path final

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path final
2011-06-06 21:43:10
path final

path final
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  1. Hemophilia A has a deficit or abnormality of clotting factor ______
  2. Hematomos, ecchymosis, and epitaxis are all signs and symptoms of what?
    Hemophilia A
  3. Arteriosclerosis, artherosclerosis, angina pectoris, ad myocardial infarction are all types of what?
    CAD-coronary artery disease
  4. Blockage in the right coronary artery is more likely to cause _______
  5. right coronary artery supplies blood to what?
    SA and AV nodes
  6. Blockage of left coronary may lead to what?
    impaired pumping capability and congestive heart failure
  7. Left coronary artery supplies blood to what?
    left ventricle
  8. Atheromas or plaques form primarily in _______ _______
    large arteries
  9. This occurs due to lack of oxygen in heart muscle, ususally when demand is sudden and can be due to impairment, exertion or a combo of the two.
    Angina (chest pain)
  10. Angina is relieved by what?
    rest and intake of nitroglycerin
  11. This is the primary cause of death in American men and women
    MI-myocardial infarction (heart attack)
  12. Occurs when there is prolonged ischemia to heart muscle which leads to cell death or infarction. Sudden substernal pain radiating to left arm and neck, severe, steady and crucshing with no relief with rest or nitro
    myocardial infarction
  13. Infarction in left ventricle or hypertension effects the _______ ________ first
    left ventricle
  14. pulmonary valve stenosis or pulmonary disease effects the _______ _________ first
    right ventricle
  15. depending on cause, one side of the heart usually fails first with ?
    congestive heart failure.
  16. congestion develops behind the affected ventricle, output is less than inflow of blood =?
    backup effect
  17. CHF backup effect of pulmonary congestion (edema) is what sided?
    left sided
  18. CHF backup effect is congestion in systemic circulation (legs, feet, digestive organs) is what sided?
    right sided
  19. results from decreased circulating blood volume,leading to decreased tissue perfusion and general hypoxia
    shock (hypotension)
  20. this is an abnormality in the areteris or veins outside the heart, most common sites of artheromas in the peripheral circulation
    peripheral vascular disease
  21. signs and symptoms of this include increased fatigue and weakness in legs as blood flow decreases, intermittent claudication (leg pain associated with exercise due to muscle ischemia
    peripheral vascular disease
  22. this is a vasospastic condition where intermintent severe vasoconstriction occurs in srteioles and small arteries in superficial tissues of the digits.
    raynaud's syndrome
  23. temporary ischema with pallor, numbness and cyanosis followed by vasodilation, redness and throbbing pain
    effects of vasospasm with raynaud's syndrome
  24. signs and symptoms include mouth breathing, sore throat, rhinorrea and the most common pathogen is the rhinovirus
    infectious rhinitis (cold)
  25. this is secondry to a cold or allergy that has obstructd the drainage of one or more of the paranasal sinuses into the nsal cavity
  26. it can be diagnosed by transillumination and signs and symptoms include nasal congestion, fever, sore throat and severe pain in facial bone
  27. first stage of this is called congestion, second stage is called consolidation and it is caused by streptococcus pneumoniae
    lobar pneumonia
  28. this is necrosis of bronchial epithelium, caused by mycoplasma and the signs are a nonproductive, hacking cough
    interstitial pneumonia
  29. causes by a gram negative bacteria called leionella pneumonia-thirives in warm moist environments like a/c units and spas
    legionnare's disease
  30. this disease is transmitted as an autosomal recessive disorder-it is caused by a defective gene on the 7th chromosome
    cystic fibrosis
  31. name the two stages of tuberculosis
    primary infection and reinfection (secondary infection)
  32. caused by cigarette smoking, has the igns and sympoms of impaired expiration, barel chest, hyperinflation and clubbed fingers
  33. signs and symptoms of this disease include a hoarse, barking cough, inspiratory stridor and restlessness-it is also known as croup
  34. this occurs most commonly in the duodenum
    peptic ulcer
  35. fatty diarrhea-bulk, greasy loose stools with a foul odor
  36. red blood on the surface of the stool is called?
    frank blood
  37. small hidden amounts of blood detected via testing-posible bleeding ulcers in stomach or small intestine
    occult blood
  38. dark clolored tary stool-significant bleeding higher in the digestive tract-acted on by bacteria causing the dark color
  39. these consist of cholesterol, bile pigments(billirubin) and calcium salts
    gall stones
  40. white gallstones are primaril made up of
  41. gallstones tha are made primariyl of billirubin are what color?
  42. thransmission of this disease is oral-fecal, often from water and shellfish, there is no carrier state and outbreaks may occur in daycare centers
    hepatitis A
  43. disease caused by a DNA virus (HBV), carrier state is common, transmitted by blood and body fluids-there is a vaccine available
    hepatitis B
  44. this diseaseis caused by an RNA virus (HEV), it is spread oral-fecal, no chronic/carrier state, more common in Africa and Asia-has a 2-9 wek incubation
    Hepatitis E
  45. name the four general catagories of cirrhosis
    alcoholic liver disease, billary cirrhosis, postnecrotic cirrhosis and metabolic storage disorders
  46. crohn's disease and ulcerative collitis are known as
    chronic inflammatry bowel disease
  47. pylonephritis is a(an) _______ tract UTI
  48. cystitis and urethritis are ________ tract UTIs
  49. what is the most causitive agent of a UTI?
    E. coli
  50. most UTI infections are from microbes _________ from perineal area
  51. women are more vunerable than men to UTIs due to
    shortness if the urethra, proximity to the anus and irritation
  52. infection from ureter to renal pelvis and medullary tissues (tubules), purulent exudate fills pelvis and calyces, medulla is inflamed, urinalysis reveals urinary casts
  53. APSGN ia a representative form, usually begins as an upper respiratory infection, middle ear r strep throat andit produces a dark, cloudy coffee colored urine
  54. may be caused from excessive insoluble salts in filtrate or inadequate fluid intake and the treatment is called lithotripsy
    urolithiasis (kidney stones)
  55. 75% of calculi are _____________ and the rest are mainly _____________
    calcium salts, uric acid
  56. any solid material in urinary tract causes a ________, which leads to a calculi which can be small or large (___________)
    nidus, staghorn calculi
  57. develops rapidly, ologuria, increased serum urea, elevated BUN, metabolic acidosis and hyperkalemia are signs and symptoms of what?
    acute renal failure
  58. kidneys have a _______ ________, so disease is often asymptomatic until well advanced
    reserve capacity
  59. gradual irreversible destruction of tubules as a result of chronic kidney disease, hypertension, diabetes, or long term exposure to toxins is what?
    chronic renal failure
  60. oliguria, pruitis, peripherla neuropathy, memory loss, failure of kidny to activate vitamin D, CHF, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, systemic infections and uremic frost are all what?
    late signs of chronic renal failure (end stage failure)
  61. inherited disease, autosomal dominant trait is more common in adults and recessive form appears in infancy and childhood
    polycystic kidney disease
  62. loss of logical thinking, analytical skills, communication skills and other intellectual abilities is a result of
    left cerebral hemisphere damage
  63. behavioral problems, "neglect" syndrome, deficient spacial orientation and recognition of relationships, impaired moblity and appreciation of music and art indicate what?
    damage to right cerebral hemisphere
  64. affected person does not respond o apinful or verbal stimuli, body is flaccid and some reflexes are present-most serious level of consciousness
  65. loss of all reflexes, fixed and dilatated pupils, slow, irregular pulse and respiration=?
    terminal stage, deep coma
  66. loos of awareness and mental capabilities (from diffuse brain damage), brain stem function continues, appears to be a sleep/wake cycle yet unresposive to stimuli
    vegetative state
  67. condition in which an individual with brain damage is aware and capable of thinking but is paralyzed and canno communicate
    locked-in syndrome
  68. transient ischemic attack (TIA) serve as ________ ______ to more sever CVAs-not all stokes are preceeded by a TIA
    warning signs
  69. without a constant source of ________ and ________ the brain suffers permanent brain damage
    glucose, oxygen
  70. ___________ __________ are the most frequent cause of hydrocephalus
    developmental abnormalities
  71. suteres have not closed, head enlarges, fonanels bulge, scalp veins appear dilated and eyes showing the sunset sign are signs and symptoms of what?
  72. neural tube defects that cause failure of the posterior spinal process on vertebrae to fuse
    spina bifida
  73. prodromal signs, aura, loss of consciousness, strong tonic muc=scle contraction, clonic stage, contractions subsideand consciousness slowly returns, person is confused and fatigued
    pattern for tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures
  74. brief loss of awareness, eye lid twitches, lip smacking, occurs many times a day, 5-10 seconds long, stares into space for a moment then reumes activity, more common in children
    absense (petit mal) seizure
  75. involves progressive de-myelination of the neurons of the brain, spinal cord and cranial nerves-blurred vision, scotoma, weakness in legs and paralysis-there is no cure
    multiple sclerosis (MS)
  76. dysfunction of the extrapyramidal motor system, occurs due to progressive changes in basal nuclei (substantia nigra) where there is a reduction in dopamine
    parkinson's disease
  77. fatigue, muscle weakness, change in facial expression, tremors, pill-rolling, shuffling steps
    parkinson's disease
  78. common form of dementia, progressive loss of intellectual function and memory, confusion, language skills, motor coordination and personality-specific cause is yet unknown
    alzheimer's disease
  79. deficit of corticosteroids, weight loss, hypotension, syncope, hyperpigmentation
    addison's disease
  80. excess glucocorticoids, moon facem buffalo hump, bruising of the skin, hypertension, glucose intolerance
    cushing's syndrome
  81. GH (growth hormone) is located in the _______ ________ and does what?
    anterior pituitary and promotes growth of all body tissues
  82. TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) is located where? it controls what?
    anterior pituitary, simulates thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones
  83. ACTH (adrenocirticotropic hormone) is located where ? it does what?
    anterior pituitary; stimulates adrenal cortex to produce cotical hormones, also aids in protecting body in stress situations
  84. PRL (prolactin) is located where? it does what?
    stimulates secretion of milk by mammary glands
  85. FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) is located where? it does what?
    anterior pituitary; stimulates growth hormone activity of ovarian follicles and growth of testes, also the development of sperm cells
  86. LH (luteinizing hormone) is located where? it does what?
    anterior pituitary; causes development of corpus luteum at site of ruptured ovarian follicle in females, stimulates secretion of testosterone in males
  87. ADH (anti-diuretic hormone) is located where? it does what?
    posterior pituitary; promotes reabsorption of water in kidney tubules (at high concentrations stimulates blood vessel constriction)
  88. oxytocin is located where? it does what?
    posterior pituitary; causes contraction of uterine muscle, and ejection of milk from mammary glands
  89. Thyroxine (T4) , Tri-iodothyronone (T3) is located where? it does what?
    thyroid; increases metabolic rate, influences both mental/physical activities, required for normal growth
  90. calcitonin is located where? it does what?
    thyroid; decreases blood calcium levels
  91. PTH (parathyroid hormone) is located where? it does what?
    parathyroids; increases blood calcium levels and regulates exchange of calcium between blood and bones
  92. epinephrine and norepinephrine are located where? does what?
    adrenal medulla; neurotransmitter, increases BP and HR, activates cells influenced by sympathetic nervous system
  93. cortisol (95% of glucocorticoids) is located where? it does what?
    adrenal cortex; aids in metabolism of carbs, proteins adn fats, also active during stress
  94. aldosterone (95% f mineralcorticoids) is located where? it does what?
    adrenal cortex; aids in regulating electrolytes and water balance
  95. sex hormones are located where? they do what?
    adrenal cortex; influences secondary sexual characteristics
  96. thymosin is located where? it does what?
    thymus; promotes growth of T cells in active immunity
  97. melatonin is located where? it does what?
    pineal gland; regulates mood, sexuall development and daily cycles in response to the amount of light in the environment
  98. insulin is located where? it does what?
    pancreatic islets; needed for transport of glucose into cells, required for cellular metabolism of ffods, decreases blood sugar levels
  99. estrogens (estradiol) female sex hormone is located where? it does what?
    ovaries; stimulates growth of primary sexual organs (uterus, uterine tubes) and development of secondary sexual organs
  100. glucagon is located where? it does what?
    pancreatic islets; stimulates liver to release glucose,increases blood sugar levels
  101. testosterone-male sex hormone is located where? it does what?
    testes;stimulates growth of primary sexual organs (testes, penis) and development of secondary sexual characteristics (hair growth on body and face, deepening of voice)
  102. prostoglandins are located where? it does what?
    these hormones are made by most body tissue; act, are produce and are inactivatd close to their origin such as infalmmatory responses, induced labor and abortions
  103. these are derived from proteins and related compounds
    amino acid compounds
  104. these are derived from fatty acid (steroid cholesterol)-steroids
    lipid compounds
  105. chemical messenger that has regulatory effects on cells or organs (target tissue)
    secretion of endocrine gland
  106. specific tissue acted on by each hormone
    target tissue
  107. fracture at an angle to the diaphysis of the bone
    oblique fracture
  108. a break that angles around the bone; usually due to a twisting injury
    spiral fracture
  109. a break in the distal radius at th ewrist; commonly occurs when a person attempts to break a fall by extending the arm and open hand
    colle's fracure
  110. fracture of the lower fibula due to excessive stress on the ankle (ex. when stepping down with force)
    pott's fracture
  111. a tear in the ligament
  112. a tear in the tendon
  113. a metabolic bone disorder resulting in decreased bone mass and density, loss of bone matrix and mineralization
  114. major factor in hip and vertebrae fractures in the elderly
  115. kyphosis (hunchback) and scoliosis (lateral curvature) and loss of height are signs and symptoms of what?
  116. rickets is a disease due to the deficit of ________ & _______ in children
    vitamin D;phosphate
  117. Osteomalacia is a disease due to a deficit of vitamin D and phosphate in ________.
  118. rickets and osteomalacia occurs with:
    dietary deficits, malabsorption, prolonged intake of phenobarbital and lack of sun exposure
  119. an inherited skeletal disorder characterized by degeneration of skeletal muscle
    muscular dystrophy
  120. duchenne's muscular dystrophy is a metabloic defect caused by a deficit of ________.
  121. waddling gait appears when walking and gowers sign is evident; these are symptoms of ?
    muscular dystrophy
  122. a degenerative, non-inflammatory joint disease
  123. what is damaged or lost due to erosion from mechanical stress leading to osteoarthritis?
    articular cartilage of weight bering joints
  124. in osteoarthritis, cartilage surface becomes _______ and _______ interfering with normal joint movement
    rugh; worn
  125. in osteoarthritis, pieces of bone break off into the synovial cavity causing further __________, & secondary ________ may ensue in surrounding tissues
    irritation; inflammation
  126. in osteoarthritis, ______ & _________ (bonespurs) develop around the margin of bone
  127. no systemic effects are present with ?
  128. the ________ system and _________ system work mtogether to control body functions
    nervous; endocrine
  129. the endocrine system and nervous system work together to ?
    control body functions
  130. the most cpmmon cause of endcrine disorder is ?
    adenoma- development of benign tumor
  131. diabetes mellitus has two them
    relative deficit of insulin secretion from beta cells in the islets of langerhans OR insulin resistance
  132. define insulin resistance
    lack of response by cells to insulin
  133. insulin deficit is used to cover both decreased ________ of insulin and insulin ___________
    secretion; resistance
  134. building up synthesis of complex substances from simple molecules is doen by ?
    anabolic hormone
  135. deficient insulin results in abnormal metabolism of __________, ________ & ___________.
    carbohydrates, proteins, and fats
  136. Type 1 diabetes is also known as ?`
    insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM), or juvenille diabetes
  137. a severe form of type 1 diabetes results from ____________________________ and requires replacement therapy
    absolute deficit of insulin
  138. type 1 diabetes occurs more often in ?
    children and young adults
  139. the genetic factor of type 1 diabetes = _______ _____ are destroyed in a(an) _____________ response
    beta cells; autoimmune
  140. 2 complications that occur more frequently in type 1 diabetes
    hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis
  141. type 2 diabetes is also known as ?
    non insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) or "mature on-set" (adult) diabetes
  142. type 2 diabetes occurs due to a _______ or ________ deficit of insulin
    relative; partial
  143. type 2 diabetes is milder and usually develops in older adults, most are ______________.
  144. ___________ diabetes may occur during pregnancy then disappear after delivery
  145. decreased transport and use of glucose, hyperglycemia, glucosuria, polyuria, dehydration, polydipsia, polyphagia are all what?
    initial stage of insulin deficit
  146. catabolism of fats and proteins, ketoacidosis, body pH decreases(more acidic) are all what?
    progressive effects of insulin deficit
  147. metabolic acidosis can lead to ?
    diabetic coma
  148. name the 3 Ps of herald onset of diabetes
    Polyuria (urination), Polydipsia (thirst), Polyphasia (hunger)
  149. prolonged insulin deficit can lead to ?
    diabetic ketoacidosis
  150. manifestations of hypoglycemia are due to _________________ NOT ____________.
    low blood glucose; high insulin levels
  151. hypoglycemia (insulin shock) is precipitated by an __________ of insulin which causes a _______ of glucose in the blood
    excess; deficit
  152. diabetic ketoaacidosis signs and symptoms are related to _______, ___________ & ______________.
    dehydration;metabolic acidosis; electrolyte imbalance
  153. hypoparathyroidism leads to what?
  154. tetany (muscle twitching/spasms) and possible cadiac arrhythmias is caused by what?
  155. hyperparathyroidism leads to what?
  156. increased PTH causes calcium to leave bone leading to osteoporosis is caused by what?
  157. increased predisposition to kidney stones can ne caused by what?
  158. dwarfism is caused by a ________ of growth hormone (GH)
  159. gigantism is caused by _______ growth hormone in ___________.
    excess; children
  160. acromegaly is caused by _______ growwth hormone in _________.
    excess; adults
  161. diabetes insipidus is caused from a deficit of _________ hormome, causing dehydration
  162. manifestations of diabetes insipidus include ________ and thirst
  163. enlargement of the thyroid gland is called what?
    a goiter
  164. a goiter is usually caused from insufficient ________ levels
  165. a goiter can develop due to ____________and __________
  166. hyperthyroidism is also known as what?
    grave's disease
  167. hyperthyroidism is an increased secretion of _____ & _____.
    T3 ;T4
  168. excessive growth hormone in adults is called ?
  169. lack of reponse to cells by insulin is called what?
    insulin resistance
  170. the ________system and endocrine system work together to control body function
  171. gestational diabetes may occur during pregnancy and immediately turns to type 2 diabetes
  172. manifestations of hypoglycemia (insulin shock) are due to high insulin levels
  173. signs and symptoms for ________ ________ are related to dehydration, metabolic acidosis and electrolyte imbalance.
    diabetic ketoacidosis
  174. rickets is caused by a deficit of what?
    vitamin D
  175. this term refers to bleeding between menstral periods
  176. a sprain is a tear in the what?
  177. hypothyroidism is the _________ secretion of T3 and T4
  178. hyperthyroidism occurs more frequently in _______ over 30.
  179. hyperthyroidism is related to an autoimmune factor and is manifested by the signs:
    hypermetabolism, toxic goiter, exophthalmos, thin with increased appetite
  180. hypometabloism, endemic goiter, lethargy, weight gain with decreased appetite are all signs and symptoms of what?
  181. a destructive, inflammatory, autoimmune disorder
    hashimoto's thyroiditis
  182. severe hypothyroidism in adults; manifested as facial puffiness and a thick tongue
  183. untreated congenital hypothyroidism; impairing mental amd physical development
  184. occurs when the bone is brokn to frm 2 or more separate pieces =?
    complete fracture
  185. occurs when the bone is only partially broken
    incomplete fracture
  186. grrenstick fracture is an example of what?
    incomplete fracture
  187. ________ or open fracture results whn the skin is broken
  188. compound or ______ fracture has more damage to soft tissue and a higher risk of infection
  189. ________ fracture is when the skin is not broken at the fracture site
  190. a single break in the bone in which the bone ends maintain thier alinment and positions
    simple fracture
  191. multiple fracture lines and bone fragments
    comminuted fracture
  192. occurs when a bone is crushed or collapses into small pieces; common in vertebrae
    compression fracture
  193. occurs when one end of the bone is forced or telescoped into adjacent bone
    impacted fracture
  194. results from a weakness in the bone structure due to conditions such as tumor or osteoporosis~break occurs spontaneously with very little stress
    pathologic fracture
  195. result from repeated excessive stress; aka fatigue fracture
    stress fracture
  196. occurs in the skull when the broken section is forced inward on the brain
    depressed fracture
  197. fracture across the bone
    transverse fracture
  198. break along the axis of the bone
    linear fracture
  199. clicking sound as cartilages run together
  200. crepitus, pain, anlarged joints, muscle atrophy are signs and symptoms and radiographic evidence confirms diagnosis
  201. often begins insidiously in small joints (fingers) followed by inflammation of wrists, elbows and knees; remissions and exacerbaions lead to progressive joint damage
    rheumatoid arthritis
  202. considered an autoimmune disease that causes chronic systemic inflammation
    rheumatoid arthritis
  203. rheumatoid factor is an antibody against IgG present in _______ & ________.
    blood;synovial fluid
  204. joints may appear to recover after first period of acute inflammation with what?
    rheumatoid arthritis
  205. joint fixation and deformity = what?
  206. granular tissue "pannus" forms and spreads over articular cartilage, pannus releases enzymes that destroy cartilage; cartilage is eroded creating an unstable joint, pannus becomes fibrotic limiting movement leading to ankylosis
    process of rheumatoid arthritis
  207. systemic signs of rheumatoid athritis
    malaise, fatigue, depression, fever
  208. nodules may form on pleura, heart valves and eyes with what?
    rheumatoid arthritis
  209. insidious at first, inflammation appears in fingers and wrists symetrically; joints are red, swollen, and painful, progressive loss if mobility; joints become fixed and deformed
    rheumatoid arthritis
  210. confirmation of diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is what?
    swelling of three joints for a minumum of 6 weeks
  211. form of inflammatory arthritis
  212. form of arthritis caused by deposits of uric acid and urates in a joint
  213. progressive inflammatory disorder of the vertebral joints
    ankylosing spondylitis
  214. this leads to rigid spine
    ankylosing spondylitis
  215. in prostatic cancer ______ ______ are detectable upon rectal exam; often in posterior lobe
    hard nodules
  216. urethral obstruction is ___________ an early sign of prostatic cancer due to _______
    usually not; location
  217. later stage prostatic cancer tumors cause what?
    obstruction. decreased flow, hesitancy, frequent infections
  218. what 2 serum markers aid in diagnosis of prostatic cancer?
    • PSA prostate specific antigen
    • prostatic acid phosphatase (not diagnostic alone)
  219. sequale for benign prostatic hypertrophy include:
    distended bladder, renal damage, dilated ureters
  220. compression leads to variable degrees of urinary destruction & subsequen infection, prosate gland enlarges abd can be palpatated upon rectal exam~no increased risk for cancer
    benign prostatic hypertrophy
  221. microbes migrate up uterine tubes and cause obstruction due to purulent exudate and edema; drainage to uterus is obstructed, infection can spread easliy to peritoneal cavity causing peritonitis
    PID pelvic inflammatory disease
  222. in breast cancer, the cancer infiltrates surrounding skin and adheres to it causing _______.
  223. serious bacterial nfection caused by microbes such as chlamydia and can lead to strictures, adhesions and infertility
  224. different types of carcinomas with breast cancer, most arise from cells of ______ ________.
    ductal eputhelium
  225. malignant tumor of breat tissue that develop in ______ ______ quadrant in half the cases, usually unilateral
    upper outer
  226. with up to 400,000 deaths per year it is a major cause of death in women
    breast cancer
  227. STDs are also known as what?
    venereal disease
  228. STD are among the _____ _____ contagious diseases and are frequently ____________, especially in women
    most common; asymptomatic
  229. treatment for iron deficiency anemia= ?
    iron supplements and iron rich foods
  230. These STDs are bacterial
    chlamydia, gonorrhea, and syphilis
  231. these STDs are viral
    genital herpes, genital warts, HPV, Hep B, and HIV
  232. Amenorrhea is defined as ?
    without menses
  233. dysmenorrhea is defined as ?
    abnormal/difficult/ painful menses
  234. oliomenorrhea is defined as ?
    scanty/few menses~bleeding between periods
  235. body's nonspecific response to tissue injury; results in redness (rubor), swelling (tumor), and pain (dolor)
  236. time between enrance if microbe into the body and the appearnace of clinical signs if disease
    incubation period~may last days to months
  237. timewhen a person "feels something is wrong" i.e. headache and fatigue
    prodromal period
  238. time when infection develops and clinical manifestations peak; may become chronic infection or systemic, like septicemia, if not totally eradicated
    acute period
  239. time during infection when signs subside is what?
    recovery or convelescent period
  240. cause a reduction in oxygen trnsport due to decreased hemoglobin;decreased erythrocytes = ?
  241. iron deficit may occur due to insufficient _______ _______ and impaired ____ _______.
    dietary intake ; iron absorption
  242. sickle cell anemia is due to a ________ HbS gene
  243. pallor, weakness, tachycardia, dyspenea, jaundicem and splenomegaly are signs and symptoms of ?
    sickle cell anemia
  244. pernicious anemia results from what?
    vitamin B12 deficiency
  245. main sign of pernicious anemia
    large, sore , red, shiney tongue
  246. condition of increased production of erythrocytes by bone marrow and oatiient appears plethoric and cyanotic
  247. first indicator of this disease is a large painless, non-tender cervical lymph node and lymphocytes appear to be defective
    hodgkin's disease
  248. spontaneous bleeding or excessive bleeding following minor tissue trauma, often indicates a ______________ disorder
  249. about 80% of these cases involve B-lymphocytes, initial manifestation is an enlarged, painless lymphnode
    non-hodgkin's lymphoma
  250. high numbers of immature nonfunctional cells in bone marrow and circulation; examples, ALL & AML; common in children
    acute leukemia
  251. insidious onset, common in adults, mild signs of fatigue, weakness, frequent infections; examples CLL & CML
    chronic leukemia