Review Questions

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Review Questions
2011-06-12 21:41:55

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  1. What is Exemption 3585 primarily used for?
    Allows you to be dispatched to a domestic destination when conditional statements in the TAF indicate deterioriating weather at your destination and alternates
  2. 3585 Requirements
    Destination and Alternate minimums at or above minimums in Main Body of TAF Conditional Statement Allows visibility to be no less than 1/2 of mins required for approach being used at destination and 1/2 visibility and ceiling alternate mins for 1st Alternate
  3. Requirements for 2nd Alternate for 3585
    2. Second alternate must be at or above mins required for CPS alternates in the main body for the appropiate time period of either a TAF or METAR
  4. When else might you need a second alternate?
    • When the weather is marginal at the destination and first alternate
    • Marginal Defined as Ceiling or Visibiliy at their respective minimus at the ETA
  5. When are you required to have a destination alternate?
    • Reported braking action of NIL
    • Forecast Moderate Rain/Heavy Freezing Drizzle
    • Tailwind/Crosswind limitations exceeded considering lainding aids and terrain
    • Forecast indicating weather condition at ETA to be between 2000/3 3000/4 and weather trend deteriorating
    • Forecast arrival is at night at a special PIC qualification airport
    • Other circumstance warranted by the dispater. Will be listed in remarks section of the dispatch
    • 1-2-3 rule
  6. When required to have a takeoff alternate?
    When the weather at the departure airport is below the lowest CAT I minimums for the runway in use
  7. Can CAT II weather minimums be used for takeoff or destination alternates?
  8. Requirements for Takeoff Alternate
    Must be within 1 hour of from the departure airport in still air with 1 engine inoperative. Must be the CPS SPCS for weather and airport.
  9. How to ensure Alternates not given in error?
    • Understand how CPS derives alternate minimums using method 1 or 2
    • Approach may not be used if stated Alternate Weather Minimums Not Authorized
    • Wind including gust factor must be within maximum demonstarted crosswind limitation
    • Conditional Forecast elements below minima must be taken into account
    • MEL considerations must be taken into account
    • GPS approaches may not be used to determine alternte mins
    • Circling approaches must have higher of 1000/3 or published circling minima plus derived additive
    • If you believe your alternate has been given in error, contact the dispatcher
  10. Describe method 1:
    For airports with at least 1 operational navigation facility providing a stratight in non-precision or precision CAT I approach or circle to land approach add 400 to the appropriate MDA or DA and 1 statute mi to the landing minimum
  11. Method 2:
    Airport with at least 2 operational navaid facilities providing straigh-in non or precision approaches to different, suitable runways add 200 ft to the applicable DA or MDA of the higher of the 2 approaches used and 1/2 mile to the higher landing minimums of the approaches used
  12. How much fuel needed to be dispatched 3585
    Enough fuel to fly to the destination, to the most distant alternate, and additional 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption considering normal ATC routing
  13. While enroute, what requirement must you comply with when dispatched 3585?
    Captain must obtain current METARS and TAFs for the destination and alternate airports. Must contact Dispatch to coordinate posible diversion if it becomes necessary
  14. How does being on High Min affect your weather planning?
    • You must add 1/2 mi and 100 feet to the MDA/DH and visibilty requirement for any approach used into a regular, provisional, or re-fueling airports.
    • Visibility must be used to determine sutiability of your destination for departure
    • MDA/DH and visibility requirements during and IAP at your alternate will be published mins or 300/1, whichever is higher
  15. How to determine Bingo Fuel
    • Min Fuel required to fly
    • Present position to to destination +
    • Missed Approach +
    • Destination to Alternate +
    • Reserve Fuel+
    • Additional Fuel as needed
  16. MEL categories and Durations?
    • All are excluding the day it was entered in the logbook
    • Category A: time interval specified in remarks section
    • Category B: 3 days
    • Category C: 10 days
    • Category D: 120 days
  17. As you are walking out to the airplane that
    doesn't have any AC power available yet the fueler walks up and wants to refuel
    it. Does there have to be AC or DC power on the airplane in order for him to fuel?
    No. Either AC or Battery power (HOT BAT Bus) can power the airplane during refueling
  18. What happens when you prees the AC power button on the front ramp panel with the AVAIL light illuniated?
    Power is applied to the AC and DC gound service busses
  19. What doest the AVAIL light on the cockpit GPU button indicate?
    • That AC power is plugged into the airplane and the required Voltage, Amperage, and Frequency is met
    • 115/40/400 Hz
  20. Why does BAT 1 have an ON position and BAT 2 have an Auto position?
    • BAT I when turned on powers DC essential Bus 1
    • BAT 2 when turned to AUTO powers DC essential Bus 2 and when needed will switch to power the APU start bus according to system logic
  21. When both batteries are turned on what items are powered on the flight deck?
    • Compass light
    • Clock
    • IESS
    • Flight Gudiance Panel
    • Master Warning and Caution Buttons
    • Captain's Reversionary Panel
    • Captain's CCD
    • Display Screens 2 and 3
    • Radio 1
    • FO's MCDU
    • both ACPs
  22. Is there fire protection for the APU on the ground?
    Yes, if a fire is detected the APU will shut down after 10 seconds but the halon bottle must be discharched manually by pressing the button
  23. On the ground the APU automatically shuts down for:
    • Overspeed
    • Underspeed
    • FADEC critical Fault
    • APU Low Oil Pressure
    • APU High Oil Temp
    • APU EGT Over Temp
    • Sensor Fail
    • APU Fire
  24. In the air the APU automatically shuts down for:
    • Overspeed
    • Underspeed
    • FADEC critical Fault
  25. With both engines and APU running on the ground, what bleed source is supplying the packs?
    The engines
  26. Can the APU be used in flight for deicing
  27. With APU running and external AC power, what has priority in powering the Aircraft
    The APU
  28. If you do not delect the GPU button when power is pulled what will happen?
    You will have to cycle the switch when power is plugged in again the next time.
  29. Why do you time engine starts?
    To comply with starter limitations
  30. When starting the engines what items turn on/off?
    • Packs are shut off
    • Associated AC fuel pump turns on
    • Associated SCV and ATS turns on
  31. When else do PACKS shut off automatically besides engine start
    • When no bleed source is availabe
    • Respective bleed system duct leak
    • PACK failure (overheat or overpressure)
    • Engine Failure with thrust levers at TOGA
    • Thrust levers set to MAX
    • at 40 KTS with REF ECS OFF and REF A/I ALL selected
    • Cabin Dump button is pressed
  32. When do the AC fuel pumps turn on automatically?
    • During engine starts
    • APU running with engines off
    • Crossfeeding
    • Ejector pump fails
  33. What does DC fuel pump do?
    Provides pressurized fuel for normal APU operations and startup when AC power or the AC fuel pump is not available
  34. During an engine start where is the FADEC getting its power from
    Normal aircraft electrical system
  35. What powers the FADEC when the engine is running?
    PMA powers the FADEC above 50% N2
  36. What compressor stages is bleed air extracted from?
    6th and 10th stages (low pressure and high pressure)
  37. What stage is primarily used for anti-icing?
    10th stage
  38. With left engine running and the parking brake released, which electric hydraulic pump turns on automatically?
    Electric Hydraulic pump 2
  39. If you forget to turn off the APU with both ENG running with ENG REF ECS ON what will you see?
    Amber ENG REF ECS DISAGREE EICAS message. Indicates a discrepancy in the ECS input and the actual ECS bleed configuration.
  40. You are taxiing out and you swith the anti-ice mode selector to on. What happens and when?
    • Engine Anti-Ice turns on when engines are running
    • Wing anti-ice turns on at liftoff
    • There will be an ENG REF A-I DISAG EICAS message
  41. When will anti-ice turn on with REF A/I ALL selected in the MCDU and mode selector on auto?
    • Engine Anti-Ice with engines running
    • Wing Anti-Ice at 40 KTS wheel speed
  42. During taxi with flaps at 2 how many hydraulic pumps are running?
    3- both engine driven pumps and AC pump 3A
  43. When will the AC Hydaulic Pumps automatically turn on on the ground?
    • Pumps activate when flaps are greater than zero, and thrust levers are at takeoff thrust or ground speed is greater than 50 kts
    • AC pump2 will turn on with engine 1 running and parking brake released
    • During takeoff with thrust at TOGA, pumps run for 60 seconds to avoid pressure variations in the even of engine failure
  44. When will AC Hydraulic pumps automatically turn on in the air
    • With flaps greater than zero
    • If eithe EGPs fail
  45. What is the PTU used for?
    Assists landing gear extension or retraction if engine 2 fails or EDP 2 fails.
  46. What will happen on the gound if you push the AFT CARGO Smoke button with no smoke indication on the EICAS? Can it be reset?
    • This will arm the high rate bottle
    • Yes, by pushing the fire system test button or by waiting 2 minutes
  47. Will the low rate button ever fire automatically on the ground?
    Appropriate Cargo Button must be pressed twice or 3 times
  48. V1 cut profile
    • Maintain directional control
    • Rotate Up at 3 degs/s to FD guided pitch
    • With altimeter and VSI indication call positive rate gear up
    • Maintain V2
    • At 400 AFE call "heading, bank"
    • At Acceleration Altitude (1000 ft usually) call FLCH
    • Retract Flaps on Schedule
    • At VFS call "Con, Bank QRC/QRH checklist"
    • Climb to safe altitude and adjust speed as necessary
  49. Profile for Single Engine ILS
    • 6-8 NM from FAF 200 KIAS Flaps 1 prior to green dot
    • 5-6 NM from FAF 180 Flaps 2 prior to green dot
    • 1-3 NM from FAF 160 Flaps 3 prior to green dot and gear down prior to Flaps 5
    • 0-1 NM from FAF Flaps 5 slow to VAP
    • 50 ft HAT Thrust Levers to Idle
  50. Profile for Single Engine GA:
    • Press the GA button/s and move the thrust lever to TOGA
    • Simultaneously call "Go-Around, Flaps 2" and rotating to the FD guidance or 8 degrees pitvh up
    • With VSI and Altimeter indications call "positive rate, gear up"
    • Maintain VAC and navigate MAP or assigned by ATC
    • At 400 AFE call "Heading, Bank" Auto pilot may be used at this point
    • At acceleration altitude call "FLCH, Speed VFS"
    • Accelerate to VFS while retracting flaps on schedule
    • At VFS call for "CON, BANK"
    • Continue climbout to MAP altitude.
  51. You level at 3,000 after takeoff and you determine that you need to return to land . Do you need to change the the destination airport in the MCDU to change the landing field elevation?
    No. The CPCS will set the abort mode when the aircraft stops climbing cruise is not activated, PA is less than 10,000 ft, or airplane is less than 5000 ft AFE
  52. What do you see when you select FLCH
    • FMA will display FLCH on the far right in either magenta or green and SPDE on the Far Left
    • The FD and flight path vector will appear
    • CLB 1 or 2 will be selected
  53. If FLCH is never selected when will thrust adjust to CLB?
    • Whenever altitude is selected higher than current altitude
    • Whenever passing 3000 AGL and landing gear is retracted
  54. If there was a roll Jam on the CAs side and the Aileron Disconnect handle was pulled what, if anything would the FO not have available?
    • Left Aileron
    • Artificial Feel
    • Aileron Trim
  55. In auto mode what happens when you press the Cabin Dump button?
    In Manual Mode
    • Packs and Recirc fans are shut off
    • Outflow valve will be commanded to maintain a cabin rate of 2000 fpm up to 12,400 ft. at which point the OV is closed
    • In manual mode the dump button does not work
  56. What condition would cause the RAT to deploy automatically?
    Whenever AC power is not powering the the AC buses
  57. What have you gained with the RAT deployed from if you just had the batteries turned on
    • Time
    • The batteries only provide power for 10 mins
  58. Since the F/O has the FMS on his MCDU how does the Captain navigate?
    By selecting FMS on his GCP (cross side in yellow needles)
  59. What will happen if you're speed drops below 130 kts with the RAT deployed?
    Load Shedding occurs and the AC ESS Bus is no longer powered
  60. If the speed drops below 130 kts, what speed do you have to accelerate to regain ESS AC
    145 KIAS
  61. Will the Emergency Illuminate with the RAT deployed due to a total AC power failure?
    In the armed mode all emergecy lights illuminate automatically if the DC buses lose power or the airplane electrical power is turned off
  62. What is the best way to tell that the RAT is supplying power to the AC ESS Bus?
    The battery discharging message will go away on the EICAS
  63. With the RAT deployed the flight controls go into Direct mode. What causes the flight controls to revert to Direct Mode?
    • FCM removed from the control loop due to multiple ACE failures
    • Loss of data from FCMs
    • pushing the buttons on the Flight control panel
  64. At what altitude does the cabin altitude HI EICAS message come on?
    9700 ft or higher if the cabin is higher than +500 for LFE higher than 9400
  65. Consideration for approach and landing with RAT deployed?
    • Avoid side slipping the airplane
    • Slats and flaps will operate at low-rate
    • Landing will not be beyond flaps 3
    • Nose wheel steering will be inoperative
  66. Considerations if you were able to get your APU GEN or IDG back on line for your approach?
    • Flight controls buttons would need to be pushed in then back out to recycle
    • Still limited to Flaps 3
  67. Different ways to disconnect the autopilot?
    • Windshear escape mode activated
    • Stick Shaker activated
    • AP on guidance panel is pressed
    • Pulling Aileron or Elevator disconnect handles
    • Pilot input contrary to autopilot with a long time light force or a short strong force
    • Pressing the TCS button (momentary disconnects)
  68. Landing in Direct Mode would the spoilers and the multifunction spoilers deploy?
    Would they deploy using the speedbrake?
    No. Ground spoilers are not available in direct mode.