is the recording requirement of a CVR?
Must record the last 30 minutes of flight.
When are life rafts required to be carried?
Flight over water of more than 120mins or 740 Km (400nm) whichever is less.
When are flight crew members on the flight deck required to keep their seat belts fastened?
While at their station
How long is the Operator required to retain completed flight preparation forms for?
If the reported met conditions fall below the applicable minima when flying an ILS approach, at what point must the approach be discontinued?
No closer than the outer marker (or equivalent position) providing this point has not already been passed.
Who is responsible for producing the MEL?
An aeroplane must be provided with a flight data recorder when the maximum certified take-off mass (MTOM) is greater than:
Who compiles the MEL and where would it be found?
The Operator and in the Operations Manual.
Where is permanent approval for the carriage of dangerous goods recorded?
The Air Operator�s Certificate (AOC).
How far from the aerodrome of departure can a take-off alternate be for a 2-engined aeroplane?
60 mins at one engine cruise speed.
Who approves the MEL?
The Authority of the State of the Operator.
Who compiles the MMEL and who approves it?
Compiled by the Manufacturer and approved by the Authority of the State of Design or the Authority of the State of the Manufacturer.
To whom is JAR-OPS 1 applicable to?
Commercial Air Transport of Operators in JAA member states.
After an incident, how long must the FDR recording be kept?
To what relates the first part of the JAR OPS document?
JAA State Operators flying commercial air transport aeroplanes.
On what is the JAR OPS document based?
ICAO Annex 6
What is the purpose of an operations manual?
For the guidance of operations personnel.
Who is responsible for ensuring that all flight and ground operations personnel are properly trained?
Who is responsible for establishing normal and abnormal checklists for crew members?
Is it essential for the final part of an instrument approach to be flown visually?
No, if it is as per an established instrument procedure.
What are the rules on the carriage of PRMs?
Must be seated so not to impede the performance of crew duty.
What is the system minimum for an NDB approach?
What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIC approach?
According to JAR OPS, what is the minimum required RVR for CAT IIIB operations?
A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with a decision height of at least ..... ft?
What is VAT?
VSO x 1.3.
According to JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), a Category IIIA approach has a Decision Height of less than 100 feet or no DH, and a minimum RVR (Runway Visual Range) of:
When is MDH referenced to the runway threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation?
When the threshold is more than 2m below AD Elevation
When is DH used?
A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
The Cat I minimum decision height (system minimum) is:
What is the Cat IIIA RVR minimum?
The minimum visibility for a Cat C aeroplane on a circling approach is:
What is the minimum capacity of life rafts that must be provided for passengers in the event of the aeroplane ditching?
One life raft for every 100 persons
What is the weakest part of a jet engine?
How is the cycle of a jet engine called?
The Brayton cycle
In which section is power generated by a jet engine?
In the turbine section
What is a pure jet?
All the airflow is going through the combustion chamber
What generates the noise coming from jet engines?
The airflow exhausted and difference the difference between exhaust temperature and ambient temperature.
What is the by pass ratio?
the ratio of the amount of air which is by passed around the hot core of the engine, to the amount of air which passes through the hot core.
Where occurs the highest pressure in a gas turbine engine?
Between the compressor and the combustion chamber.
What controlles the fan speed in a turbo fan engine?
What is the advantage of modular constrution?
It enables malfuntioning sections of the engine to be changed without changing the whole engine.
The by pass ratio of an engine is the ratio of:
cold stream air to that flowing through the hot core of the engine.
During the Brayton cycle, combustion takes place....?
What is the pressure ratio of a gas turbine engine compressor?
The ratio between compressor outlet and compressor inlet pressure.
A stage of an axial flow compressor consists of what?
One rotor assembly and one row of stator vanes
How are the ring of blades which sometimes precede the first rotor stage of an axial flow compressor called?
the inlet guide vanes
What is the action to be taken in the event of an engine surge?
Slowly close the throttle
Shrouding of the stator blade tips is designed to do minimise what?
What does OCA mean?
Obstacle clearance altitude
What does OCH mean?
Obstacle Clearance Height
What is the manoeuvring area?
The part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft excluding aprons.
What is the movement area?
That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the aprons.
When was the first International conference on civil aviation?
1919 in Paris
When was the chicago convention?
What is sovereignty?
The right of a country, or contracting ICAO state, to impose national law to users of the state's territorial airspace.
What deals Annex 1 deal with?
What does Annex 2 deal with?
Rules of the air
What does Annex 3 deal with?
Meteorological services for International Air Navigation
What does Annex 4 deal with?
What does Annex 5 deal with?
Units of measurement to be used in Air and Ground Operations
What does Annex 6 deal with?
Operation of Aircraft
What does Annex 7 deal with?
Aircraft nationality and registration marks
What does Annex 8 deal with?
Airworthiness of aircraft
What does Annex 9 deal with?
What does Annex 10 deal with?
What does Annex 11 deal with?
Air traffic services
What does Annex 12 deal with?
Search and Rescue
What does Annex 13 deal with?
Aircraft Accident Investigations
What does Annex 14 deal with?
What does Annex 15 deal with?
Aeronautical Information Services
What does Annex 16 deal with?
What does Annex 17 deal with?
Security - Safeguarding International Civil Aviation against Acts of Unlawful Interference
What does Annex 18 deal with?
The safe transport of dangerous goods
What does cabotage refer to?
Domestic air services within a state
Which freedom of the air is applicable to a flight which whishes to land in a foreign state for technical reasons?
By whom is the certificate of airworthiness issued?
By the state of registration
For what kind of aircraft must a structural integrity programme be established?
For aircraft with a MTOW of 5700kg or greater
Who is requiered to ensure that a structural integrety programme is established for aircraft?
The state of design
Where are registration marking requiered on the aircraft?
On the lower surface of the wing, the fuselage (between the wings and the tail), or on the upper half of the vertical tail surface.
What is the minimum height for registration marking on the lower side of the wing?
At least 50cm high
What is the minimum height for registration markings on the fuselage and vertical surfaces?
At least 30cm high
What is the definition of the PIC (pilot in command)?
The PIC is the pilot who is responsible for the safety of the aircraft and compliance with the rules of the air, during flight time.
What is the definition of the commander?
A pilot designated by the operator who is qualified as PIC, who may deligate the responsibility for the conduct of the flight to another qualified pilot.
What is the definition of the co-pilot?
A licensed pilot serving in any capacity other than PIC but excluding a pilot who is on board for the sole purpose of receiving instruction.
Between what ages may you excercise the privileges of an ATPL (A) unrestricted?
Between 21 and 60
What is the minimum age for an CPL(A)?
What is the minimum age for an ATPL(A)?
After how many hours of hospital or clinic admission must a licence holder inform the authority's?
More than 12
When must a licence holder inform the authority's about their medical fitness?
Hospital of clinic admission for more than 12 hours
Surgical operation or invasive procedure
The regular use of medication
The need for regular use of correcting lenses
How many pilot proficiency checks are requiered when flights are conducted in IFR?
two a year (the two checks not conducted within 4 months)
How long is a medical valid after the age of 60?
What is the maximum level of blood/alcohol permitted in the UK?
What is the transponder code for an emergency?
What is the transponder code for a radio failure?
What is the transponder code for an unlawful interference?
What is the definition of low visibility operations?
Take-offs and landings with RVR less than 800m
On what is the MOC generally based?
On the highest obstacle within 5nm of track.
How much is the MOC ath the DER (departure end of runway)?
What is the minimum obstacle clearance in the turn initiation area for a turning departure?
90m (295 ft)
What is a straight departure?
A departure in which the initial departure track is within 15 degrees of the allignment of the runway.
Turning departures provide track guidance within what distance of the completion of turns?
Tha MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation facility at the aerodrome?
What does the abbreviation DER stand for?
Departure end of runway
What does the abbreviation OIS stand for?
Obstacle Identification Surface
What is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument procedure?
The terrain surrounding the aerodrome
What are the five parts of an approach procedure?
- The arrival segment
- The initial segment
- The intermediate segment
- The final segment
- The missed approach procedure
What is the MOC in the primary area of an approach segment?
300m or 600m (in ountainous areas)
What is the MOC in the secundary area of an approach segment?
300 or 600m reducing to 0 at the outer edges.
Where does the arrival segment in an approach procedure start?
At the point where the aircraft departs from the en-route airways system to begin the instrument arrival.
What is the climb gradient requiered during the intermediate segment of a missed approach?
What is the MOC in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment?
300m reducing to 150m
What is the optimum distance of the FAF from the threshold?
On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment start?
On an instrument approach, what is the maximum permissible descent gradient in the final approach?
For the intermediate section of a missed approach, what is the minimum obstacle clearance?
Within what angle of the extended runway centerline is a non-precision approach considered to be straight in?
At what point does the intermediate phase of a missed approach end?
When 50m obstacle clearance is attained and can be maintained
Is it permitted to fly over the MAPT at an altitude higher than MDA?
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
Where a climb is established
Who determines OCA/H?
The authority of the state
What is the descent gradient in the final segment for an ILS CAT II approach?
What is the minimum ground visibility for a CAT I ILS approach?
Where does the initial approach segment begin in an instrument approach procedure?
At the IAF
What kind of turns must be made in a holding pattern?
Rate 1 turns or 25 degrees of bank, whichever is the least.
What kind of turns are in a standard holding pattern?
What is the holding speed for holding patterns up to 14000 ft?
What is the holding speed for holding patterns above 14000 ft?
What is the holding speed, wherever possible, for holding patterns associated with airway route structures?
How wide is the bufferzone surrounding the holding area?
What is the MOC applied in the bufferzone of an holding area?
Reducing from 300m to zero.
A proceudre to alter level in a holding pattern is known as..?
What is needed for all parallel runway operations?
The use of radar.
By how many degrees must the missed approach track diverge with simultaneous parallel operations?
A minimum of 30 degrees
How often is an ATIS updated?
When there is a significant change in information
The ATIS message should not exceed...?
What are the three Wake Turbulence Categories?
Light, medium, heavy
By what are aircraft categorised to relate to the severity of wake turbulence generated?
By the MTOM (maximum take off mass)
Who must be informed about differences from the Standards of the Annexes to the
For a straight departure, within how many degrees of the runway centerline must the initial departure track be?
Within 15 degrees
What covers the convention of Rome?
damage caused by aircraft to 3rd. parties on the ground by foreign registered aircraft.
Which convention covers damage caused by aircraft to 3rd. parties on the ground by foreign registered aircraft.
The convention of Rome
Which factor is most likely to dictate the design of an instrument departure procedure?
The terrain surrounding the airport.
What is the validity of a SNOWTAM and an ASHTAM
What is the maximum distance from the threshold to the FAF?
What is the optimum distance from the threshold to the FAF?
What is the MOC in the initial approach segment primary area during an instrument approach?
300 m (600m in mountainous areas)
What is the MOC in the intermediate segment of an instrument approach?
The type of entry into a holding pattern is based on what?
The aircrafts magnetic heading
To what is the DH for a CAT1 approach referenced?
To what is the DH for a CAT II/III approach referenced?
What is the obstacle clearance at 5 nms from the edge of the holding area?
Which convention deals with the right of passengers to claim compensation from the carrier, or the agent, in the event of injury, delay or loss of luggage.
The Warsaw convention
What covers the Warsaw convention?
The right of passengers to claim compensation from the carrier, or the agent, in the event of injury, delay or loss of luggage.
What does AIRAC mean?
Aeronautical Regulation and Control.
What is AIRAC?
An amendment method based on a common system of 28 days intervals.
When may a one minute separation be used during departures?
If the aircraft are to fly tracks diverging immediately after take-off by at least 45�.
When is VFR flight over FL200 permitted?
With ATC permission.
Describe runway end lighting.
- Red in the direction of the runway
How are the first and second freedoms of the Air known?
The technical freedoms
How are the third, fourth and fifth Freedoms of the Air known?
The Commercial freedoms
Which direction is the standard holding pattern?
What are the aircraft categories based on?
Vat = 1.3 x Vso (Stall speed in landing configuration) or 1.23 x Vs1g
What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach
- Missed approach
What is the MOC in the final segment for non-precision approaches? (with FAF and without)
75 m with FAF and 90m without
What are the holding speeds in normal conditions?
up to and inclusive 14000 ft - 230 Kts
Over 14000 ft - 240 Kts
Turbulent conditions - 280 Kts
What does SNOCLO mean in a METAR?
The aerodrome is closed for snow clearance operations.
What are the wake tubulence categories?
Heavy 136000 KG and more
Medium >7000 KG - 135999
Light < 7000 KG
When is the PIC responsible for terrain clearence?
At all times, except during Radar vectoring
When are NOTAMS issued?
1. temporary nature and of short- termed duration
2. permanent and operationally significant nature
3. temporary changes of long duration are made at short notice - except when extensive text and/ or graphics are used (in which it comes out as an AIP supplement)
When is a runway reported damp?
When the surface shows a change in colour due to moisture
When is a runway reported wet?
The surface is soaked but no significant patches of standing water.
When is a runway reported water patches?
significant patches of standing water (also used when at least 25% of the runway length is covered with standing water)
When is a runway reported flooded?
extensive standing water.
Endurance & range of the PA34?
Endurance 5 hrs, range 800nm
What is SFC?
Specific Fuel Consumption is the quantity/weight (lb) of fuel consumed per hour divided by the thrust of an engine in pounds.
What are the main engine instruments?
EPR (engine pressure ratio gage), N1, EGT, N2, Fuel Flow
What are indications of a wet start?
EGT not rising
RPMs stabalize at starter maximum
What are the requiered actions for a wet start?
Close the fuel supply lever as soon as wet start is diagnosed
Motor the engine to blow out the fuel (usually about 60 seconds).
What is an engine hung start?
When the engine ignites but does not reach its self sustaining RPM's.
What is the cause of an hung start?
Insufficient airflow to support combustion due to the compressor not supplying enough air because of;
1. High altitude, low density air
2. Hot conditions, low density air
3. Inefficient compression
4. Low starter RPM's
What are the indications of a hung start?
1. High EGT
2. RPM's below normal self sustaining speed
What are the actions requiered with a hung start?
1 Close fuel lever
2. Motor over the engine to blow out the fuel (usually about 60 secs.)
What is an hot start?
The engine ignites and reaches self sustaining rpms, but the combustion is unstable amd the exhaust gat temperature (EGT) rises rapidly past its maximum limit.
What are the causes for an hot start?
1. Overfuelling (throttle open)
2. Air intake/ exhaust blocked
3. Tailwind, causing the compressor to run backwards
4. Seized engine (ice blockage)
What are the actions requered with an hot start?
1. Close the fuel lever/ stop fuel delivery before the EGT limit has been reached
2. When the engine rpm's have slowed to the reeengagement speed, motor over the engine to blow out the fuel (approx 60 secs.)
Why do you use derated thrust takeoffs in jet aircraft?
1. To protect engine life and to improve reliability
2. To reduce noise generated by the aircraft
What is a jet engine surge?
It is the reversal of airflow through an engine, where the high pressure air in the combustion chamber is expelled forward through the compressors, with a loud bang and resulting loss of engine thrust.
How is an engine surge caused?
1. All the compressor stages have stalled
2. An excessive fuel flow creates a high pressure in the rear of the engine.
What are the indications of an engine surge?
1. Total loss of thrust
2. A large increase in TGT
What are the requiered actions in the event of an engine surge?
1. Close the throttles smoothly and slowly
2. Adjust the aircrafts attitude to unstall the engines (which lead to the surge)
3. Slowly and smoothly reopen the throttles.
What does FADEC mean?
Full authority Digital Engine Control
What is fadec?
A system that automatically controls engine functions, i.e., start procedures, engine monitoring, fuel flow, ignition system and power levels requiered.
How do jet engines generate noise?
The noise is from the sheer effect of different displaced air velocities. The sheer is the diff3erence between the jet's faster displaced air and the slower ambient air around it.
How can an engine's noise be controlled or reduced?
1. Bypass engines
2. Reduced thrust take offs
What are the pressure flight instruments?
1. ASI/ Mach meter
How do pressure instruments work?
They sense the atmospheric pressure by using the pitot-static system. The pitot tube measures total pressure (static & dynamic). A Statit port measures static pressure. The dynamic pressure is calculated by subtracting the static pressure from the total pressure.
What are the altimiter instrument errors?
1. Instrument error
2. Pressure error (position error)
3. Time lag error
4. Barometric error
5. Temperature/ density error
6. blovked static port
What do you know about a servo assisted altimeter?
It increases the accuracy of a simple pressure altimeter because its design no longer relies on a direct mechanical linkage between its capsule and the altitude pointer on the instruments. It uses an electrically conducted E&I bar.
What is the advantage of a servo-assisted altimeter?
It removes instrument error and time leg error.
What are the gyro flight instruments?>
1. Directional Indicator
2. Artificial horizon
3. Turn and slip indicator or turn coordinator
What does EFIS stand for?
Electronic Flight Instrument System
What is EFIS?
A fully integrated computer based digital navigation system that uses color cathode-ray tube (CRT) types of electronic attitude directional indicator (EADI) and horizontal situation indicator (EHSI).
How many people live within one hour driving of one of easyjet's airports?
Of the passenger numbers, how many people were business travelers?
How many airports does easyJet fly to?
In how many countries does easyjet fly?
What is easyjet's vision and how are they going to achieve that?
To turn Europe orange by:
- No compromises on safety
- Offering low fares to convenient (primary) airports, on convenient times of the day
- Smart cost management
How does a Jet engine work
By forcing incoming air into a tube, where the air is compressed, mixed with fuel, burned and exhausted at high speed to generate thrust.
How are the turbine blades cooled
By 3 ways:
1. Convection cooling; by passing cooling air through passages internal to the blade
2. Film cooling; by pumping cool air out of the blade through small holes. The air creates a thin layer on the blade of cool air protecting it to the high temperatures.
3. Transpiration cooling; It creates a thin film of cooling air on the blade by leaking through a porous shell.
What is the difference between a turbofans and turbojet engine
Most components remain the same in a turbofan and turbojet engine, but the turbofan engine introduces a fan section in front of the compressors. This fan is also turbine driven but it�s primary purpose is to force a large volume of air through outer ducts that go around the engine core. This large mass of air that is accelerated by the fan produces a significant thrust without burning any additional fuel.
What are the aerodynamic consequences of having under-wing mounted engines?|
A pitch up moment when adding thrust, delaying wing flutter to a higher speed, Pylons can acts as fences to minimise spanwise flow, Intake efficiency is rarely compromised by interference flows,
What differences do we have when mounting engines under the wing instead of at the aft fuselage?
- Intake efficiency is rarely compromised by interference flows
- The engines provide bending relief, thus reducing wing structure weight
- At high incidence the pylons tend to act in a way similar to fences by controlling spanwise flow
- Good engine accessibility
- Unless the engines are mounted well inboard the asymmetric yawing moment following failure is high, so this demands good rudder control
- Roll freedom on the ground is limited.
- A low thrust line can have an adverse effect on longitudinal control
- Low mounted engines encourage ingestion from the runway surface. (FOD damage)
How large is a microburst?
How long does the initial stage of a thunderstorm last?
How long does the mature stage of a thunderstorm last?
How long does the disipating stage of a thunderstorm last?
1,2 to 2,5 hours
How long does a microburst last?
About 5-10 minutes
How long does the allignment of the IRS last in the Airbus?
Which way do jetstreams travel?
Westerly, except in summer there is an easterly jet over the tropics.
At what speed must a jetstream travel to be classified as a jhetstream?
What are the dangers associated with thunderstorms?
Severe turbulence, severe icing, microbursts, hail, interference on radio equipment, lightning risks
What are the components of an IRS?
Accelerometers, gyroscopes, position computer
What is V2? Why is it important?
V2 is the minumum speed to be achieved by screen height. This is important because in case of an engine faliure it is still possbile to maintain directional control and sufficent climb performance.
How do you calculate the TOD
The calculated distance required to accelerate to Vr, and to climb to the screen height, factored by 15%
What are other 'easy' brands owned by Sir Stelios and the easy group?
It increases the wing area and then the camber and may be slotted. The change in pitch moment is usually greater because of the rearward extension of the chord.
What de-ice/ anti-ice equipment does the A320 have?
Hot air and electrical heating;
Hot air; Three outboard leading edge slats of each wing (3,4,5) and Engine air intakes
Electrical; Flight compartment windows, sensors, pitot probes and static ports and waste water drain mast.
Do our aircraft have de-icing equipment on the tail?
Describe the four climb segments.
1st: Begins at 35� over the runway (screen height) to the point where the gear is fully rectracted. Positive climb gradient
2nd: Begins at gear up and terminates at minimum flap rectraction altitude. Climb gradient 2,4% (could be at 400� depending on procedures)
3rd : Starts at flap rectraction and ends with flaps rectracted. Climb gradient: 1,2%
4th : Starts with enroute configuration reached, ends at 1500 ft over runway elevation. Climb gradient 1,2%
What is a microburst?
a severe downdraft, or a vertical wind, emanating from the base of a mature CB
What are the ILS minimums?
CAT I: 200ft DA & 600m RVR
CAT II: 100FT DH & RVR 600 to 300m
CAT IIIA: 50FT DH & RVR 300 to 150m
CAT IIIB: No DH & RVR Below 150m
CAT IIIC: DH 0FT/ RVR 0
What is an approach ban?
When making a descent at an aerodrome to a runway for which there is a notified instrument approach procedure an aircraft must not descend from a height of 1000 feet or more above the aerodrome to a height less than 1000 feet above the aerodrome if the relevant runway visual range for that runway is at the time less than the specified minimum for landing.